Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of Weekly Current affairs.
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- What does IIBX stand for?
A) International Investment Business Exchange
B) India International Bullion Exchange
C) International Industrial Business Exchange
D) Indian International Bond Exchange
Answer: B) India International Bullion Exchange - Where is the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX) located?
A) Mumbai, Maharashtra
B) New Delhi, Delhi
C) Bengaluru, Karnataka
D) Gandhinagar, Gujarat
Answer: D) Gandhinagar, Gujarat - Which financial authority regulates the IIBX?
A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
C) International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA)
D) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
Answer: C) International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA) - What type of exercise is SHAKTI?
A) Naval Exercise
B) Air Force Exercise
C) Joint Military Exercise
D) Cybersecurity Exercise
Answer: C) Joint Military Exercise - Where is the 7th edition of Exercise SHAKTI being conducted?
A) Jaipur, Rajasthan
B) Kochi, Kerala
C) Umroi, Meghalaya
D) Chandigarh, Punjab
Answer: C) Umroi, Meghalaya - How often is Exercise SHAKTI conducted?
A) Annually
B) Biennially
C) Quarterly
D) Once in three years
Answer: B) Biennially - What is xenotransplantation?
A) A procedure involving transplantation of plants
B) A procedure involving transplantation of animal organs into humans
C) A procedure involving transplantation of human organs into animals
D) A procedure involving transplantation of organs between different species
Answer: B) A procedure involving transplantation of animal organs into humans - Who was the first recipient of a modified pig kidney transplant?
A) Robert Frost
B) Richard “Rick” Slayman
C) John Doe
D) Jane Smith
Answer: B) Richard “Rick” Slayman - Which animal organ was transplanted into the first recipient?
A) Pig kidney
B) Cow liver
C) Sheep heart
D) Goat lung
Answer: A) Pig kidney - Which organization released the World Wildlife Crime Report 2024?
A) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
B) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
C) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
D) Greenpeace International
Answer: B) United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime - Which species were the most affected by illegal wildlife trade according to the report?
A) Elephant and Tiger
B) Rhino and Cedar
C) Lion and Gorilla
D) Whale and Dolphin
Answer: B) Rhino and Cedar - How often is the World Wildlife Crime Report published?
A) Biennially
B) Triennially
C) Annually
D) Every five years
Answer: A) Biennially - Which organization announced Venezuela’s potential loss of glaciers?
A) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
B) International Cryosphere Climate Initiative (ICCI)
C) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
D) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
Answer: B) International Cryosphere Climate Initiative (ICCI) - What is the name of Venezuela’s only remaining glacier?
A) Everest Glacier
B) Humboldt or La Corona
C) Andes Glacier
D) Himalaya Glacier
Answer: B) Humboldt or La Corona - What factor is primarily responsible for the loss of glaciers in Venezuela?
A) Industrial pollution
B) Deforestation
C) Climate change
D) Earthquake
Answer: C) Climate change - Which university secured the 11th position in India in the Times Higher Education Young University Rankings 2024?
A) IIT Bombay
B) KIIT Deemed to be University
C) Delhi University
D) BITS Pilani
Answer: B) KIIT Deemed to be University - What was KIIT Deemed to be University’s global ranking in the Times Higher Education Young University Rankings 2024?
A) 151-200
B) 168
C) 100-150
D) 201-250
Answer: B) 168 - How many universities from India were evaluated in the Times Higher Education Young University Rankings 2024?
A) 30
B) 45
C) 55
D) 60
Answer: C) 55 - What criteria are universities evaluated on in the Times Higher Education Young University Rankings?
A) Research funding and alumni network
B) Age of the institution and campus infrastructure
C) Teaching, research, knowledge transfer, and international outlook
D) Faculty credentials and student-to-faculty ratio
Answer: C) Teaching, research, knowledge transfer, and international outlook - Which region experienced the lowest number of elephant deaths in five years, according to recent data?
A) Karnataka
B) Odisha
C) Kerala
D) Assam
Answer: B) Odisha - What was the number of elephant deaths in Odisha during 2023-24, marking the lowest in five years?
A) 50
B) 65
C) 80
D) 92
Answer: B) 65 - Despite improvements, what remains a significant cause of elephant mortality in Odisha?
A) Natural disasters
B) Poaching
C) Disease outbreak
D) Habitat loss
Answer: B) Poaching - Which of the following is NOT a challenge highlighted in the context of elephant conservation in Odisha?
A) Electrocution
B) Accidents
C) Habitat preservation
D) Linear infrastructure impact
Answer: C) Habitat preservation - What recent initiative aims to provide essential information to voters in Khordha district, Odisha?
A) ‘Mo Elephant’ mobile app
B) ‘Vote Wisely’ mobile app
C) ‘Mo Booth’ mobile app
D) ‘Election Tracker’ mobile app
Answer: C) ‘Mo Booth’ mobile app - How does the ‘Mo Booth’ mobile app assist voters during elections?
A) Providing information on candidates’ backgrounds
B) Offering real-time updates on polling stations and queue lengths
C) Enabling online voting
D) Facilitating voter registration
Answer: B) Offering real-time updates on polling stations and queue lengths - Which module in the ‘Mo Booth’ app aids in managing polling booth operations effectively?
A) Voter Registration
B) Candidate Information
C) Booth Level Officer (BLO)
D) Election Results
Answer: C) Booth Level Officer (BLO) - What function does the Sector Officer (SO) module serve in the ‘Mo Booth’ app?
A) Facilitating voter education programs
B) Coordinating with political parties
C) Managing communication and coordination among polling booths
D) Conducting opinion polls
Answer: C) Managing communication and coordination among polling booths - Whose biography, titled ‘Nandini Satpathy: The Iron Lady of Odisha’, was recently launched in Bhubaneswar?
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Nandini Satpathy
C) Pallavi Rebbapragada
D) Bakul Library
Answer: B) Nandini Satpathy - Who authored the biography of Nandini Satpathy?
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Nandini Satpathy
C) Pallavi Rebbapragada
D) Bakul Library
Answer: C) Pallavi Rebbapragada - What inspired Pallavi Rebbapragada to write the biography of Nandini Satpathy?
A) A conversation with a junior of Nandini Satpathy
B) Personal admiration for Nandini Satpathy
C) Political ambition
D) Desire for fame
Answer: A) A conversation with a junior of Nandini Satpathy - What role did Nandini Satpathy play in the liberation of Bangladesh?
A) Prime Minister of Bangladesh
B) Chief Minister of Odisha
C) Member of the Indian Parliament
D) Humanitarian aid coordinator
Answer: B) Chief Minister of Odisha - Despite differences, who did Nandini Satpathy consider a close friend in politics?
A) Pallavi Rebbapragada
B) Bakul Library
C) Indira Gandhi
D) Nandini Satpathy
Answer: C) Indira Gandhi - What was Nandini Satpathy’s tenure as the Chief Minister of Odisha?
A) 1972-1976
B) 1980-1985
C) 1990-1995
D) 2000-2005
Answer: A) 1972-1976 - What was one of the key focuses of Nandini Satpathy’s biography?
A) Her literary works
B) Her personal life
C) Her relationship with Indira Gandhi
D) Her administrative achievements
Answer: C) Her relationship with Indira Gandhi - What is the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) primarily focused on?
A) Preventing phishing attacks
B) Dealing with cybercrime in a coordinated manner
C) Enhancing social media security
D) Developing cybersecurity software
Answer: B) Dealing with cybercrime in a coordinated manner - Who has collaborated with the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to combat cybercrime?
A) Google
B) Facebook
C) Microsoft
D) Apple
Answer: C) Microsoft - What action has been taken by the I4C and Microsoft against cybercrime recently?
A) Banned certain social media platforms
B) Blocked over 1,000 Skype IDs involved in cybercrimes
C) Introduced new cybersecurity laws
D) Launched a cybersecurity awareness campaign
Answer: B) Blocked over 1,000 Skype IDs involved in cybercrimes - Which of the following was not one of the cybercrimes addressed by the I4C and Microsoft collaboration?
A) Blackmail
B) Extortion
C) Identity theft
D) Digital arrests
Answer: C) Identity theft - Where is the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) located?
A) Mumbai
B) Bangalore
C) New Delhi
D) Hyderabad
Answer: C) New Delhi - What type of defense system is Igla-S?
A) Long-range missile defense
B) Mid-range missile defense
C) Short-range missile defense
D) Very short-range air defense
Answer: D) Very short-range air defense - Which country is the manufacturer of Igla-S?
A) China
B) India
C) Russia
D) United States
Answer: C) Russia - What is the effective range of Igla-S?
A) Up to 3 km
B) Up to 6 km
C) Up to 10 km
D) Up to 15 km
Answer: B) Up to 6 km - What recent event led to a rise in India’s Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?
A) Decrease in food prices
B) Decrease in fuel prices
C) Increase in food prices
D) Increase in fuel prices
Answer: D) Increase in fuel prices - Who calculates and publishes the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India?
A) Ministry of Finance
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Planning Commission
Answer: B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry - What is the base year for the new series of Wholesale Price Index (WPI)?
A) 2004-05
B) 2008-09
C) 2011-12
D) 2014-15
Answer: C) 2011-12 - Which of the following is not a component of the WPI basket of goods?
A) Primary Articles
B) Consumer Goods
C) Fuel and Power
D) Manufactured Products
Answer: B) Consumer Goods - What is a geomagnetic storm primarily caused by?
A) Earthquakes
B) Solar wind variations
C) Tidal forces
D) Volcanic eruptions
Answer: B) Solar wind variations - What was the recent consequence of a geomagnetic storm on Earth?
A) Earthquakes
B) Radio blackouts
C) Tornadoes
D) Tsunamis
Answer: B) Radio blackouts - Which exercise aims to enhance interoperability between Indian and U.S. special forces?
A) Exercise BrahMos
B) Exercise Tarkash
C) Exercise Varuna
D) Exercise Garuda
Answer: B) Exercise Tarkash - What type of operations is Exercise Tarkash focused on?
A) Maritime
B) Jungle warfare
C) Urban counter-terrorism
D) Mountain warfare
Answer: C) Urban counter-terrorism - Which elite force from India is participating in Exercise Tarkash?
A) Indian Army
B) Indian Navy
C) National Security Guard (NSG)
D) Special Frontier Force (SFF)
Answer: C) National Security Guard (NSG) - Who are the counterparts of the Indian National Security Guard (NSG) in Exercise Tarkash?
A) U.S. Air Force
B) U.S. Navy SEALs
C) U.S. Special Operations Forces (SOF)
D) U.S. Army Rangers
Answer: C) U.S. Special Operations Forces (SOF) - What is the main objective of Exercise Tarkash?
A) Enhancing diplomatic relations
B) Developing new military technologies
C) Building functional relations between special forces
D) Conducting humanitarian missions
Answer: C) Building functional relations between special forces - Which city will host the conclusion of Exercise Tarkash?
A) Mumbai
B) New Delhi
C) Kolkata
D) Chennai
Answer: C) Kolkata - Originally, under which Article was the Right to Property a fundamental right?
a) Article 19
b) Article 31
c) Article 21
d) Article 14
Answer: b) Article 31 - Which Amendment Act removed the Right to Property from the list of fundamental rights?
a) 42nd Amendment Act
b) 43rd Amendment Act
c) 44th Amendment Act
d) 45th Amendment Act
Answer: c) 44th Amendment Act - The Right to Property is now categorized under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
a) Article 19
b) Article 31
c) Article 300A
d) Article 21
Answer: c) Article 300A - Which statement is true about the Right to Property in India?
a) It is still a fundamental right.
b) It is a constitutional right.
c) It is a statutory right.
d) It is not recognized in the Indian Constitution.
Answer: b) It is a constitutional right. - Which judicial body recently emphasized the protection of the Right to Property in India?
a) The High Court
b) The District Court
c) The Supreme Court
d) The Parliament
Answer: c) The Supreme Court - According to Article 300A, property can be deprived only by which authority?
a) Judiciary
b) Parliament
c) Authority of law
d) Executive orders
Answer: c) Authority of law - Which Justices made the declaration regarding the Right to Property as a constitutional right?
a) Justice P.S. Narasimha and Justice Aravind Kumar
b) Justice R.F. Nariman and Justice U.U. Lalit
c) Justice S.A. Bobde and Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
d) Justice N.V. Ramana and Justice Indu Malhotra
Answer: a) Justice P.S. Narasimha and Justice Aravind Kumar - The 44th Amendment Act was passed in which year?
a) 1975
b) 1976
c) 1977
d) 1978
Answer: d) 1978 - What is the primary purpose behind moving the Right to Property to Article 300A?
a) To grant more power to the government
b) To facilitate land reform policies
c) To remove the right entirely
d) To align with international standards
Answer: b) To facilitate land reform policies - Which of the following is true about compulsory acquisition of property in India?
a) It can be done without compensation.
b) It requires following mandatory procedures and compensation.
c) It does not need to follow any procedures.
d) It is not governed by any specific laws.
Answer: b) It requires following mandatory procedures and compensation. - Who has the final authority to interpret the provisions of the Constitution regarding the Right to Property?
a) President of India
b) Prime Minister of India
c) Supreme Court of India
d) Parliament of India
Answer: c) Supreme Court of India - What does Article 300A state?
a) No person shall be deprived of his property save by executive order.
b) No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.
c) No person shall be deprived of his property without compensation.
d) No person shall be deprived of his property for public use.
Answer: b) No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. - In the context of the Right to Property, what is meant by ‘authority of law’?
a) Any government directive
b) A law passed by the legislature
c) A decision by any government official
d) A customary practice
Answer: b) A law passed by the legislature - Which amendment to the Indian Constitution transferred the Right to Property to the status of a constitutional right?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 46th Amendment
d) 48th Amendment
Answer: b) 44th Amendment - The Right to Property being a human right means that:
a) It is universally recognized and protected.
b) It is only protected within a country.
c) It can be easily overridden by government policies.
d) It is not significant internationally.
Answer: a) It is universally recognized and protected. - Which of the following justifications was used to remove the Right to Property from the list of fundamental rights?
a) To decrease judicial interference in land reforms.
b) To simplify the Constitution.
c) To comply with international human rights law.
d) To enhance property rights.
Answer: a) To decrease judicial interference in land reforms. - What does the constitutional protection of property rights ensure for citizens?
a) Unrestricted ownership without any legal obligations.
b) Protection against arbitrary state action.
c) Immunity from all forms of taxation.
d) Absolute ownership without any limitations.
Answer: b) Protection against arbitrary state action. - Under what conditions can the state acquire private property according to the Indian Constitution?
a) Without any formal procedure.
b) Following a procedure established by law.
c) Based on an executive order.
d) Through an informal agreement with the owner.
Answer: b) Following a procedure established by law. - How does the 44th Amendment Act impact the balance between individual property rights and state interests?
a) It prioritizes individual rights over state interests.
b) It balances individual rights with the need for land reforms.
c) It eliminates state control over property.
d) It gives absolute power to the state.
Answer: b) It balances individual rights with the need for land reforms. - Why is the Right to Property still significant despite being removed from the list of fundamental rights?
a) It still enjoys constitutional protection and is considered a human right.
b) It is not significant anymore.
c) It does not provide any protection against state action.
d) It has been replaced by other more important rights.
Answer: a) It still enjoys constitutional protection and is considered a human right. - What is the primary aim of the collaboration between the Directorate of Horticulture in Odisha and APEDA?
a) To increase domestic sales of vegetables
b) To enhance market linkage for FPOs and access global markets
c) To decrease the price of mangoes
d) To improve local farming techniques
Answer: b - Who is providing technical support for the collaboration between Odisha and APEDA?
a) UNICEF
b) WHO
c) Palladium
d) NITI Aayog
Answer: c - Which produce was part of the first commercial shipment from Odisha to Dubai?
a) Rice
b) Wheat
c) Fresh vegetables and mangoes
d) Tea
Answer: c - How much fresh produce was exported in the first shipment from Odisha via BPIA?
a) 1 tonne
b) 0.5 tonnes
c) 0.75 tonnes
d) 2 tonnes
Answer: c - What was the impact on price realization for farmers due to the export?
a) 10 to 15 per cent increase
b) 15 to 20 per cent increase
c) 20 to 30 per cent increase
d) No increase
Answer: c - Under which ministry does APEDA operate?
a) Ministry of Agriculture
b) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: c - When was APEDA established?
a) 1980
b) 1985
c) 1990
d) 1995
Answer: b - Where is the headquarters of APEDA located?
a) Mumbai
b) Kolkata
c) New Delhi
d) Chennai
Answer: c - What is causing coral reefs to face extinction, according to the study?
a) Overfishing
b) Shifting ocean currents and rising temperatures
c) Pollution
d) Coastal development
Answer: b - Which areas are mentioned as having severe coral bleaching?
a) Caribbean, Mexico, Fiji, Central America, and Eastern New Guinea
b) Mediterranean Sea
c) Arctic Ocean
d) Atlantic Ocean
Answer: a - What is the purpose of deploying artificial reefs in Odisha?
a) To improve coastal tourism
b) To enhance fish production and biodiversity
c) To prevent oil spills
d) To create new land areas
Answer: b - What additional benefit do artificial reefs provide besides enhancing fisheries production?
a) Increased tourism revenue
b) Carbon dioxide sequestration
c) Improved shipping routes
d) More construction materials
Answer: b - Who is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission?
a) Arvind Subramanian
b) Arvind Panagariya
c) Raghuram Rajan
d) Urjit Patel
Answer: b - When was the 16th Finance Commission constituted?
a) 31.12.2020
b) 31.12.2021
c) 31.12.2022
d) 31.12.2023
Answer: d - What is the award period for the 16th Finance Commission?
a) 2024-2029
b) 2025-2030
c) 2026-2031
d) 2027-2032
Answer: c - What does Niladri Mahodaya mark in the Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri?
a) The birth of Lord Jagannath
b) The consecration of the temple
c) The annual Rath Yatra
d) The end of the monsoon season
Answer: b - Which deities’ idols are installed on the Ratnasimhasan during Niladri Mahodaya?
a) Lord Krishna and Radha
b) Lord Shiva and Parvati
c) Lord Jagannath, Devi Subhadra, and Lord Balabhadra
d) Lord Vishnu and Lakshmi
Answer: c - How many important festivals are celebrated in the Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
Answer: b - How much more carbon dioxide can seaweeds sequester compared to land plants?
a) 2-3 times more
b) 3-4 times more
c) 4-5 times more
d) 5-6 times more
Answer: c - What is the length of Odisha’s coastline where artificial reefs are deployed?
a) 320km
b) 380km
c) 450km
d) 480km
Answer: d - What is the primary objective of Swachhata Pakhwada?
A) Promote digital literacy
B) Enhance agricultural productivity
C) Promote cleanliness and sanitation
D) Improve industrial output
Answer: C) Promote cleanliness and sanitation - When was Swachhata Pakhwada launched?
A) January 2015
B) April 2016
C) August 2017
D) October 2018
Answer: B) April 2016 - How long does the Swachhata Pakhwada campaign run?
A) One week
B) 10 days
C) A fortnight
D) One month
Answer: C) A fortnight - Which ministries and departments participate in Swachhata Pakhwada?
A) Only health departments
B) Various government departments, PSUs, and educational institutions
C) Only educational institutions
D) Only municipal corporations
Answer: B) Various government departments, PSUs, and educational institutions - What are some focus areas of Swachhata Pakhwada?
A) Economic reforms
B) Defense upgrades
C) Cleanliness drives, waste management, and spreading hygiene awareness
D) Infrastructure development
Answer: C) Cleanliness drives, waste management, and spreading hygiene awareness - What is the objective of the PREFIRE mission?
A) To explore Mars
B) To study heat loss from Earth’s polar regions
C) To monitor solar activity
D) To analyze ocean currents
Answer: B) To study heat loss from Earth’s polar regions - How many satellites are involved in the PREFIRE mission?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: B) Two - What will the PREFIRE mission help improve?
A) Satellite communication
B) Climate models and predictions of climate change
C) Agricultural practices
D) Space exploration technology
Answer: B) Climate models and predictions of climate change - What gap in knowledge does the PREFIRE mission aim to fill?
A) Oceanic temperature variations
B) Atmospheric pressure changes
C) Heat radiation from the Arctic and Antarctic
D) Soil composition on Mars
Answer: C) Heat radiation from the Arctic and Antarctic - What type of data will the PREFIRE mission provide?
A) Economic data
B) New information on Earth’s atmosphere and ice influence on heat radiation
C) Genetic data of polar species
D) Historical climate data
Answer: B) New information on Earth’s atmosphere and ice influence on heat radiation - What is the term “digital arrest” associated with?
A) A new online game
B) Cybercriminals defrauding victims and extorting money
C) Digital marketing strategies
D) Online banking systems
Answer: B) Cybercriminals defrauding victims and extorting money - Who has the Central government collaborated with to tackle digital arrests?
A) Google
B) Amazon
C) Microsoft
D) Facebook
Answer: C) Microsoft - What method do cybercriminals use to trick victims in digital arrests?
A) Sending fraudulent emails
B) Posing as law enforcement officials and manipulating victims
C) Hacking social media accounts
D) Stealing credit card information
Answer: B) Posing as law enforcement officials and manipulating victims - What platform do cybercriminals commonly use for digital arrests?
A) WhatsApp
B) Skype
C) Instagram
D) Twitter
Answer: B) Skype - What is a key tactic used in digital arrests?
A) Hacking into bank accounts
B) Forcing victims to stay visible on video conferencing platforms
C) Sending malware to computers
D) Phishing emails
Answer: B) Forcing victims to stay visible on video conferencing platforms - What is the primary objective of the LUPEX mission?
A) Explore Mars
B) Explore the lunar surface and search for subsurface water
C) Study the Sun
D) Investigate asteroid belts
Answer: B) Explore the lunar surface and search for subsurface water - Which countries are collaborating on the LUPEX mission?
A) USA and Russia
B) India and Japan
C) China and France
D) UK and Germany
Answer: B) India and Japan - What regions of the Moon will LUPEX target?
A) Equatorial regions
B) Lunar poles
C) Near side
D) Far side
Answer: B) Lunar poles - What type of mission is LUPEX?
A) Manned mission
B) Robotic exploration mission
C) Satellite mission
D) Space station mission
Answer: B) Robotic exploration mission - What is one of the goals of LUPEX?
A) Develop new rocket technology
B) Assess the suitability of lunar poles for future human exploration
C) Study Earth’s atmosphere
D) Explore other planets
Answer: B) Assess the suitability of lunar poles for future human exploration - When was the ICJ established?
A) 1945
B) 1950
C) 1960
D) 1975
Answer: A) 1945 - Where is the ICJ headquartered?
A) Geneva
B) New York
C) The Hague
D) Paris
Answer: C) The Hague - What is the function of the ICJ?
A) Implement international treaties
B) Settle legal disputes between states and give advisory opinions
C) Conduct international trade negotiations
D) Monitor global economic policies
Answer: B) Settle legal disputes between states and give advisory opinions - How many judges compose the ICJ?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 20
Answer: C) 15 - What are the official languages of the ICJ?
A) English and Spanish
B) French and German
C) English and French
D) Spanish and German
Answer: C) English and French - What types of cases does the ICJ have jurisdiction over?
A) Criminal cases
B) Contentious cases and advisory opinions
C) Civil disputes
D) Domestic legal matters
Answer: B) Contentious cases and advisory opinions - What does TYME stand for in the context of the ITDA Rayagada initiative?
A) Tribal Youth Micro Entrepreneurship
B) Tribal Youth Mentor Empowerment
C) Tribal Youth Management Education
D) Tribal Youth Market Expansion
Answer: A) Tribal Youth Micro Entrepreneurship - What is the primary goal of the TYME Initiative?
A) Improve infrastructure in tribal areas
B) Empower tribal youth as micro-entrepreneurs
C) Promote tourism in Odisha
D) Enhance agricultural practices
Answer: B) Empower tribal youth as micro-entrepreneurs - How does the TYME Initiative support tribal youth?
A) By providing jobs in government sectors
B) By offering scholarships for higher education
C) By developing their potential through training and financial support
D) By relocating them to urban areas
Answer: C) By developing their potential through training and financial support - Which agency is responsible for implementing the TYME Initiative?
A) NITI Aayog
B) ITDA Rayagada
C) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
D) State Government of Odisha
Answer: B) ITDA Rayagada - Since when has the Integrated Tribal Development Agency (ITDA) been recognized?
A) 1960-61
B) 1974-75
C) 1979-80
D) 1985-86
Answer: C) 1979-80 - What is ‘ghost gear’?
A) Abandoned ships in the ocean
B) Lost or abandoned fishing gear
C) Marine life affected by pollution
D) Invasive species in marine ecosystems
Answer: B) Lost or abandoned fishing gear - Which species’ death highlighted the impact of ghost gear on the Andhra-Odisha coast?
A) Blue whale
B) Green sea turtle
C) Dugong
D) Dolphin
Answer: B) Green sea turtle - Which international organization is involved in combating ghost gear?
A) WWF
B) UNEP
C) FAO
D) Greenpeace
Answer: C) FAO - What local initiative has the FSI undertaken to combat ghost gear?
A) Establishing marine protected areas
B) Conducting beach clean-up drives
C) Retrieving ghost gear from waters
D) Educating fishermen on sustainable practices
Answer: C) Retrieving ghost gear from waters - Which solution is proposed to manage ghost gear pollution effectively?
A) Increase fishing quotas
B) Establish collection points at fishing harbors
C) Ban all fishing activities
D) Import fishing gear from other countries
Answer: B) Establish collection points at fishing harbors
Green Ammonia Projects in Odisha - Where is the green ammonia production facility planned in Odisha?
A) Bhubaneswar
B) Paradip
C) Cuttack
D) Puri
Answer: B) Paradip - What renewable energy capacity is planned for the green ammonia project?
A) 100 MW
B) 200 MW
C) 300 MW
D) 500 MW
Answer: D) 500 MW - What is the expected annual production capacity of green ammonia by 2030?
A) 50,000 tonnes
B) 75,000 tonnes
C) 100,000 tonnes
D) 150,000 tonnes
Answer: C) 100,000 tonnes - Which mission supports the green ammonia project in Odisha?
A) National Solar Mission
B) National Green Hydrogen Mission
C) National Wind Energy Mission
D) National Biofuel Mission
Answer: B) National Green Hydrogen Mission - Which ministry is the nodal authority for the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
B) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
C) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
D) Ministry of Power
Answer: B) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Gupteswar Forest - Where is Gupteswar Forest located?
A) Bhubaneswar
B) Rayagada
C) Koraput
D) Sambalpur
Answer: C) Koraput - How large is the Gupteswar Forest?
A) 250 hectares
B) 300 hectares
C) 350 hectares
D) 400 hectares
Answer: C) 350 hectares - How many faunal species are found in Gupteswar Forest?
A) 400
B) 500
C) 608
D) 700
Answer: C) 608 - Which of the following species is categorized as near-threatened and found in Gupteswar Forest?
A) Indian elephant
B) Bengal tiger
C) Hipposideros galeritus
D) Indian python
Answer: C) Hipposideros galeritus - What type of ecosystem feature is prominent in Gupteswar Forest?
A) Mangrove forests
B) Coral reefs
C) Limestone caves
D) Alpine meadows
Answer: C) Limestone caves - What is the primary objective of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC)?
a) Enhance military cooperation
b) Increase tourism
c) Enhance connectivity and economic integration
d) Promote cultural exchange
Answer: c) Enhance connectivity and economic integration - Which of the following is NOT a key component of the IMEEC?
a) Railways
b) Highways
c) Space exploration
d) Digital connectivity
Answer: c) Space exploration - The IMEEC connects which regions?
a) North America, South America, and Europe
b) South Asia, the Middle East, and Europe
c) Africa, Asia, and Australia
d) East Asia, Europe, and South America
Answer: b) South Asia, the Middle East, and Europe - Which of the following is a strategic importance of the IMEEC?
a) Facilitates trade and investment flows
b) Reduces military spending
c) Increases agricultural production
d) Enhances sports cooperation
Answer: a) Facilitates trade and investment flows - When was the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) established?
a) January 1, 2015
b) June 1, 2005
c) March 1, 2010
d) December 1, 2020
Answer: a) January 1, 2015 - Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the EAEU?
a) Armenia
b) Belarus
c) Ukraine
d) Kazakhstan
Answer: c) Ukraine - Where are the headquarters of the EAEU located?
a) Minsk, Belarus
b) Astana, Kazakhstan
c) Moscow, Russia
d) Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan
Answer: c) Moscow, Russia - What is the purpose of National Endangered Species Day?
a) To celebrate biodiversity
b) To create awareness about the consequences of human activities and actions to save endangered species
c) To promote hunting of endangered species
d) To recognize contributions of scientists
Answer: b) To create awareness about the consequences of human activities and actions to save endangered species - When is National Endangered Species Day celebrated?
a) Third Friday of March
b) Third Friday of May
c) Third Friday of July
d) Third Friday of September
Answer: b) Third Friday of May - What is Vishing?
a) A scam involving phishing emails
b) A scam involving phone calls to trick individuals into providing personal information
c) A type of malware attack
d) A scam involving text messages
Answer: b) A scam involving phone calls to trick individuals into providing personal information
