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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | June 2nd Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. What was the global production of plastic waste in 2019 according to the OECD Global Plastic Outlook?
    A) 200 million tonnes
    B) 353 million tonnes
    C) 500 million tonnes
    D) 600 million tonnes
    Answer: B) 353 million tonnes
  2. The OECD Global Plastic Outlook aims to provide a comprehensive analysis of which aspects?
    A) Plastic production
    B) Plastic consumption
    C) Plastic waste management
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  3. What major environmental concern is identified in the Global Plastic Outlook report?
    A) Air pollution
    B) Water scarcity
    C) Plastic pollution
    D) Soil erosion
    Answer: C) Plastic pollution
  4. According to the report, what is noted about global plastic recycling rates?
    A) They are very high
    B) They are increasing steadily
    C) They are very low
    D) They are adequate
    Answer: C) They are very low
  5. What ongoing discussions are highlighted in the Global Plastic Outlook report?
    A) Economic growth
    B) Climate change
    C) An international legally binding treaty on plastic pollution
    D) Renewable energy
    Answer: C) An international legally binding treaty on plastic pollution
  6. In which countries were the antlion species Pseudoformicaleo nubecula and Creoleon cinnamomeus found?
    A) India and Thailand
    B) India and Vietnam
    C) India, Thailand, and Vietnam
    D) Thailand and Vietnam
    Answer: C) India, Thailand, and Vietnam
  7. Which of the following is true about the larvae of Pseudoformicaleo and Creoleon species?
    A) They build pits
    B) They live under the surface in loose soils
    C) They live on trees
    D) They live in water
    Answer: B) They live under the surface in loose soils
  8. How many antlion species have been reported from Kerala, India?
    A) 5
    B) 7
    C) 10
    D) 12
    Answer: B) 7
  9. What is the total number of antlion species reported from India?
    A) 100
    B) 110
    C) 120
    D) 130
    Answer: C) 120
  10. What was the percentage increase in the number of High Net-Worth Individuals (HNWIs) in India in 2023?
    A) 5%
    B) 10.5%
    C) 12.2%
    D) 15%
    Answer: C) 12.2%
  11. Which organization publishes the World Wealth Report?
    A) OECD
    B) Capgemini
    C) World Bank
    D) IMF
    Answer: B) Capgemini
  12. By what percentage did the financial wealth of India’s HNWIs increase in 2023?
    A) 10%
    B) 11.2%
    C) 12.4%
    D) 13.5%
    Answer: C) 12.4%
  13. What was India’s unemployment rate in 2023?
  14. A) 3.1%
    B) 4.5%
    C) 5%
    D) 7%
    Answer: A) 3.1%
  15. India’s national savings as a percentage of GDP increased to what value in 2023?
    A) 30%
    B) 31.5%
    C) 32.2%
    D) 33.4%
    Answer: D) 33.4%
  16. When was the Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (iCET) launched?
    A) January 2021
    B) January 2022
    C) January 2023
    D) January 2024
    Answer: C) January 2023
  17. Which countries are involved in the iCET?
    A) USA and Japan
    B) USA and China
    C) USA and India
    D) USA and South Korea
    Answer: C) USA and India
  18. Which areas does the iCET focus on?
    A) Artificial intelligence
    B) Quantum computing
    C) Semiconductors and wireless telecommunication
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  19. When was the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) launched?
    A) 2020
    B) 2021
    C) 2022
    D) 2023
    Answer: C) 2022
  20. How many member countries are there in the IPEF?
    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 14
    D) 16
    Answer: C) 14
  21. Which pillar is India not a part of in the IPEF?
    A) Trade
    B) Supply Chain
    C) Clean Economy
    D) Fair Economy
    Answer: A) Trade
  22. Who introduced the concept of ‘Viksit Bharat’?
    A) Finance Minister Sitharaman
    B) President Ram Nath Kovind
    C) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    D) Home Minister Amit Shah
    Answer: C) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  23. During which event did Modi express confidence in Odisha’s role as a growth engine?
    A) Independence Day Speech
    B) Republic Day Celebration
    C) NDA Meet
    D) G20 Summit
    Answer: C) NDA Meet
  24. By which year does the government aim to achieve the vision of ‘Viksit Bharat’?
    A) 2025
    B) 2030
    C) 2040
    D) 2047
    Answer: D) 2047
  25. What is one of the key focuses to achieve ‘Viksit Bharat’ according to Sitharaman?
    A) Increase foreign investments
    B) Enhance people’s capabilities
    C) Build more highways
    D) Expand military strength
    Answer: B) Enhance people’s capabilities
  26. ‘Viksit Bharat’ includes which of the following?
    A) Prosperity in harmony with nature
    B) Modern infrastructure
    C) Opportunities for all citizens
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  27. When was the Odisha Mineral Bearing Areas Development Corporation (OMBADC) formed?
    A) 2012
    B) 2014
    C) 2016
    D) 2018
    Answer: B) 2014
  28. Who oversees the OMBADC projects?
    A) Justice AK Patnaik
    B) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    C) Finance Minister Sitharaman
    D) Chief Minister of Odisha
    Answer: A) Justice AK Patnaik
  29. What is the primary mandate of OMBADC?
    A) Urban development
    B) Tribal welfare and area development
    C) Industrial growth
    D) Tourism promotion
    Answer: B) Tribal welfare and area development
  30. Which areas are financed by OMBADC funds?
    A) Livelihood intervention
    B) Health
    C) Water supply and sanitation
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  31. What directive led to the formation of OMBADC?
    A) Parliament resolution
    B) Hon’ble Supreme Court of India
    C) Odisha State Government
    D) Central Government policy
    Answer: B) Hon’ble Supreme Court of India
  32. What is the duration of the Bhubaneswar Film Festival?
    A) One day
    B) Two days
    C) Three days
    D) Four days
    Answer: C) Three days
  33. Which organization is responsible for organizing the Bhubaneswar Film Festival?
    A) Odisha State Film Development Corporation
    B) Bhubaneswar Film Circle
    C) National School of Drama
    D) Indian Film Association
    Answer: B) Bhubaneswar Film Circle
  34. Which film was screened on the first day of the Bhubaneswar Film Festival?
    A) Maya Miriga
    B) Salaam Bombay!
    C) Pather Panchali
    D) Lagaan
    Answer: A) Maya Miriga
  35. How many award-winning Odia films will be showcased during the festival?
    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 15
    D) 20
    Answer: C) 15
  36. Which National School of Drama director was present at the festival inauguration?
    A) Chitta Tripathy
    B) Prashant Nanda
    C) Ketan Mehta
    D) Deepa Sahi
    Answer: A) Chitta Tripathy
  37. How many anthrax cases were detected in Odisha’s Dasmantpur block?
    A) One
    B) Two
    C) Three
    D) Four
    Answer: C) Three
  38. What causes anthrax?
    A) Virus
    B) Bacteria
    C) Fungus
    D) Parasite
    Answer: B) Bacteria
  39. Which bacterium is responsible for anthrax?
    A) Bacillus anthracis
    B) Streptococcus pyogenes
    C) Escherichia coli
    D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Answer: A) Bacillus anthracis
  40. What is a common mode of anthrax infection in livestock?
    A) Contaminated water
    B) Infected insects
    C) Inhalation of spores
    D) Person-to-person contact
    Answer: C) Inhalation of spores
  41. In which village were the anthrax cases detected?
    A) Kalahandi
    B) Kadkipadar
    C) Koraput
    D) Kendujhar
    Answer: B) Kadkipadar
  42. When was the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) established?
    a) 1940
    b) 1945
    c) 1950
    d) 1960
    Answer: b) 1945
  43. How many permanent members does the UNSC have?
    a) 3
    b) 4
    c) 5
    d) 6
    Answer: c) 5
  44. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the UNSC?
    a) United States
    b) United Kingdom
    c) Germany
    d) China
    Answer: c) Germany
  45. How many non-permanent members are there in the UNSC?
    a) 5
    b) 7
    c) 10
    d) 12
    Answer: c) 10
  46. For how long are the non-permanent members of the UNSC elected?
    a) 1 year
    b) 2 years
    c) 3 years
    d) 5 years
    Answer: b) 2 years
  47. Which body elects the non-permanent members of the UNSC?
    a) General Assembly
    b) International Court of Justice
    c) Secretariat
    d) Economic and Social Council
    Answer: a) General Assembly
  48. What is the primary responsibility of the UNSC?
    a) Promoting human rights
    b) Maintenance of international peace and security
    c) Economic development
    d) Environmental protection
    Answer: b) Maintenance of international peace and security
  49. What is required for a decision on substantive matters to be made in the UNSC?
    a) A simple majority
    b) Two-thirds majority
    c) Nine votes including the concurring votes of all five permanent members
    d) Unanimous consent
    Answer: c) Nine votes including the concurring votes of all five permanent members
  50. Which term describes the power of the permanent members to block any substantive resolution?
    a) Absolute power
    b) Veto power
    c) Override power
    d) Legislative power
    Answer: b) Veto power
  51. Which of the following is not a function of the UNSC?
    a) Determine the existence of a threat to peace
    b) Recommend methods of dispute settlement
    c) Authorize the use of force
    d) Supervise international trade agreements
    Answer: d) Supervise international trade agreements
  52. Who can recommend the admission of new UN members?
    a) General Assembly
    b) Secretary-General
    c) International Court of Justice
    d) Security Council
    Answer: d) Security Council
  53. What is one of the roles of the UNSC in relation to the UN Secretary-General?
    a) Appoint the Secretary-General directly
    b) Recommend the appointment of the Secretary-General
    c) Veto the Secretary-General’s decisions
    d) None of the above
    Answer: b) Recommend the appointment of the Secretary-General
  54. Which country is currently a permanent member of the UNSC?
    a) India
    b) Japan
    c) Russia
    d) Brazil
    Answer: c) Russia
  55. What does the UNSC do to maintain international peace and security?
    a) Calls upon parties to settle disputes by peaceful means
    b) Establishes educational programs
    c) Provides financial aid to developing countries
    d) Conducts scientific research
    Answer: a) Calls upon parties to settle disputes by peaceful means
  56. What can the UNSC impose to maintain or restore international peace and security?
    a) Trade agreements
    b) Sanctions
    c) Diplomatic missions
    d) Cultural exchanges
    Answer: b) Sanctions
  57. The UNSC can authorize the use of what to maintain or restore international peace and security?
    a) Diplomatic dialogue
    b) Economic aid
    c) Force
    d) Trade incentives
    Answer: c) Force
  58. The recommendation of methods of adjustment or terms of settlement is a function of which body?
    a) United Nations General Assembly
    b) International Court of Justice
    c) United Nations Security Council
    d) Economic and Social Council
    Answer: c) United Nations Security Council
  59. What is the primary document that established the UNSC?
    a) The Geneva Convention
    b) The Treaty of Versailles
    c) The United Nations Charter
    d) The Helsinki Accords
    Answer: c) The United Nations Charter
  60. Who presents the ‘Golden Wings’ in the Indian Navy?
    a) President of India
    b) Prime Minister of India
    c) Vice Admiral
    d) Chief of Naval Staff
    Answer: c) Vice Admiral
  61. What event marks the achievement of becoming the first woman helicopter pilot in the Indian Navy?
    a) Graduation from naval academy
    b) Awarding of the ‘Golden Wings’
    c) Completion of a mission
    d) Appointment as a commander
    Answer: b) Awarding of the ‘Golden Wings’
  62. What digital platform is being launched by the Health Ministry and IRDAI?
    a) National Health Information Portal
    b) National Health Claim Exchange
    c) Digital Health Record System
    d) Universal Health Coverage Network
    Answer: b) National Health Claim Exchange
  63. What is the primary objective of the National Health Claim Exchange?
    a) To provide health education
    b) To process health insurance claims
    c) To conduct health surveys
    d) To supply medical equipment
    Answer: b) To process health insurance claims
  64. What does the National Health Claim Exchange aim to reduce?
    a) Healthcare costs
    b) Turnaround time for claim processing
    c) Number of insurance companies
    d) Number of hospitals
    Answer: b) Turnaround time for claim processing
  65. What is defined as the inability of children to access and consume a nutritious and diverse diet?
    a) Child hunger
    b) Child food poverty
    c) Child malnutrition
    d) Child diet deficiency
    Answer: b) Child food poverty
  66. Which organization released the Child Nutrition Report 2024?
    a) World Health Organization
    b) Food and Agriculture Organization
    c) United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
    d) World Bank
    Answer: c) United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
  67. What percentage of children under the age of 5 globally experience severe food poverty?
    a) 10%
    b) 15%
    c) 20%
    d) 27%
    Answer: d) 27%
  68. Which region houses the majority of children living in severe food poverty according to the report?
    a) North America
    b) Europe
    c) South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa
    d) Latin America
    Answer: c) South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa
  69. Where was the Santiago Network for Loss and Damage established?
    a) COP21 in Paris
    b) COP23 in Bonn
    c) COP25 in Madrid
    d) COP26 in Glasgow
    Answer: c) COP25 in Madrid
  70. What is the main purpose of the Santiago Network?
    a) Financial aid to developed countries
    b) Promote international trade
    c) Catalyze technical assistance to developing countries for climate-related loss and damage
    d) Conduct climate research
    Answer: c) Catalyze technical assistance to developing countries for climate-related loss and damage
  71. Under which mechanism is the Santiago Network operationalized?
    a) Kyoto Protocol
    b) Paris Agreement
    c) Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage
    d) Doha Amendment
    Answer: c) Warsaw International Mechanism for Loss and Damage
  72. When was the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY) launched?
    A) June 25, 2015
    B) August 15, 2014
    C) January 1, 2016
    D) March 31, 2017
    Answer: A (June 25, 2015)
  73. Which ministry is responsible for implementing PMAY?
    A) Ministry of Finance
    B) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
    C) Ministry of Rural Development
    D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
    Answer: B (Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs)
  74. What is the main objective of PMAY?
    A) To promote digital literacy
    B) To provide affordable housing to the urban and rural poor
    C) To improve healthcare facilities
    D) To promote clean energy initiatives
    Answer: B (To provide affordable housing to the urban and rural poor)
  75. Which component of PMAY focuses on urban areas?
    A) PMAY-Rural
    B) Gramin
    C) Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS)
    D) Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP)
    Answer: C (Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS))
  76. Which PMAY component involves private sector participation?
    A) In-situ Slum Redevelopment (ISSR)
    B) Beneficiary-led Individual House Construction/Enhancement (BLC)
    C) Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP)
    D) Gramin
    Answer: C (Affordable Housing in Partnership (AHP))
  77. What does PMAY-G aim to provide in rural areas?
    A) Free electricity to farmers
    B) Pucca houses with basic amenities
    C) Microfinance for small businesses
    D) High-speed internet connectivity
    Answer: B (Pucca houses with basic amenities)
  78. Which international agreement is related to food safety and animal/plant health standards?
    A) Paris Agreement
    B) Kyoto Protocol
    C) Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement
    D) Vienna Convention
    Answer: C (Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS) Agreement)
  79. What year did the SPS Agreement come into force?
    A) 1992
    B) 1995
    C) 2000
    D) 2005
    Answer: B (1995)
  80. Which organization oversees the implementation of the SPS Agreement?
    A) United Nations
    B) World Health Organization (WHO)
    C) World Trade Organization (WTO)
    D) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    Answer: C (World Trade Organization (WTO))
  81. Which principle mandates that SPS measures must be based on scientific evidence?
    A) Precautionary principle
    B) Scientific basis
    C) Equivalence
    D) Transparency
    Answer: B (Scientific basis)
  82. Which provision of the SPS Agreement encourages alignment with international standards?
    A) Harmonization
    B) Regionalization
    C) Transparency
    D) Equivalence
    Answer: A (Harmonization)
  83. What is the main focus of the Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A) Protecting endangered bird species
    B) Establishing tiger reserves
    C) Promoting eco-tourism
    D) Conserving marine biodiversity
    Answer: B (Establishing tiger reserves)
  84. In which Indian state is the Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary located?
    A) Madhya Pradesh
    B) Uttar Pradesh
    C) Rajasthan
    D) Karnataka
    Answer: B (Uttar Pradesh)
  85. What year was the Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary established?
    A) 1988
    B) 1995
    C) 2000
    D) 2010
    Answer: A (1988)
  86. Which initiative aims to integrate environmental sustainability into education?
    A) Green Revolution
    B) Greening Education Partnership
    C) Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
    D) Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
    Answer: B (Greening Education Partnership)
  87. Which ministry is responsible for the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme?
    A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    B) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
    C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    D) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    Answer: B (Ministry of New & Renewable Energy)
  88. What is the goal of the SIGHT programme?
    A) To promote green tourism
    B) To enhance green ammonia production
    C) To conserve biodiversity
    D) To improve healthcare access
    Answer: B (To enhance green ammonia production)
  89. Which agency is leading the SIGHT programme?
    A) NITI Aayog
    B) Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
    C) National Hydrogen Corporation (NHC)
    D) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA)
    Answer: B (Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI))
  90. Which mission does the SIGHT programme fall under?
    A) National Hydrogen Mission
    B) Green India Mission
    C) National Green Hydrogen Mission
    D) Solar Mission
    Answer: C (National Green Hydrogen Mission)
  91. What does the SIGHT programme aim to strengthen?
    A) Wind energy production
    B) Solar panel manufacturing
    C) Domestic electrolyser manufacturing
    D) Geothermal energy exploration
    Answer: C (Domestic electrolyser manufacturing)
  92. What does AIM stand for in the context of AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0?
    A) Atal Innovation Mission
    B) All India Movement
    C) Accelerated Innovation Method
    D) Advanced Industrial Movement
    Answer: A
  93. Which organization is collaborating with AIM for the ICDK Water Challenge 4.0?
    A) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
    B) Innovation Centre Denmark (ICDK)
    C) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
    D) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    Answer: B
  94. What is the main focus of the AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0?
    A) Addressing critical water-related challenges in India
    B) Enhancing agricultural productivity
    C) Promoting renewable energy solutions
    D) Developing smart cities
    Answer: A
  95. Which edition of the ‘Innovations for You’ handbook has been launched along with the Water Challenge 4.0?
    A) First edition
    B) Second edition
    C) Third edition
    D) Fifth edition
    Answer: D
  96. What is the date of birth of Birsa Munda?
    A) November 15, 1875
    B) June 9, 1900
    C) April 23, 1857
    D) January 26, 1925
    Answer: A
  97. Which tribal group did Birsa Munda belong to?
    A) Santhal
    B) Munda
    C) Gond
    D) Bhil
    Answer: B
  98. Birsa Munda played a pivotal role in which movement against the British?
    A) Quit India Movement
    B) Civil Disobedience Movement
    C) Munda Rebellion (Ulgulan/Tamar Revolt)
    D) Khilafat Movement
    Answer: C
  99. What is the scientific name of the four-horned antelope found in India?
    A) Panthera tigris
    B) Elephas maximus
    C) Tetracerus quadricornis
    D) Rusa unicolor
    Answer: C
  100. Where was the rare four-horned antelope recently sighted for the first time?
    A) Jim Corbett National Park
    B) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve
    C) Gir National Park
    D) Kaziranga National Park
    Answer: B
  101. Which overseas territory was recently in news due to widespread protests?
    A) Puerto Rico
    B) New Caledonia
    C) Guam
    D) Falkland Islands
    Answer: B
  102. New Caledonia is located in which part of the world?
    A) Caribbean Sea
    B) Mediterranean Sea
    C) Pacific Ocean
    D) Indian Ocean
    Answer: C
  103. What natural resource is New Caledonia rich in?
    A) Diamonds
    B) Oil
    C) Nickel
    D) Gold
    Answer: C
  104. What is the status of the four-horned antelope according to the IUCN Red List?
    A) Endangered
    B) Critically Endangered
    C) Vulnerable
    D) Near Threatened
    Answer: C
  105. Which Indian state recently paid tribute to Birsa Munda on his death anniversary?
    A) Chhattisgarh
    B) Jharkhand
    C) Odisha
    D) Bihar
    Answer: B
  106. What does ICDK stand for in the AIM – ICDK Water Challenge 4.0?
    A) Indian Centre for Development and Knowledge
    B) International Centre for Danish Knowledge
    C) Innovation Centre Denmark
    D) International Collaboration for Development and Knowledge
    Answer: C
  107. According to Indian law, under what circumstances can Members of Parliament be disqualified?
    A) If they are unable to attend House proceedings
    B) If they fail to declare their assets
    C) If they are convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for at least two years
    D) If they refuse to take oath after winning elections
    Answer: C
  108. What is the nickname given to Birsa Munda?
    A) Loknayak
    B) Dharti Aba
    C) Deshbandhu
    D) Sher-e-Punjab
    Answer: B
  109. Which committee makes recommendations regarding the absence of jailed Members of Parliament from House proceedings?
    A) Lok Sabha Ethics Committee
    B) House Committee on Absence of Members
    C) Parliament Rules Committee
    D) Speaker’s Consultative Committee
    Answer: B
  110. When was the state of Jharkhand created in honor of Birsa Munda?
    A) 2000
    B) 1990
    C) 2010
    D) 1980
    Answer: A
  111. Which Indian wildlife reserve recently reported the sighting of the four-horned antelope?
    A) Jim Corbett National Park
    B) Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve
    C) Kaziranga National Park
    D) Ranthambore National Park
    Answer: B
  112. Who announced the introduction of an ‘advanced farmers policy’ in Odisha?
    A. Naveen Patnaik
    B. Mohan Charan Majhi
    C. Narendra Modi
    D. Utkal Mani Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: B. Mohan Charan Majhi
  113. Where did Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi make the announcement regarding the farmers policy?
    A. Bhubaneswar
    B. Puri
    C. Suando village
    D. Cuttack
    Answer: C. Suando village
  114. Which party’s manifesto promises is the ‘advanced farmers policy’ based on?
    A. BJP
    B. BJD
    C. Congress
    D. CPI
    Answer: A. BJP
  115. When were all four gates of the Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri opened recently?
    A. June 11
    B. June 12
    C. June 13
    D. June 14
    Answer: A. June 11
  116. What is the significance of opening all four gates of the Shree Jagannath Temple?
    A. To ease entry for devotees
    B. To conduct rituals
    C. To improve security
    D. To attract tourists
    Answer: A. To ease entry for devotees
  117. During which ritual were the gates of the Shree Jagannath Temple opened?
    A. Mangala Alati
    B. Sandhya Alati
    C. Madhyahna Alati
    D. Ratri Alati
    Answer: A. Mangala Alati
  118. What is the total area of the Shree Jagannath Temple precincts?
    A. 5 acres
    B. 10 acres
    C. 15 acres
    D. 20 acres
    Answer: B. 10 acres
  119. Who was nominated as the new Speaker of the Odisha Assembly in 2024?
    A. Naveen Patnaik
    B. Surama Padhy
    C. Mohan Charan Majhi
    D. Narendra Modi
    Answer: B. Surama Padhy
  120. Which constituency did Surama Padhy represent before becoming the Speaker?
    A. Bhubaneswar
    B. Ranpur
    C. Puri
    D. Cuttack
    Answer: B. Ranpur
  121. How many first-time MLAs were appointed as ministers in Odisha’s new BJP government?
    A. 6
    B. 7
    C. 8
    D. 9
    Answer: C. 8
  122. Who became the first woman deputy chief minister of Odisha?
    A. Pravati Parida
    B. Surama Padhy
    C. Prithviraj Harichandan
    D. Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
    Answer: A. Pravati Parida
  123. Which MLA was appointed as the Minister of Cooperation in Odisha’s previous government?
    A. Pravati Parida
    B. Surama Padhy
    C. Prithviraj Harichandan
    D. Gokulananda Mallik
    Answer: A. Pravati Parida
  124. How much corpus fund was approved for the Shree Jagannath Temple by the Odisha Cabinet?
    A. Rs 100 crore
    B. Rs 250 crore
    C. Rs 500 crore
    D. Rs 750 crore
    Answer: C. Rs 500 crore
  125. Who constructed the Shree Jagannath Temple?
    A. Naveen Patnaik
    B. Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva
    C. Mohan Charan Majhi
    D. Narendra Modi
    Answer: B. Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva
  126. Which gate of the Shree Jagannath Temple symbolizes ‘mokshya’ or liberation?
    A. Singha Dwara
    B. Vyaghra Dwara
    C. Aswa Dwara
    D. Hasti Dwara
    Answer: A. Singha Dwara
  127. Which gate of the Shree Jagannath Temple symbolizes ‘dharma’ or righteousness?
    A. Singha Dwara
    B. Vyaghra Dwara
    C. Aswa Dwara
    D. Hasti Dwara
    Answer: B. Vyaghra Dwara
  128. Which gate of the Shree Jagannath Temple symbolizes ‘kama’ or desire?
    A. Singha Dwara
    B. Vyaghra Dwara
    C. Aswa Dwara
    D. Hasti Dwara
    Answer: C. Aswa Dwara
  129. Which gate of the Shree Jagannath Temple symbolizes prosperity?
    A. Singha Dwara
    B. Vyaghra Dwara
    C. Aswa Dwara
    D. Hasti Dwara
    Answer: D. Hasti Dwara
  130. Who is the Prime Minister committed to implementing BJP’s promises in Odisha?
    A. Naveen Patnaik
    B. Mohan Charan Majhi
    C. Narendra Modi
    D. Utkal Mani Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: C. Narendra Modi
  131. How many gates does the Shree Jagannath Temple have?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
    Answer: C. 4
  132. What is the Group of Seven (G7)?
    A. A group of seven major industrialized nations
    B. A coalition of developing countries
    C. A military alliance
    D. A global health organization
    Answer: A

     

  133. Which country was suspended from the G8 in 2014?
    A. China
    B. Russia
    C. Brazil
    D. India
    Answer: B

     

  134. Who has been reappointed as India’s National Security Advisor (NSA)?
    A. Amit Shah
    B. Ajit Doval
    C. Rajnath Singh
    D. Nirmala Sitharaman
    Answer: B

     

  135. When was the National Security Advisor position established in India?
    A. 1947
    B. 1962
    C. 1998
    D. 2005
    Answer: C

     

  136. What is GAAR in the context of taxation?
    A. Global Anti-Avoidance Rule
    B. General Anti-Abuse Rule
    C. Governmental Action Against Revenue
    D. General Adjustment in Revenue
    Answer: B

     

  137. What is the purpose of GAAR?
    A. To attract foreign investment
    B. To prevent tax avoidance
    C. To reduce inflation
    D. To promote exports
    Answer: B

     

  138. Which court recently ruled on a GAAR-related case in India?
    A. Supreme Court of India
    B. Bombay High Court
    C. Telangana High Court
    D. Delhi High Court
    Answer: C

     

  139. Which country topped the Global Gender Gap Report 2024?
    A. Norway
    B. Iceland
    C. Sweden
    D. Finland
    Answer: B

     

  140. What is India’s rank in the Global Gender Gap Report 2024?
    A. 101
    B. 129
    C. 75
    D. 150
    Answer: B

     

  141. Where is the Nagarahole Tiger Reserve located?
    A. Kerala
    B. Karnataka
    C. Tamil Nadu
    D. Maharashtra
    Answer: B

     

  142. Which river flows through the Nagarahole Tiger Reserve?
    A. Ganges
    B. Brahmaputra
    C. Kaveri
    D. Godavari
    Answer: C

     

  143. When was the Nagarahole Tiger Reserve declared a tiger reserve?
    A. 1955
    B. 1975
    C. 1985
    D. 1999
    Answer: D

     

  144. What recent incident occurred near the Nagarahole Tiger Reserve?
    A. Forest fire
    B. Poaching of elephants
    C. Electrocution of an elephant
    D. Illegal logging
    Answer: C

     

  145. Which annual summit recently agreed to a $50 billion loan for Ukraine?
    A. G20
    B. G7
    C. BRICS
    D. NATO
    Answer: B

     

  146. Who sets the agenda for the annual G7 summits?
    A. Host country
    B. European Union
    C. United Nations
    D. Previous chair
    Answer: A

     

  147. Which country chaired the G7 before the United States?
    A. Germany
    B. France
    C. United Kingdom
    D. Canada
    Answer: C

     

  148. Who appoints the National Security Advisor in India?
    A. President of India
    B. Prime Minister of India
    C. Chief Justice of India
    D. Defense Minister
    Answer: B

     

  149. Which ministry is responsible for framing GAAR in India?
    A. Ministry of Finance
    B. Ministry of External Affairs
    C. Ministry of Home Affairs
    D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    Answer: A

     

  150. Which sector does the Global Gender Gap Report primarily focus on?
    A. Economic participation
    B. Environmental sustainability
    C. Technological innovation
    D. Educational attainment
    Answer: A