Odia govt jobs   »   weekly current affairs June 2024 current...
Top Performing

Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | June 3rd Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

Download ADDA247 Odia APP – Appear Latest Exam Test Series & Live Classes

  1. What is the primary function of Nagastra-1?
    A) Surveillance
    B) Communication
    C) High-precision, man-portable suicide drone
    D) Medical evacuation
    Answer: C) High-precision, man-portable suicide drone
  2. Which organization developed the Nagastra-1?
    A) DRDO
    B) HAL
    C) EEL
    D) ISRO
    Answer: C) EEL
  3. What is the operational range of Nagastra-1?
    A) 10 kilometers
    B) 20 kilometers
    C) 30 kilometers
    D) 40 kilometers
    Answer: C) 30 kilometers
  4. How accurate is the Nagastra-1 in its precision strikes?
    A) 5 meters
    B) 2 meters
    C) 10 meters
    D) 15 meters
    Answer: B) 2 meters
  5. What unique feature allows Nagastra-1 to abort an attack and ensure safe retrieval?
    A) Auto-return function
    B) Remote-controlled hover capability
    C) GPS tracking
    D) Manual override system
    Answer: B) Remote-controlled hover capability
  6. In which fields is the Kavli Prize awarded?
    A) Medicine, Literature, Peace
    B) Astrophysics, Neuroscience, Nanoscience
    C) Physics, Chemistry, Biology
    D) Engineering, Mathematics, Economics
    Answer: B) Astrophysics, Neuroscience, Nanoscience
  7. How often is the Kavli Prize awarded?
    A) Annually
    B) Biennially
    C) Every four years
    D) Every five years
    Answer: B) Biennially
  8. What is the cash prize amount for each field in the Kavli Prize?
    A) $500,000
    B) $1 million
    C) $2 million
    D) $3 million
    Answer: B) $1 million
  9. Which two scientists were awarded the Kavli Prize in 2024 for their work on exoplanets?
    A) Robert Langer and Chad Mirkin
    B) Armand Paul Alivisatos and Sara Seager
    C) David Charbonneau and Sara Seager
    D) David Charbonneau and Robert Langer
    Answer: C) David Charbonneau and Sara Seager
  10. What did Robert Langer from MIT contribute to earn the Kavli Prize?
    A) Discoveries in exoplanet atmospheres
    B) Nano-engineering materials for therapeutic release
    C) Development of quantum dots
    D) Introduction of spherical nucleic acids
    Answer: B) Nano-engineering materials for therapeutic release
    NIIMH and WHO Collaborating Centre
  11. What does NIIMH stand for?
    A) National Institute of Indian Modern Health
    B) National Institute of Indian Medical Heritage
    C) National Institute of International Medical History
    D) National Institute of Indigenous Medical Health
    Answer: B) National Institute of Indian Medical Heritage
  12. What significant role has NIIMH been designated by WHO?
    A) Centre for Biomedical Research
    B) Collaborating Centre for Traditional Medicine Research
    C) Centre for Disease Control
    D) Collaborating Centre for Vaccine Research
    Answer: B) Collaborating Centre for Traditional Medicine Research
  13. Which traditional medicine systems will NIIMH assist in standardizing terminologies for?
    A) Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha, Sowa-Rigpa
    B) Homeopathy, Biomedicine, Naturopathy, Yoga
    C) Traditional Chinese Medicine, Ayurveda, Homeopathy, Yoga
    D) Sowa-Rigpa, Unani, Homeopathy, Biomedicine
    Answer: A) Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha, Sowa-Rigpa
  14. What is the duration of NIIMH’s designation as a WHO Collaborating Centre?
    A) 2 years
    B) 3 years
    C) 4 years
    D) 5 years
    Answer: C) 4 years
  15. What digital initiative by NIIMH catalogs 16,000 Ayush manuscripts?
    A) SAHI Portal
    B) AMAR Portal
    C) Ayush Research Portal
    D) Traditional Medicine Portal
    Answer: B) AMAR Portal
    World Blood Donor Day
  16. When is World Blood Donor Day observed?
    A) June 14
    B) July 14
    C) August 14
    D) September 14
    Answer: A) June 14
  17. What is the theme for World Blood Donor Day 2024?
    A) “Donate Blood, Save Lives”
    B) “Thank You, Blood Donors!”
    C) “20 Years of Celebrating Giving”
    D) “Blood Connects Us All”
    Answer: C) “20 Years of Celebrating Giving”
  18. Which group is primarily affected by the lack of access to safe blood?
    A) Children
    B) Elderly
    C) Patients requiring regular transfusions
    D) Pregnant women
    Answer: C) Patients requiring regular transfusions
    Hawkish Economic Policy
  19. What is the primary goal of hawkish economic policy?
    A) Stimulating economic growth
    B) Reducing unemployment
    C) Curbing inflation
    D) Increasing government spending
    Answer: C) Curbing inflation
  20. Which action is typically associated with hawkish economic policy?
    A) Lowering interest rates
    B) Increasing fiscal stimulus
    C) Raising interest rates
    D) Reducing inflation targets
    Answer: C) Raising interest rates
  21. What is the primary goal of adding 500 additional camera traps in Similipal Tiger Reserve?
    A) Enhance tourism
    B) Improve biodiversity research
    C) Enhance surveillance of tiger movements
    D) Reduce poaching
    Answer: C) Enhance surveillance of tiger movements
  22. How many total camera traps will Similipal Tiger Reserve have after the addition?
    A) 400
    B) 600
    C) 800
    D) 900
    Answer: D) 900
  23. According to the All Odisha Tiger Estimation (AOTE) 2023-24, how many tigers are estimated to be in Similipal?
    A) 17
    B) 27
    C) 37
    D) 47
    Answer: B) 27
  24. The NTCA mandates annual surveillance to track which of the following in tiger reserves?
    A) Human activities
    B) Weather patterns
    C) Tiger movements and co-predators
    D) Forest density
    Answer: C) Tiger movements and co-predators
  25. Under which act was the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) constituted?
    A) Environment Protection Act, 1986
    B) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
    C) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
    D) Biodiversity Act, 2002
    Answer: B) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
  26. Which centrally sponsored scheme supports tiger conservation in India?
    A) Green India Mission
    B) Project Elephant
    C) Project Tiger
    D) National Afforestation Programme
    Answer: C) Project Tiger
  27. Which festival did President Droupadi Murmu celebrate at Rashtrapati Bhavan to showcase Odia culture?
    A) Durga Puja
    B) Holi
    C) Raja
    D) Pongal
    Answer: C) Raja
  28. What is the significance of the first day of the Raja festival?
    A) End of harvest season
    B) Beginning of solar month of Mithuna
    C) Preparations for the festival
    D) Worship of Lord Shiva
    Answer: C) Preparations for the festival
  29. The Raja festival in Odisha is similar to which festival in Assam?
    A) Bihu
    B) Ambubachi Mela
    C) Rongali Bihu
    D) Majuli Festival
    Answer: B) Ambubachi Mela
  30. What is the main focus of Swachh Survekshan 2024 field assessment in Odisha?
    A) Construction of new toilets
    B) Waste management at ‘bulk waste generators’
    C) Planting more trees
    D) Reducing air pollution
    Answer: B) Waste management at ‘bulk waste generators’
  31. The Eco-sensitive Zone (ESZ) around Bhitarkanika spans how much area?
    A) 100 sq. km
    B) 300 sq. km
    C) 497.67 sq. km
    D) 800 sq. km
    Answer: C) 497.67 sq. km
  32. Bhitarkanika is renowned for which species of turtle?
    A) Leatherback turtle
    B) Green sea turtle
    C) Hawksbill turtle
    D) Olive Ridley Sea Turtle
    Answer: D) Olive Ridley Sea Turtle
  33. Which year was the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary established?
    A) 1970
    B) 1975
    C) 1980
    D) 1985
    Answer: B) 1975
  34. How many species of rare mangroves are found in Bhitarkanika?
    A) 50
    B) 70
    C) 88
    D) 100
    Answer: C) 88
  35. The ESZ notification around Bhitarkanika aims to protect which critical aspects?
    A) Urban development
    B) Industrial growth
    C) Critical habitats, migration routes, and nesting sites
    D) Agricultural expansion
    Answer: C) Critical habitats, migration routes, and nesting sites
  36. What is the significance of Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary?
    A) Coral reef conservation
    B) Mass nesting site for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles
    C) Whale watching
    D) Fishing harbor
    Answer: B) Mass nesting site for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles
  37. The Raja festival is also known as the ‘Swing Festival’ because of what reason?
    A) People swing from trees
    B) Swings are hung from tree branches for girls to play on
    C) Swings are used to worship deities
    D) Traditional swings are sold in markets
    Answer: B) Swings are hung from tree branches for girls to play on
  38. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the NTCA?
    A) Provide statutory authority to Project Tiger
    B) Oversee international tiger trade
    C) Foster accountability in management of Tiger Reserves
    D) Address livelihood interests of local people around Tiger Reserves
    Answer: B) Oversee international tiger trade
  39. What kind of survey is Swachh Survekshan?
    A) Health survey
    B) Education survey
    C) Cleanliness survey
    D) Economic survey
    Answer: C) Cleanliness survey
  40. How many species of birds are found in the Bhitarkanika region?
    A) 100
    B) 200
    C) 280
    D) 350
    Answer: C) 280
  41. Which nations border the South China Sea?
    a) China, Taiwan, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam
    b) China, Japan, South Korea, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, and Singapore
    c) China, India, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam
    d) China, Thailand, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam
    Answer: a) China, Taiwan, the Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore, and Vietnam
  42. What is the “nine-dash line” associated with?
    a) A maritime boundary claimed by Vietnam in the South China Sea
    b) China’s extensive territorial claim in the South China Sea
    c) A trade route in the South China Sea
    d) The demarcation of international waters by the United Nations
    Answer: b) China’s extensive territorial claim in the South China Sea
  43. Which of the following areas is not a disputed region in the South China Sea?
    a) Spratly Islands
    b) Paracel Islands
    c) Second Thomas Shoal
    d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    Answer: d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  44. What percentage of global maritime trade passes through the South China Sea?
    a) Over 25%
    b) Over 50%
    c) Over 33%
    d) Over 75%
    Answer: c) Over 33%
  45. Which incident recently brought the South China Sea into the news?
    a) A Chinese vessel and a Philippine supply ship collided near the Spratly Islands
    b) A new trade agreement was signed among bordering nations
    c) An oil spill occurred near the Paracel Islands
    d) A significant naval exercise was conducted by the United States
    Answer: a) A Chinese vessel and a Philippine supply ship collided near the Spratly Islands
  46. What is the proposed SWM Cess by BBMP per household per month?
    a) ₹50
    b) ₹100
    c) ₹150
    d) ₹200
    Answer: b) ₹100
  47. What do the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 aim to promote?
    a) Industrial growth
    b) Tourism
    c) Recycling and reducing the environmental impact of waste
    d) Import of solid waste
    Answer: c) Recycling and reducing the environmental impact of waste
  48. Which of the following is not a key provision of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016?
    a) Segregation at Source
    b) Collection and Disposal
    c) Promotion of plastic use
    d) Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
    Answer: c) Promotion of plastic use
  49. SWM Cess is usually collected along with which tax?
    a) Income Tax
    b) Service Tax
    c) Property Tax
    d) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
    Answer: c) Property Tax
  50. Which urban local body in India has recently proposed a new SWM Cess?
    a) Delhi Municipal Corporation
    b) Chennai Corporation
    c) Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP)
    d) Mumbai Municipal Corporation
    Answer: c) Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP)
  51. What constitutional articles in India deal with the Council of Ministers?
    a) Article 72 and Article 73
    b) Article 74 and Article 75
    c) Article 76 and Article 77
    d) Article 78 and Article 79
    Answer: b) Article 74 and Article 75
  52. Who leads the Union Council of Ministers in India?
    a) The President of India
    b) The Chief Justice of India
    c) The Prime Minister
    d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    Answer: c) The Prime Minister
  53. How many types of ministers are there in the Council of Ministers in India?
    a) One
    b) Two
    c) Three
    d) Four
    Answer: c) Three
  54. Who assists cabinet ministers in their portfolios?
    a) Prime Ministers
    b) Ministers of State
    c) Governors
    d) Chief Ministers
    Answer: b) Ministers of State
  55. When was the current Union Council of Ministers sworn in?
    a) June 1, 2024
    b) June 5, 2024
    c) June 9, 2024
    d) June 15, 2024
    Answer: c) June 9, 2024
  56. When was NCERT established?
    a) 1951
    b) 1961
    c) 1971
    d) 1981
    Answer: b) 1961
  57. What is one of the key initiatives of NCERT?
    a) National Census
    b) National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
    c) National Sports Meet
    d) National Health Survey
    Answer: b) National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
  58. Where are the headquarters of NCERT located?
    a) Mumbai
    b) Kolkata
    c) New Delhi
    d) Chennai
    Answer: c) New Delhi
  59. What was the reason for recent changes in NCERT textbooks?
    a) Introduction of new scientific discoveries
    b) Supreme Court order
    c) International curriculum alignment
    d) Government policy change
    Answer: b) Supreme Court order
  60. Which of the following is an objective of NCERT?
    a) To assist and advise on agricultural policies
    b) To assist and advise on academic matters related to school education
    c) To manage public health services
    d) To oversee industrial regulations
    Answer: b) To assist and advise on academic matters related to school education
  61. What is ‘Prerna Sthal’?
    a) A new educational policy
    b) A newly inaugurated area within the Parliament House Complex in India
    c) A historical monument in Delhi
    d) A new government scheme
    Answer: b) A newly inaugurated area within the Parliament House Complex in India
  62. What does Prerna Sthal house?
    a) Government offices
    b) Statues of eminent leaders and freedom fighters
    c) Art galleries
    d) Libraries
    Answer: b) Statues of eminent leaders and freedom fighters
  63. Who inaugurated the Prerna Sthal?
    a) The President of India
    b) The Prime Minister
    c) The Vice President
    d) The Chief Justice of India
    Answer: c) The Vice President
  64. The statues of which leaders are prominently located in Prerna Sthal?
    a) Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
    b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel
    c) Subhas Chandra Bose and Bhagat Singh
    d) Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi
    Answer: a) Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
  65. What is the main aim of the Prerna Sthal initiative?
    a) To centralize statues scattered across the Parliament premises
    b) To promote tourism in Delhi
    c) To provide a recreational area for parliament members
    d) To build new monuments
    Answer: a) To centralize statues scattered across the Parliament premises
  66. Who discovered the new species of snake eel in Odisha?
    a) National Institute of Oceanography
    b) Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
    c) Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
    d) Indian Institute of Science
    Answer: b) Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
  67. What is the name of the newly discovered snake eel species?
    a) Ophichthus Odishai
    b) Ophichthus Suryai
    c) Ophichthus Indicus
    d) Ophichthus Mohantyi
    Answer: b) Ophichthus Suryai
  68. In which district is the ZSI’s regional centre located where the discovery was made?
    a) Puri
    b) Cuttack
    c) Ganjam
    d) Bhadrak
    Answer: c) Ganjam
  69. Who was honored with the naming of the new species Ophichthus Suryai?
    a) Sanjay Kumar Panda
    b) Manas Ranjan Samal
    c) Surya Kumar Mohanty
    d) Mohan Charan Majhi
    Answer: c) Surya Kumar Mohanty
  70. What unique features distinguish Ophichthus Suryai from other species in its genus?
    a) Color and size
    b) Dorsal fin origin, vertebral count, and teeth patterns
    c) Habitat and diet
    d) Reproductive behavior
    Answer: b) Dorsal fin origin, vertebral count, and teeth patterns
  71. Which company is setting up a SiC semiconductor plant in Odisha?
    a) Tata Electronics
    b) SiCSem Private Limited
    c) Reliance Semiconductor
    d) Vedanta Semiconductors
    Answer: b) SiCSem Private Limited
  72. Where is SiCSem Private Limited based?
    a) Mumbai
    b) Bengaluru
    c) Chennai
    d) Hyderabad
    Answer: c) Chennai
  73. With which institution is SiCSem collaborating for the SiC crystal growth project?
    a) IIT Bombay
    b) IIT Bhubaneswar
    c) IISc Bangalore
    d) NIT Rourkela
    Answer: b) IIT Bhubaneswar
  74. What is the value of the SiC crystal growth project?
    a) Rs 30 crore
    b) Rs 45 crore
    c) Rs 50 crore
    d) Rs 60 crore
    Answer: b) Rs 45 crore
  75. What are the primary applications of the SiC semiconductor devices to be produced?
    a) Mobile phones
    b) Electric vehicles, fast chargers, green energy solutions
    c) Home appliances
    d) Medical devices
    Answer: b) Electric vehicles, fast chargers, green energy solutions
    Which Odia author received the Yuva Puraskar for 2024?
  76. a) Surya Kumar Mohanty
    b) Manas Ranjan Samal
    c) Sanjay Kumar Panda
    d) Mohan Charan Majhi
    Answer: c) Sanjay Kumar Panda
  77. For which book did Sanjay Kumar Panda receive the Yuva Puraskar?
    a) Takia
    b) Hu Baieaa
    c) Gapa Kalika
    d) Jhumuka
    Answer: b) Hu Baieaa
  78. What is the title of Manas Ranjan Samal’s award-winning book?
    a) Takia
    b) Hu Baieaa
    c) Gapa Kalika
    d) Jhumuka
    Answer: c) Gapa Kalika
  79. What genre are the award-winning books ‘Hu Baieaa’ and ‘Gapa Kalika’?
    a) Poetry
    b) Novels
    c) Short stories
    d) Essays
    Answer: c) Short stories
  80. How much cash prize will each award-winning author receive?
    a) ₹25,000
    b) ₹50,000
    c) ₹75,000
    d) ₹1,00,000
    Answer: b) ₹50,000
  81. 16. Who is the Chief Minister of Odisha as of the latest council allocation?
    a) Naveen Patnaik
    b) Mohan Charan Majhi
    c) Pravati Parida
    d) KV Singhdeo
    Answer: b) Mohan Charan Majhi
  82. 17. Which minister is in charge of the Energy, Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment departments?
    a) Suresh Pujari
    b) Rabi Narayan Naik
    c) KV Singhdeo
    d) Prithiviraj Harichandan
    Answer: c) KV Singhdeo
  83. 18. Which departments does Pravati Parida oversee?
    a) Revenue, Disaster Management
    b) Mission Shakti, Tourism, Women and Child Development
    c) Health and Family Welfare, Parliamentary Affairs
    d) Commerce & Transport, Steel & Mines
    Answer: b) Mission Shakti, Tourism, Women and Child Development
  84. 19. Who is responsible for the School & Mass Education, ST & SC Development departments?
    a) Nityananda Gond
    b) Krushna Chandra Patra
    c) Mukesh Mahaling
    d) Ganesh Ram Singkhuntia
    Answer: a) Nityananda Gond
  85. 20. Which minister handles the Housing & Urban Development, Public Enterprises portfolios?
    a) Pradeep Bal Samanta
    b) Bibhuti Bhushan Jena
    c) Krushna Chandra Mahapatra
    d) Sampad Chandra Swain
    Answer: c) Krushna Chandra Mahapatra
  86. What is the primary objective of the EU Nature Restoration Plan?
    A. Economic Growth
    B. Political Integration
    C. Nature Protection and Restoration
    D. Urban Development
    Answer: C

     

  87. When was the final approval for the EU Nature Restoration Plan given?
    A. June 1, 2024
    B. June 17, 2024
    C. July 1, 2024
    D. May 15, 2024
    Answer: B

     

  88. How many EU member countries are involved in the Nature Restoration Plan?
    A. 20
    B. 25
    C. 27
    D. 30
    Answer: C

     

  89. What percentage of the EU’s land and sea areas are targeted for restoration by 2030?
    A. 10%
    B. 15%
    C. 20%
    D. 25%
    Answer: C

     

  90. By which year does the EU aim to have all ecosystems in need of restoration addressed?
    A. 2040
    B. 2045
    C. 2050
    D. 2060
    Answer: C

     

  91. Which country disassociated itself from the final document of the Peace Summit in Switzerland?
    A. China
    B. India
    C. Japan
    D. Brazil
    Answer: B

     

  92. What was emphasized regarding Ukraine’s nuclear power plants?
    A. Expansion of nuclear power
    B. Safe operation and compliance with IAEA principles
    C. Building new nuclear power plants
    D. Closing down nuclear power plants
    Answer: B

     

  93. Which UN General Assembly Resolutions were referenced in the Peace Framework?
    A. A/RES/ES-10/1 and A/RES/ES-10/6
    B. A/RES/ES-11/1 and A/RES/ES-11/6
    C. A/RES/ES-12/1 and A/RES/ES-12/6
    D. A/RES/ES-13/1 and A/RES/ES-13/6
    Answer: B

     

  94. What is considered unacceptable in the context of the conflict, according to the Peace Framework?
    A. Economic sanctions
    B. Use of chemical weapons
    C. Threat or use of nuclear weapons
    D. Cyber-attacks
    Answer: C

     

  95. What humanitarian issue was highlighted in the Peace Framework?
    A. Economic aid
    B. Release of prisoners of war
    C. Building infrastructure
    D. Providing medical aid
    Answer: B

     

  96. Which ministry is responsible for the Deep Sea Mission in India?
    A. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
    B. Ministry of Earth Sciences
    C. Ministry of Science and Technology
    D. Ministry of Home Affairs
    Answer: B

     

  97. What is the depth capability of the MATSYA 6000 submersible?
    A. 4,000 meters
    B. 5,000 meters
    C. 6,000 meters
    D. 7,000 meters
    Answer: C

     

  98. Which ocean area is targeted for deep-sea mining in the Deep Sea Mission?
    A. Atlantic Ocean
    B. Pacific Ocean
    C. Indian Ocean
    D. Arctic Ocean
    Answer: C

     

  99. What is one of the key areas of focus for the Deep Sea Mission?
    A. Space exploration
    B. Urban development
    C. Marine biodiversity conservation
    D. Agricultural development
    Answer: C

     

  100. What technological elements are used in the Deep Sea Mission for exploration?
    A. Satellites and drones
    B. Robotics and artificial intelligence
    C. Submarines and helicopters
    D. Rockets and spacecraft
    Answer: B

     

  101. What is the aim of SDG 7?
    A. Promote global trade
    B. Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy for all
    C. Enhance education quality
    D. Improve healthcare systems
    Answer: B

     

  102. Which organization is NOT a custodian agency of SDG 7?
    A. International Energy Agency (IEA)
    B. International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
    C. United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD)
    D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    Answer: D

     

  103. How many people lacked access to electricity in 2022 according to the report?
    A. 600 million
    B. 685 million
    C. 700 million
    D. 750 million
    Answer: B

     

  104. Which region’s population growth outpaced new electricity connections?
    A. South America
    B. Sub-Saharan Africa
    C. Southeast Asia
    D. Eastern Europe
    Answer: B

     

  105. What aspect of energy does the SDG 7 report track?
    A. Only renewable energy
    B. Energy access, energy efficiency, renewable energy, clean cooking, and international cooperation
    C. Fossil fuel consumption
    D. Nuclear energy development
    Answer: B

     

  106. Where was the Exercise Red Flag 2024 held?
    A. Edwards Air Force Base
    B. Eielson Air Force Base
    C. Nellis Air Force Base
    D. Langley Air Force Base
    Answer: B

     

  107. How often is the Exercise Red Flag held?
    A. Twice a year
    B. Three times a year
    C. Four times a year
    D. Annually
    Answer: C

     

  108. Which of the following countries did NOT participate in Exercise Red Flag 2024?
    A. India
    B. Singapore
    C. Japan
    D. Germany
    Answer: C

     

  109. What does the Red Force in Exercise Red Flag primarily simulate?
    A. Offensive operations
    B. Air Defence
    C. Naval combat
    D. Ground attack
    Answer: B

     

  110. Which aircraft are used by the USAF Aggressor Squadron in Exercise Red Flag?
    A. F-22 and F-35
    B. F-16 and F-15
    C. F-18 and F-35
    D. F-22 and F-16
    Answer: B
  111. When was Mission Shakti launched?
    A) 15th August 2001
    B) 8th March 2001
    C) 26th January 2001
    D) 2nd October 2001
    Answer: B) 8th March 2001

     

  112. What is the main objective of Mission Shakti?
    A) Provide free education to women
    B) Empower women through gainful activities by providing credit and market linkage
    C) Establish women’s hospitals
    D) Offer free legal advice to women
    Answer: B) Empower women through gainful activities by providing credit and market linkage

     

  113. Which day was chosen for the launch of Mission Shakti?
    A) International Women’s Day
    B) Independence Day
    C) Republic Day
    D) Gandhi Jayanti
    Answer: A) International Women’s Day

     

  114. What is the core focus of Women Self Help Groups (WSHGs) under Mission Shakti?
    A) Legal empowerment
    B) Socio-economic activities
    C) Political engagement
    D) Educational programs
    Answer: B) Socio-economic activities

     

  115. Who currently oversees Mission Shakti in Odisha?
    A) Chief Minister
    B) Finance Minister
    C) Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida
    D) Health Minister
    Answer: C) Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida

     

  116. When was the PM-KISAN scheme launched?
    A) 24th February 2018
    B) 24th February 2019
    C) 24th February 2020
    D) 24th February 2021
    Answer: B) 24th February 2019

     

  117. How much financial benefit do farmers receive annually under the PM-KISAN scheme?
    A) Rs 5,000
    B) Rs 6,000
    C) Rs 10,000
    D) Rs 12,000
    Answer: B) Rs 6,000

     

  118. How is the financial benefit distributed to farmers under PM-KISAN?
    A) In two equal instalments
    B) In three equal instalments
    C) In four equal instalments
    D) In one lump sum
    Answer: B) In three equal instalments

     

  119. Who is set to visit Odisha’s Bargarh district for the PM Kisan Utsav celebration?
    A) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    B) Chief Minister Mohan Majhi
    C) Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida
    D) Finance Minister
    Answer: B) Chief Minister Mohan Majhi

     

  120. What is the total amount being disbursed in the 17th instalment of PM-KISAN?
    A) Rs 10,000 crore
    B) Rs 15,000 crore
    C) Rs 20,000 crore
    D) Rs 25,000 crore
    Answer: C) Rs 20,000 crore

     

  121. What is the recent increase in the tiger cub population in Similipal?
    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 15
    D) 20
    Answer: B) 12

     

  122. Who is the PCCF Wildlife and Chief Wildlife Warden of Odisha?
    A) Pravati Parida
    B) Mohan Majhi
    C) Susanta Nanda
    D) Narendra Modi
    Answer: C) Susanta Nanda

     

  123. What unique characteristic was noted in the recent tiger cub sighting in Similipal?
    A) White tigers
    B) Melanistic cubs
    C) Albino cubs
    D) Twin cubs
    Answer: B) Melanistic cubs

     

  124. What does the All Odisha Tiger Estimation report for 2023-24 indicate about Similipal’s tiger population?
    A) 15 tigers
    B) 20 tigers
    C) 27 tigers
    D) 30 tigers
    Answer: C) 27 tigers

     

  125. How many decades had passed since the last tiger cub breeding in Similipal North division before the recent sighting?
    A) Two
    B) Three
    C) Four
    D) Five
    Answer: B) Three

     

  126. When is World Sickle Cell Awareness Day observed?
    A) June 15th
    B) June 19th
    C) June 21st
    D) June 25th
    Answer: B) June 19th

     

  127. What genetic disorder is the focus of the awareness campaign in Odisha?
    A) Thalassemia
    B) Hemophilia
    C) Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)
    D) Leukemia
    Answer: C) Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)

     

  128. How many districts in Odisha will the sickle cell screening campaign cover?
    A) 15
    B) 18
    C) 21
    D) 25
    Answer: C) 21

     

  129. When will the Odisha sickle cell screening and awareness campaign take place?
    A) June 15 – June 30
    B) June 19 – July 3
    C) July 1 – July 15
    D) July 5 – July 20
    Answer: B) June 19 – July 3

     

  130. Which organization passed the resolution for World Sickle Cell Awareness Day?
    A) World Health Organization
    B) United Nations General Assembly
    C) Indian Government
    D) Red Cross Society
    Answer: B) United Nations General Assembly
  131. When was Mission Shakti launched?
    A) 15th August 2001
    B) 8th March 2001
    C) 26th January 2001
    D) 2nd October 2001
    Answer: B) 8th March 2001

     

  132. What is the main objective of Mission Shakti?
    A) Provide free education to women
    B) Empower women through gainful activities by providing credit and market linkage
    C) Establish women’s hospitals
    D) Offer free legal advice to women
    Answer: B) Empower women through gainful activities by providing credit and market linkage

     

  133. Which day was chosen for the launch of Mission Shakti?
    A) International Women’s Day
    B) Independence Day
    C) Republic Day
    D) Gandhi Jayanti
    Answer: A) International Women’s Day

     

  134. What is the core focus of Women Self Help Groups (WSHGs) under Mission Shakti?
    A) Legal empowerment
    B) Socio-economic activities
    C) Political engagement
    D) Educational programs
    Answer: B) Socio-economic activities

     

  135. Who currently oversees Mission Shakti in Odisha?
    A) Chief Minister
    B) Finance Minister
    C) Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida
    D) Health Minister
    Answer: C) Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida

     

  136. When was the PM-KISAN scheme launched?
    A) 24th February 2018
    B) 24th February 2019
    C) 24th February 2020
    D) 24th February 2021
    Answer: B) 24th February 2019

     

  137. How much financial benefit do farmers receive annually under the PM-KISAN scheme?
    A) Rs 5,000
    B) Rs 6,000
    C) Rs 10,000
    D) Rs 12,000
    Answer: B) Rs 6,000

     

  138. How is the financial benefit distributed to farmers under PM-KISAN?
    A) In two equal instalments
    B) In three equal instalments
    C) In four equal instalments
    D) In one lump sum
    Answer: B) In three equal instalments

     

  139. Who is set to visit Odisha’s Bargarh district for the PM Kisan Utsav celebration?
    A) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    B) Chief Minister Mohan Majhi
    C) Deputy Chief Minister Pravati Parida
    D) Finance Minister
    Answer: B) Chief Minister Mohan Majhi

     

  140. What is the total amount being disbursed in the 17th instalment of PM-KISAN?
    A) Rs 10,000 crore
    B) Rs 15,000 crore
    C) Rs 20,000 crore
    D) Rs 25,000 crore
    Answer: C) Rs 20,000 crore

     

  141. What is the recent increase in the tiger cub population in Similipal?
    A) 10
    B) 12
    C) 15
    D) 20
    Answer: B) 12

     

  142. Who is the PCCF Wildlife and Chief Wildlife Warden of Odisha?
    A) Pravati Parida
    B) Mohan Majhi
    C) Susanta Nanda
    D) Narendra Modi
    Answer: C) Susanta Nanda

     

  143. What unique characteristic was noted in the recent tiger cub sighting in Similipal?
    A) White tigers
    B) Melanistic cubs
    C) Albino cubs
    D) Twin cubs
    Answer: B) Melanistic cubs

     

  144. What does the All Odisha Tiger Estimation report for 2023-24 indicate about Similipal’s tiger population?
    A) 15 tigers
    B) 20 tigers
    C) 27 tigers
    D) 30 tigers
    Answer: C) 27 tigers

     

  145. How many decades had passed since the last tiger cub breeding in Similipal North division before the recent sighting?
    A) Two
    B) Three
    C) Four
    D) Five
    Answer: B) Three

     

  146. When is World Sickle Cell Awareness Day observed?
    A) June 15th
    B) June 19th
    C) June 21st
    D) June 25th
    Answer: B) June 19th

     

  147. What genetic disorder is the focus of the awareness campaign in Odisha?
    A) Thalassemia
    B) Hemophilia
    C) Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)
    D) Leukemia
    Answer: C) Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)

     

  148. How many districts in Odisha will the sickle cell screening campaign cover?
    A) 15
    B) 18
    C) 21
    D) 25
    Answer: C) 21

     

  149. When will the Odisha sickle cell screening and awareness campaign take place?
    A) June 15 – June 30
    B) June 19 – July 3
    C) July 1 – July 15
    D) July 5 – July 20
    Answer: B) June 19 – July 3

     

  150. Which organization passed the resolution for World Sickle Cell Awareness Day?
    A) World Health Organization
    B) United Nations General Assembly
    C) Indian Government
    D) Red Cross Society
    Answer: B) United Nations General Assembly

 

Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | June 3rd Week 2024_3.1