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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | May 2nd Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. What is the cost of the FWD-200B?
    a) Rs 15 crores
    b) Rs 25 crores
    c) Rs 50 crores
    d) Rs 250 crores
    Answer: b) Rs 25 crores
  2. Which organization unveiled the FWD-200B?
    a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
    b) Defence Research and Development Organisation
    c) Flying Wedge Defence
    d) Bharat Dynamics Limited
    Answer: c) Flying Wedge Defence
  3. What is the payload capacity of the FWD-200B?
    a) 50 kgs
    b) 100 kgs
    c) 200 kgs
    d) 300 kgs
    Answer: b) 100 kgs
  4. The FWD-200B is classified as which type of UAV?
    a) HALE
    b) LALE
    c) MALE
    d) VTOL
    Answer: c) MALE
  5. What is the maximum speed of the FWD-200B?
    a) 150 kts
    b) 200 kts
    c) 250 kts
    d) 300 kts
    Answer: b) 200 kts
  6. LockBit Ransomware was formerly known as?
    a) XYZ Ransomware
    b) ABCD Ransomware
    c) LMN Ransomware
    d) PQR Ransomware
    Answer: b) ABCD Ransomware
  7. LockBit Ransomware primarily targets which groups?
    a) Individuals
    b) Small businesses
    c) Enterprises and government organizations
    d) Non-profits
    Answer: c) Enterprises and government organizations
  8. LockBit Ransomware functions as which service?
    a) Software-as-a-service (SaaS)
    b) Platform-as-a-service (PaaS)
    c) Infrastructure-as-a-service (IaaS)
    d) Ransomware-as-a-service (RaaS)
    Answer: d) Ransomware-as-a-service (RaaS)
  9. Which Russian national was indicted for involvement with LockBit?
    a) Alexey Navalny
    b) Dmitry Medvedev
    c) Dimitry Yuryevich Khoroshev
    d) Mikhail Khodorkovsky
    Answer: c) Dimitry Yuryevich Khoroshev
  10. LockBit Ransomware is categorized under which type of ransomware?
    a) Scareware
    b) Locker ransomware
    c) Crypto virus
    d) Doxware
    Answer: c) Crypto virus
  11. 3. Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS)
    IVRS stands for?
    a) Interactive Verification Response System
    b) Interactive Voice Response System
    c) Intelligent Voice Recognition System
    d) Interactive Virtual Response System
    Answer: b) Interactive Voice Response System
  12. IVRS allows callers to interact using?
    a) Keyboard inputs
    b) Voice or menu inputs
    c) Mouse clicks
    d) Visual cues
    Answer: b) Voice or menu inputs
  13. Which technology powers IVRS systems?
    a) Augmented Reality
    b) Text-to-speech
    c) Blockchain
    d) Virtual Reality
    Answer: b) Text-to-speech
  14. IVRS uses which interface for interaction?
    a) ASCII
    b) Binary
    c) Morse code
    d) Dual-tone multi-frequency (DTMF)
    Answer: d) Dual-tone multi-frequency (DTMF)
  15. What is the primary purpose of IVRS in the context of political parties?
    a) Fundraising
    b) Automated voting
    c) Making calls to voters
    d) Data encryption
    Answer: c) Making calls to voters
  16. What is FWD-200B?
    A) India’s first indigenous unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) aircraft
    B) India’s first nuclear-powered submarine
    C) India’s first supersonic missile
    D) India’s first electric passenger aircraft
    Answer: A) India’s first indigenous unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) aircraft
  17. What is the cost of FWD-200B compared to the US Predator?
    A) FWD-200B is ten times cheaper
    B) FWD-200B is twice as expensive
    C) FWD-200B is equal in cost
    D) FWD-200B is five times cheaper
    Answer: D) FWD-200B is five times cheaper
  18. Which country’s national is indicted for involvement with LockBit ransomware?
    A) China
    B) Russia
    C) United States
    D) India
    Answer: B) Russia
  19. What is LockBit ransomware primarily designed to do?
    A) Steal personal data
    B) Block access to computer systems
    C) Encrypt emails
    D) Spread computer viruses
    Answer: B) Block access to computer systems
  20. What technology is being utilized for political party communication through IVRS?
    A) Automated email system
    B) Voice recognition software
    C) Interactive Voice Response System
    D) Text-to-speech technology
    Answer: C) Interactive Voice Response System
  21. In which year did India surpass Japan to become the world’s third-largest solar power generator?
    A) 2020
    B) 2021
    C) 2022
    D) 2023
    Answer: D) 2023
  22. What percentage of global solar energy does India contribute?
    A) 1.5%
    B) 3.5%
    C) 5.5%
    D) 7.5%
    Answer: C) 5.5%
  23. What is the projected percentage of global electricity generation from solar energy by 2030 according to IEA’s “Net Zero Emissions” scenario?
    A) 10%
    B) 15%
    C) 20%
    D) 22%
    Answer: D) 22%
  24. What tax structure has the Finance Minister denied planning to change?
    A) Income Tax
    B) Sales Tax
    C) Value Added Tax
    D) Capital Gains Tax
    Answer: D) Capital Gains Tax
  25. What type of assets are subject to Capital Gains Tax?
    A) Only physical assets
    B) Only intellectual property
    C) Only business assets
    D) Capital assets
  26. Answer: D) Capital assets
  27. Which of the following is an example of a capital asset?
    A) Mobile phone
    B) Land
    C) Groceries
    D) Salary
    Answer: B) Land
  28. What determines whether a capital gain is short-term or long-term?
    A) The asset’s value
    B) The asset’s location
    C) The asset’s duration of holding
    D) The asset’s owner
    Answer: C) The asset’s duration of holding
  29. Who is liable to pay Capital Gains Tax?
    A) Only individuals
    B) Only businesses
    C) Both individuals and businesses
    D) Only government entities
    Answer: C) Both individuals and businesses
  30. What is the maximum duration of endurance for FWD-200B?
    A) 6-10 hours
    B) 12-20 hours
    C) 24-36 hours
    D) 48-60 hours
    Answer: B) 12-20 hours
  31. What kind of interface does IVRS use for interaction?
    A) Graphical User Interface (GUI)
    B) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
    C) Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF)
    D) Wi-Fi
    Answer: C) Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF)
  32. In 2023, which country did India surpass to become the world’s third-largest solar power generator?
    a) Germany
    b) Japan
    c) USA
    d) Australia
    Answer: b) Japan
  33. What was India’s share of global solar generation in 2023?
    a) 3.2%
    b) 4.4%
    c) 5.8%
    d) 6.1%
    Answer: c) 5.8%
  34. What is the primary focus of the Global Biofuel Alliance’s new work plan?
    a) Assessing landscapes
    b) Drafting policy frameworks
    c) Conducting workshops
    Answer: a) Assessing landscapes
  35. Where was the Global Biofuel Alliance launched?
    a) New Delhi
    b) Washington D.C.
    c) Geneva
    Answer: a) New Delhi
  36. Which state houses the Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary?
    a) Assam
    b) Odisha
    c) Punjab
    Answer: a) Assam
  37. What is the primary concern regarding activities in Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary?
    a) Pollution
    b) Deforestation
    c) Violation of Forest Act
    Answer: c) Violation of Forest Act
  38. What phenomenon is observed in Batagay Crater in Siberia?
    a) Subsidence
    b) Erosion
    c) Growth
    Answer: c) Growth
  39. What is the nickname given to Batagay Crater by locals?
    a) Frost Pit
    b) Gateway to the Underworld
    c) Ice Abyss
    Answer: b) Gateway to the Underworld
  40. When was the U.N. Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund established?
    a) 2007
    b) 2009
    c) 2011
    Answer: b) 2009
  41. What is the purpose of India’s contribution to the U.N. Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund?
    a) Combatting cyber-terrorism
    b) Supporting global programmes
    c) Providing humanitarian aid
    Answer: b) Supporting global programmes
  42. Which institute developed Trichoderma asperellum biocontrol agent?
    a) Punjab Agricultural University
    b) Indian Institute of Science
    c) National Institute of Technology
    Answer: a) Punjab Agricultural University
  43. What disease does Trichoderma asperellum help manage?
    a) Malaria
    b) Foot rot
    c) Dengue
    Answer: b) Foot rot
  44. Which agency recognized Odisha’s PHDMA for its monitoring technique?
    a) UNESCO
    b) NITI Aayog
    c) WHO
    Answer: b) NITI Aayog
  45. What is the focus of PHDMA’s monitoring approach?
    a) Statistical analysis
    b) Qualitative assessment
    c) Budget allocation
    Answer: b) Qualitative assessment
  46. Who issued the caution about rubella to pregnant women in Odisha?
    a) Health Minister
    b) Health Director
    c) Chief Medical Officer
    Answer: b) Health Director
  47. What complication can rubella cause in babies born to infected mothers?
    a) Measles
    b) Heart ailments
    c) Chickenpox
    Answer: b) Heart ailments
  48. What initiative is Odisha introducing to encourage female voter turnout?
    a) Sakhi booths
    b) Pink booths
    c) Women empowerment centers
    Answer: a) Sakhi booths
  49. What distinguishes the Sakhi booths from regular polling stations?
    a) Managed by all-women team
    b) Exclusive for women voters
    c) Located in urban areas
    Answer: a) Managed by all-women team
  50. How many villages are involved in the Kotia dispute?
    a) 14
    b) 21
    c) 28
    Answer: b) 21
  51. What enables voters in Kotia to participate in elections of both Odisha and Andhra Pradesh?
    a) Dual citizenship
    b) Dual voting rights
    c) Election treaties
    Answer: b) Dual voting rights
  52. What festival did Prime Minister Narendra Modi highlight in Odisha?
    a) Holi
    b) Diwali
    c) Akshaya Tritiya
    Answer: c) Akshaya Tritiya
  53. What marks the beginning of chariot making for Rath Yatra in Odisha?
    a) Makar Sankranti
    b) Akshaya Tritiya
    c) Vijaya Dashami
    Answer: b) Akshaya Tritiya
  54. How many Terawatt hours (TWh) did India add to its solar capacity in 2023?
    a) 10 TWh
    b) 15 TWh
    c) 18 TWh
    d) 20 TWh
    Answer: c) 18 TWh
  55. According to the IEA, what percentage of global electricity generation is solar energy projected to contribute by 2030?
    a) 10%
    b) 15%
    c) 20%
    d) 22%
    Answer: d) 22%
  56. Which country experienced the largest surge in solar generation in 2023?
    a) USA
    b) India
    c) Brazil
    d) China
    Answer: d) China
  57. 5. Capital Gains Tax
    Capital gains are profits from the sale of?
    a) Services
    b) Goods
    c) Capital assets
    d) Shares only
    Answer: c) Capital assets
  58. Which of the following is NOT considered a capital asset?
    a) Land
    b) Vehicles
    c) Cash
    d) Patents
    Answer: c) Cash
  59. Capital assets include rights related to which of the following?
    a) Personal relationships
    b) Indian company management
    c) Consumer goods
    d) Currency exchange
    Answer: b) Indian company management
  60. Capital gains can be classified into?
    a) Long-term and short-term
    b) High-value and low-value
    c) Profitable and non-profitable
    d) Realized and unrealized
    Answer: a) Long-term and short-term
  61. What triggers the Capital Gains Tax (CGT)?
    a) Purchase of assets
    b) Transfer of assets
    c) Depreciation of assets
    d) Leasing of assets
    Answer: b) Transfer of assets
  62. Who is liable to pay Capital Gains Tax?
    a) Only individuals
    b) Only businesses
    c) Both individuals and businesses
    d) Non-profit organizations only
    Answer: c) Both individuals and businesses
  63. Which ministry denied reports about changes in the capital gains tax structure?
    a) Ministry of Defence
    b) Ministry of Home Affairs
    c) Ministry of Finance
    d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
    Answer: c) Ministry of Finance
  64. Capital gains are categorized as what type of income?
    a) Exempt income
    b) Capital income
    c) Earned income
    d) Passive income
    Answer: d) Passive income
  65. Which of the following is an example of a short-term capital asset?
    a) Residential property held for 3 years
    b) Machinery held for 1 year
    c) Artwork held for 10 years
    d) Shares held for 5 years
    Answer: b) Machinery held for 1 year
  66. Long-term capital gains tax is applicable for assets held for more than how many months?
    a) 6 months
    b) 12 months
    c) 24 months
    d) 36 months
    Answer: d) 36 months
  67. Which state in India is preparing to relocate tigers to the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve to boost their population?
    a) Karnataka
    b) Maharashtra
    c) Madhya Pradesh
    d) Kerala
    Answer: b) Maharashtra
  68. From which Tiger Reserve are the tigers being relocated to Sahyadri Tiger Reserve?
    a) Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve
    b) Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
    c) Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve
    d) Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve
    Answer: c) Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve
  69. When was Sahyadri Tiger Reserve established?
    a) 2005
    b) 2008
    c) 2010
    d) 2012
    Answer: b) 2008
  70. Which Indian tiger reserve is NOT among the five without any tigers?
    a) Sahyadri Tiger Reserve
    b) Kaval Tiger Reserve
    c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
    d) Satkosia Tiger Reserve
    Answer: c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
  71. Sahyadri Tiger Reserve spans which districts in Maharashtra?
    a) Kolhapur, Satara, Sangli, and Ratnagiri
    b) Nagpur, Wardha, Amravati, and Chandrapur
    c) Pune, Nashik, Ahmednagar, and Solapur
    d) Thane, Palghar, Raigad, and Ratnagiri
    Answer: a) Kolhapur, Satara, Sangli, and Ratnagiri
  72. Which wildlife sanctuary is included in the northern portion of Sahyadri Tiger Reserve?
    a) Radhanagari Wildlife Sanctuary
    b) Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary
    c) Chandoli National Park
    d) Bhimashankar Wildlife Sanctuary
    Answer: b) Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary
  73. The Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is part of which ecoregions?
    a) North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests and North Western Ghats montane rain forests
    b) Central Deccan Plateau dry deciduous forests and Eastern Ghats montane forests
    c) Western Deccan Plateau dry deciduous forests and Southern Ghats montane forests
    d) Eastern Himalayas moist deciduous forests and Himalayan subtropical pine forests
    Answer: a) North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests and North Western Ghats montane rain forests
  74. What is the primary focus of the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve?
    a) Conserving elephants
    b) Conserving Bengal tigers
    c) Conserving rhinoceroses
    d) Conserving snow leopards
    Answer: b) Conserving Bengal tigers
  75. Which Indian ministry has set up a task force to enhance the online gaming sector?
    a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
    b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
    c) Ministry of Finance
    d) Ministry of Home Affairs
    Answer: a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  76. What is the projected revenue for India’s online gaming industry by FY28?
    a) ₹25,000 crore
    b) ₹30,000 crore
    c) ₹33,243 crore
    d) ₹40,000 crore
    Answer: c) ₹33,243 crore
  77. What compound annual growth rate (CAGR) did the Indian online gaming industry witness from FY20 to FY23?
    a) 15%
    b) 20%
    c) 25%
    d) 28%
    Answer: d) 28%
  78. What tax rate was imposed on the online gaming industry effective from October 1, 2023?
    a) 18%
    b) 28%
    c) 30%
    d) 35%
    Answer: b) 28%
  79. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, who is disqualified from contesting elections?
    a) Individuals charged with any offense
    b) Individuals convicted of certain offenses
    c) Individuals who have served a prison sentence
    d) Individuals with a criminal record
    Answer: b) Individuals convicted of certain offenses
  80. Which section of the Representation of People Act, 1951, disqualifies individuals from voting while in prison?
    a) Section 8
    b) Section 9
    c) Section 11
    d) Section 62(5)
    Answer: d) Section 62(5)
  81. What was the Supreme Court’s ruling in Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India (2006) regarding voting and candidacy rights?
    a) They are fundamental rights
    b) They are constitutional rights
    c) They are statutory rights
    d) They are natural rights
    Answer: c) They are statutory rights
  82. What is the India VIX often referred to as?
    a) Growth index
    b) Stability index
    c) Fear gauge
    d) Profit index
    Answer: c) Fear gauge
  83. Which organization introduced India VIX in 2008?
    a) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
    b) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
    c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
    Answer: b) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
  84. What does a higher India VIX value indicate?
    a) Higher market stability
    b) Lower market volatility
    c) Higher expected market volatility
    d) Lower investor fear
    Answer: c) Higher expected market volatility
  85. When did the India VIX reach its highest close since January 30, 2023?
    a) April 23, 2023
    b) May 15, 2024
    c) March 15, 2024
    d) May 27, 2024
    Answer: d) May 27, 2024
  86. In which Supreme Court case was it stated that free and fair elections are part of the Constitution’s basic structure?
    a) Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India
    b) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
    c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
    d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
    Answer: b) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
  87. What are the evergreen and semi-evergreen forests in Sahyadri Tiger Reserve known for?
    a) Being the largest in India
    b) Hosting the Bengal tiger exclusively
    c) Their rich biodiversity
    d) Their dry deciduous nature
    Answer: c) Their rich biodiversity
  88. Which national park is part of the southern portion of Sahyadri Tiger Reserve?
    a) Chandoli National Park
    b) Gir National Park
    c) Kaziranga National Park
    d) Bandipur National Park
    Answer: a) Chandoli National Park
  89. Which wildlife sanctuary has recently been added to the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve?
    a) Tadoba-Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary
    b) Sanjay Gandhi National Park
    c) Radhanagari Wildlife Sanctuary
    d) Navegaon Wildlife Sanctuary
    Answer: c) Radhanagari Wildlife Sanctuary
  90. What type of forest ecoregions are found in Sahyadri Tiger Reserve?
    a) Tropical dry deciduous forests
    b) Subtropical pine forests
    c) Moist deciduous and montane rain forests
    d) Mangrove forests
    Answer: c) Moist deciduous and montane rain forests
  91. The Supreme Court in which case upheld the prohibition on voting for individuals confined in prison?
    a) Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India
    b) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
    c) Anukul Chandra Pradhan v. Union of India
    d) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
    Answer: c) Anukul Chandra Pradhan v. Union of India
  92. What aspect of elections did the Supreme Court emphasize as part of the Constitution’s basic structure in 1975?
    a) Universal suffrage
    b) Political stability
    c) Free and fair elections
    d) Representation of minorities
    Answer: c) Free and fair elections
  93. How is the India VIX value expressed?
    a) As a decimal
    b) As a percentage
    c) As a whole number
    d) As an index number
    Answer: b) As a percentage
  94. Who can contest elections while in jail in India?
    a) Only those convicted of serious crimes
    b) Anyone except those convicted
    c) Only those in preventive detention
    d) No one
    Answer: b) Anyone except those convicted
  95. What role does the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology play in India’s online gaming sector?
    a) Oversees tax regulations
    b) Acts as the nodal ministry
    c) Sets up gaming tournaments
    d) Develops gaming software
    Answer: b) Acts as the nodal ministry
  96. What was the India VIX at its record closing low on April 23?
    a) 9.8
    b) 10.2
    c) 10.5
    d) 11.0
    Answer: b) 10.2
  97. What is the primary focus of the new road safety policy in Odisha?
    a) Enhancing public transportation
    b) Reducing road accident fatalities
    c) Improving highway infrastructure
    d) Promoting cycling lanes
    Answer: b) Reducing road accident fatalities

     

  98. Where is the Satkosia Tiger Reserve located?
    a) Kerala
    b) Odisha
    c) Karnataka
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: b) Odisha

     

  99. Which organization conducted a clinical trial on the use of regulatory T cells for children with type 1 diabetes?
    a) WHO
    b) UNICEF
    c) CDC
    d) None of the above
    Answer: d) None of the above

     

  100. What is the main objective of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)?
    a) Wildlife conservation
    b) Forest protection and sustainable development
    c) Climate change mitigation
    d) Desertification prevention
    Answer: b) Forest protection and sustainable development

     

  101. Which celestial body is the exoplanet 55 Cancri e located in?
    a) Milky Way Galaxy
    b) Andromeda Galaxy
    c) Solar System
    d) None of the above
    Answer: d) None of the above

     

  102. What is the name of the community protesting against the misuse of natural resources in Niyamgiri hills?
    a) Dongria Kondhs
    b) Maasai Tribe
    c) Inuit People
    d) Aboriginal Australians
    Answer: a) Dongria Kondhs

     

  103. Where did the 19th Session of the United Nations Forum on Forests take place?
    a) Geneva, Switzerland
    b) New York, United States
    c) Paris, France
    d) Vienna, Austria
    Answer: b) New York, United States

     

  104. What is the name of the 17-year-old Royal Bengal Tiger that passed away at Nandankanan Zoological Park?
    a) Raja
    b) Nandan
    c) Simba
    d) Raju
    Answer: b) Nandan

     

  105. Which country is on the verge of significant changes to its immigration policy?
    a) Canada
    b) Panama
    c) Australia
    d) United Kingdom
    Answer: b) Panama

     

  106. What is the primary livelihood of the Dongria Kondh people?
    a) Fishing
    b) Farming
    c) Hunting
    d) Mining
    Answer: b) Farming

     

  107. What is the primary focus of the new road safety policy in Odisha?
    a) Enhancing public transportation
    b) Reducing road accident fatalities
    c) Improving highway infrastructure
    d) Promoting cycling lanes
    Answer: b) Reducing road accident fatalities

     

  108. Where is the Satkosia Tiger Reserve located?
    a) Kerala
    b) Odisha
    c) Karnataka
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: b) Odisha

     

  109. Which organization conducted a clinical trial on the use of regulatory T cells for children with type 1 diabetes?
    a) WHO
    b) UNICEF
    c) CDC
    d) None of the above
    Answer: d) None of the above

     

  110. What is the main objective of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)?
    a) Wildlife conservation
    b) Forest protection and sustainable development
    c) Climate change mitigation
    d) Desertification prevention
    Answer: b) Forest protection and sustainable development

     

  111. Which celestial body is the exoplanet 55 Cancri e located in?
    a) Milky Way Galaxy
    b) Andromeda Galaxy
    c) Solar System
    d) None of the above
    Answer: d) None of the above

     

  112. What is the name of the community protesting against the misuse of natural resources in Niyamgiri hills?
    a) Dongria Kondhs
    b) Maasai Tribe
    c) Inuit People
    d) Aboriginal Australians
    Answer: a) Dongria Kondhs

     

  113. Where did the 19th Session of the United Nations Forum on Forests take place?
    a) Geneva, Switzerland
    b) New York, United States
    c) Paris, France
    d) Vienna, Austria
    Answer: b) New York, United States

     

  114. What is the name of the 17-year-old Royal Bengal Tiger that passed away at Nandankanan Zoological Park?
    a) Raja
    b) Nandan
    c) Simba
    d) Raju
    Answer: b) Nandan

     

  115. Which country is on the verge of significant changes to its immigration policy?
    a) Canada
    b) Panama
    c) Australia
    d) United Kingdom
    Answer: b) Panama

     

  116. What is the primary livelihood of the Dongria Kondh people?
    a) Fishing
    b) Farming
    c) Hunting
    d) Mining
    Answer: b) Farming
  117. What is the recent agreement signed between India and Iran concerning the Chabahar port?
    A. A 5-year contract for port operation.
    B. A 10-year contract for port operation.
    C. A memorandum of understanding for infrastructure development.
    D. An agreement for joint military exercises.
    Answer: B. A 10-year contract for port operation.

     

  118. Where is Chabahar port located?
    A. Persian Gulf
    B. Gulf of Oman
    C. Arabian Sea
    D. Caspian Sea
    Answer: B. Gulf of Oman.

     

  119. How does Chabahar port strategically benefit India?
    A. Provides direct access to Central Asia via Pakistan.
    B. Offers a foothold to counter Chinese influence in the Persian Gulf.
    C. Serves as a hub for maritime trade with Europe.
    D. Enables trade routes to South America.
    Answer: B. Offers a foothold to counter Chinese influence in the Persian Gulf.

     

  120. Which organization of India signed the agreement for operating Chabahar port with Iran’s Port and Maritime Organisation (PMO)?
    A. Indian Shipping Corporation (ISC)
    B. Indian Ports Global Ltd. (IPGL)
    C. Ministry of External Affairs (MEA)
    D. Indian Maritime Foundation (IMF)
    Answer: B. Indian Ports Global Ltd. (IPGL).

     

  121. What is the Vibrant Village Programme (VVP) aimed at?
    A. Development of urban centers in India.
    B. Promoting tourism in rural areas.
    C. Comprehensive development of villages on the northern border.
    D. Empowering women in rural regions.
    Answer: C. Comprehensive development of villages on the northern border.

     

  122. Which states are included in the Vibrant Village Programme (VVP)?
    A. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
    B. Rajasthan and Gujarat
    C. Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh
    D. Kerala and Tamil Nadu
    Answer: C. Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh.

     

  123. What is the primary objective of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF)?
    A. Conservation of marine life.
    B. Sustainable development of forests.
    C. Promotion of desert afforestation.
    D. Wildlife protection in grasslands.
    Answer: B. Sustainable development of forests.

     

  124. When was the UNFF established?
    A. 1998
    B. 2000
    C. 2002
    D. 2005
    Answer: B. 2000.

     

  125. Where does the UNFF hold its annual meetings?
    A. Geneva, Switzerland
    B. New York, United States
    C. Vienna, Austria
    D. Paris, France
    Answer: B. New York, United States.

     

  126. What is the Mammoth carbon dioxide capture and storage facility aimed at?
    A. Extracting CO2 for industrial use.
    B. Sequestering carbon emissions to fight global warming.
    C. Generating renewable energy from captured CO2.
    D. Converting CO2 into biofuels.
    Answer: B. Sequestering carbon emissions to fight global warming.

     

  127. Where is the Mammoth carbon dioxide capture and storage facility located?
    A. Greenland
    B. Iceland
    C. Norway
    D. Scotland
    Answer: B. Iceland.

     

  128. What is the primary method used in rat-hole coal mining?
    A. Hydraulic fracturing
    B. Mountaintop removal
    C. Manual drilling
    D. Longwall mining
    Answer: C. Manual drilling.

     

  129. Which Indian state is most associated with rat-hole coal mining?
    A. Jharkhand
    B. Chhattisgarh
    C. Odisha
    D. Meghalaya
    Answer: D. Meghalaya.

     

  130. What environmental concerns are associated with rat-hole coal mining?
    A. Water pollution
    B. Deforestation
    C. Air pollution
    D. All of the above
    Answer: D. All of the above.

     

  131. Who has been appointed as the Vice Chancellor of Odisha University of Health Sciences?
    A) Dr. Manash Ranjan Sahoo
    B) Raghubar Das
    C) Ranjeeta Priyadarshini
    D) None of the above
    Answer: A) Dr. Manash Ranjan Sahoo

     

  132. What is the constitutional position of the Vice Chancellor (VC) in a university?
    A) Head of the academic council
    B) Principal Academic and Executive Officer
    C) Chairman of the Finance Committee
    D) Member of the Executive Council
    Answer: B) Principal Academic and Executive Officer

     

  133. According to recent clarification, is there a provision for a ‘Challenge Vote’ in the electoral process in Odisha?
    A) Yes
    B) No
    C) Only during general elections
    D) None of the above
    Answer: B) No

     

  134. What is the difference between ‘Challenged Vote’ and ‘Tendered Vote’ in the electoral process?
    A) Both are the same
    B) Challenged Vote requires identity confirmation
    C) Tendered Vote is cast when someone’s vote is already cast
    D) None of the above
    Answer: C) Tendered Vote is cast when someone’s vote is already cast

     

  135. Who gained global recognition for advocating paid period leave at the United Nations Civil Society Conference (UNCSC) 2024?
    A) Dr. Manash Ranjan Sahoo
    B) Ranjeeta Priyadarshini
    C) Raghubar Das
    D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Ranjeeta Priyadarshini

     

  136. Which articles of the Indian Constitution form the basis for the campaign advocating paid period leave?
    A) Article 15(1) and Article 40
    B) Article 15(3) and Article 42
    C) Article 21 and Article 30
    D) Article 14 and Article 45
    Answer: B) Article 15(3) and Article 42

     

  137. What is the tagline of the campaign advocating paid period leave?
    A) “Equal pay for equal work”
    B) “We are equal, not identical.”
    C) “Empower women”
    D) None of the above
    Answer: B) “We are equal, not identical.”

     

  138. How many Olive Ridley hatchlings were released into the sea at Dagara beach in Balasore district?
    A) 150
    B) 253
    C) 300
    D) 200
    Answer: B) 253

     

  139. Which beach in Odisha is known as a popular nesting site for Olive Ridley turtles?
    A) Puri beach
    B) Chandrabhaga beach
    C) Dagara beach
    D) Gahirmatha beach
    Answer: C) Dagara beach

     

  140. What is the scientific name of the Olive Ridley Sea Turtle?
    A) Lepidochelys olivacea
    B) Chelonia mydas
    C) Dermochelys coriacea
    D) Caretta caretta
    Answer: A) Lepidochelys olivacea

     

  141. What is the typical length range of adult Olive Ridley turtles?
    A) 50-60 cm
    B) 70-80 cm
    C) 62-70 cm
    D) 80-90 cm
    Answer: C) 62-70 cm

     

  142. What is the primary coloration of an Olive Ridley turtle’s carapace (shell)?
    A) Blue
    B) Red
    C) Olive green
    D) Black
    Answer: C) Olive green

     

  143. What is the unique mass nesting behavior of Olive Ridley turtles called?
    A) Hibernation
    B) Arribada
    C) Migration
    D) Breeding
    Answer: B) Arribada

     

  144. Which sanctuary in Odisha hosts the world’s largest rookery of sea turtles?
    A) Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary
    B) Simlipal National Park
    C) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary
    D) Chilika Lake Bird Sanctuary
    Answer: C) Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary

     

  145. How many visible claws do Olive Ridley turtles typically have on each of their flippers?
    A) None
    B) One
    C) Two
    D) Three
    Answer: C) Two

     

  146. According to the IUCN Red List, what is the conservation status of Olive Ridley turtles?
    A) Endangered
    B) Critically Endangered
    C) Vulnerable
    D) Near Threatened
    Answer: C) Vulnerable

     

  147. In which year was the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 enacted?
    A) 1960
    B) 1972
    C) 1980
    D) 1990
    Answer: B) 1972

     

  148. Which schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 lists Olive Ridley turtles?
    A) Schedule 1
    B) Schedule 2
    C) Schedule 3
    D) Schedule 4
    Answer: A) Schedule 1

     

  149. What does CITES stand for?
    A) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna
    B) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
    C) Convention on the International Trade of Endangered Species
    D) None of the above
    Answer: A) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna

     

  150. Where will the Summit of the Future take place in September 2024?
    A) Nairobi
    B) Geneva
    C) New York
    D) Paris
    Answer: C) New York
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | May 2nd Week 2024_3.1