Odia govt jobs   »   Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha...
Top Performing

Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | May 4th Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

Download ADDA247 Odia APP – Appear Latest Exam Test Series & Live Classes

  1. Who won the International Booker Prize for fiction recently?
    a) Haruki Murakami
    b) Jenny Erpenbeck and Michael Hofmann
    c) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
    d) Margaret Atwood
    Answer: b) Jenny Erpenbeck and Michael Hofmann
  2. What is the title of the winning work of the International Booker Prize by Jenny Erpenbeck and Michael Hofmann?
    a) The Unseen
    b) Flights
    c) Kairos
    d) The Discomfort of Evening
    Answer: c) Kairos
  3. When was the International Booker Prize first established?
    a) 1995
    b) 2000
    c) 2005
    d) 2010
    Answer: c) 2005
  4. What was the original name of the International Booker Prize?
    a) Global Fiction Award
    b) Man Booker International Prize
    c) World Literature Prize
    d) Universal Fiction Award
    Answer: b) Man Booker International Prize
  5. What is the primary focus of the International Booker Prize?
    a) Poetry
    b) Non-fiction
    c) Long-form fiction translated into English
    d) Children’s literature
    Answer: c) Long-form fiction translated into English
  6. Where are the headquarters of the International Criminal Court (ICC) located?
    a) Geneva, Switzerland
    b) New York, USA
    c) The Hague, Netherlands
    d) Vienna, Austria
    Answer: c) The Hague, Netherlands
  7. What major international crimes does the ICC prosecute?
    a) Drug trafficking and money laundering
    b) Genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression
    c) Cybercrimes and human trafficking
    d) Environmental crimes and piracy
    Answer: b) Genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression
  8. As of 2023, how many member states does the ICC have?
    a) 97
    b) 105
    c) 123
    d) 132
    Answer: c) 123
  9. Which countries are notable non-members of the ICC?
    a) United Kingdom, France, Germany, and Japan
    b) United States, China, India, and Russia
    c) Brazil, Argentina, Mexico, and South Korea
    d) South Africa, Nigeria, Egypt, and Saudi Arabia
    Answer: b) United States, China, India, and Russia
  10. On what principle does the ICC operate?
    a) Universal jurisdiction
    b) State sovereignty
    c) Complementarity
    d) Mutual assistance
    Answer: c) Complementarity
  11. What is the main objective of the PM-WANI scheme?
    a) To provide free laptops to students
    b) To enhance broadband internet access across India
    c) To offer free mobile data to all citizens
    d) To build new telecommunication towers
    Answer: b) To enhance broadband internet access across India
  12. How many public wifi hotspots are currently available under the PM-WANI scheme?
    a) 1,00,000
    b) 1,50,000
    c) 1,99,896
    d) 2,50,000
    Answer: c) 1,99,896
  13. What is a Public Data Office (PDO) in the context of PM-WANI?
    a) A government office for data collection
    b) An establishment that sets up, operates, and maintains Wi-Fi access points
    c) A data analysis center
    d) A customer service center for internet users
    Answer: b) An establishment that sets up, operates, and maintains Wi-Fi access points
  14. What role does a Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA) play in the PM-WANI scheme?
    a) Developing internet security protocols
    b) Managing and authorizing multiple PDOs
    c) Conducting internet usage surveys
    d) Training individuals to use the internet
    Answer: b) Managing and authorizing multiple PDOs
  15. Are there any license fees for PDOs under the PM-WANI scheme?
    a) Yes, a high annual fee
    b) Yes, a minimal one-time fee
    c) No, there are no license fees
    d) Only for commercial entities
    Answer: c) No, there are no license fees
  16. What is the scientific name of the Himalayan Ibex?
    a) Capra hircus
    b) Capra aegagrus
    c) Capra sibirica hemalayanus
    d) Capra falconeri
    Answer: c) Capra sibirica hemalayanus
  17. Where is the Bharal primarily found?
    a) Amazon Rainforest
    b) Sahara Desert
    c) Himalayan region and surrounding areas
    d) Australian Outback
    Answer: c) Himalayan region and surrounding areas
  18. What is the conservation status of the Himalayan Ibex according to the IUCN Red List?
    a) Endangered
    b) Vulnerable
    c) Near Threatened
    d) Least Concern
    Answer: c) Near Threatened
  19. What is the primary prey of the snow leopard in the high-altitude regions of Himachal Pradesh?
    a) Deer
    b) Rabbits
    c) Bharal and Himalayan Ibex
    d) Mountain goats
    Answer: c) Bharal and Himalayan Ibex
  20. What type of habitat do Bharal typically occupy?
    a) Dense forests
    b) Grassy mountain slopes
    c) Coastal regions
    d) Urban areas
    Answer: b) Grassy mountain slopes
  21. What is the primary cause of the urban heat island (UHI) effect?
    A) Increased vegetation
    B) Reduced human activity
    C) High-density buildings and paved surfaces
    D) High levels of water bodies
    Answer: C) High-density buildings and paved surfaces
  22. Which Indian cities were found to have the highest urban contributions to warming according to the recent IIT-Bhubaneswar study?
    A) New Delhi, Mumbai
    B) Bhubaneswar, Kolkata
    C) Jamshedpur, Raipur, Patna
    D) Chennai, Hyderabad
    Answer: C) Jamshedpur, Raipur, Patna
  23. What percentage increase in warming was observed in Bhubaneswar due to urbanization?
    A) 40%
    B) 50%
    C) 60%
    D) 70%
    Answer: C) 60%
  24. Which factor does NOT contribute to the urban heat island effect?
    A) Reduced evaporative cooling
    B) Higher-thermal-inertia surfaces
    C) Changes in surface albedo
    D) Increased rural land use
    Answer: D) Increased rural land use
  25. What is one key recommendation from researchers to mitigate urban heat effects?
    A) Reduce human activity
    B) Increase urban sprawl
    C) Targeted urban planning and heat mitigation efforts
    D) Decrease urban green spaces
    Answer: C) Targeted urban planning and heat mitigation efforts
  26. According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2021, India is ranked as the ___ most impacted country by climate-related extreme weather phenomena.
    A) 5th
    B) 6th
    C) 7th
    D) 8th
    Answer: C) 7th
  27. Which of the following is NOT an impact of the urban heat island effect on climate parameters?
    A) Changes in rainfall patterns
    B) Increased air pollution
    C) Reduced human activity
    D) Increased frequency of floods
    Answer: C) Reduced human activity
  28. Urban heat islands typically result in warmer temperatures in cities compared to surrounding rural areas primarily due to:
    A) Higher wind speeds
    B) More vegetation
    C) Concrete and asphalt surfaces
    D) Lower human density
    Answer: C) Concrete and asphalt surfaces
  29. What is the length of the twin tunnel being constructed on the Raipur-Visakhapatnam Expressway?
    A) 2.42 km
    B) 3.42 km
    C) 4.42 km
    D) 5.42 km
    Answer: B) 3.42 km
  30. What milestone did the NHAI achieve during the tunnel construction on the Raipur-Visakhapatnam Expressway?
    A) Completion of 1 km in one day
    B) Excavation of 750 meters in one month
    C) Zero injuries during 20 lakh man-hours
    D) Completing the tunnel ahead of schedule
    Answer: B) Excavation of 750 meters in one month
  31. Under which section of the Representation of the People Act can the Election Commission declare a poll void due to booth capturing?
    A) Section 52
    B) Section 57
    C) Section 58
    D) Section 58A
    Answer: D) Section 58A
  32. What is the procedure if an EVM is intentionally destroyed during polling?
    A) Poll continues with a backup EVM
    B) Poll is adjourned until the next day
    C) EC declares the poll void and sets a new date
    D) Poll results are annulled
    Answer: C) EC declares the poll void and sets a new date
  33. What is the common name for Polianthes tuberosa L.?
    A) Sunflower
    B) Tuberose
    C) Jasmine
    D) Marigold
    Answer: B) Tuberose
  34. Which state in India is known for its significant tuberose cultivation but struggles due to marketing issues?
    A) Maharashtra
    B) Odisha
    C) Kerala
    D) Punjab
    Answer: B) Odisha
  35. What variety of tuberose is encouraged for cultivation due to its better yield?
    A) Rajnigandha
    B) Prajwal
    C) Ganga
    D) Surya
    Answer: B) Prajwal
  36. In which century did tuberose spread to India?
    A) 14th century
    B) 15th century
    C) 16th century
    D) 17th century
    Answer: C) 16th century
  37. Which Indian expressway is associated with the construction of Odisha’s first highway tunnel?
    A) Mumbai-Pune Expressway
    B) Raipur-Visakhapatnam Expressway
    C) Delhi-Agra Expressway
    D) Bangalore-Mysore Expressway
    Answer: B) Raipur-Visakhapatnam Expressway
  38. What is the estimated cost of the project under Phase-I of Bharatmala Pariyojana involving the Raipur-Visakhapatnam Expressway?
    A) Rs 10,000 crore
    B) Rs 12,000 crore
    C) Rs 14,000 crore
    D) Rs 16,000 crore
    Answer: D) Rs 16,000 crore
  39. How much financial assistance is provided by the government annually for tuberose cultivation in Odisha?
    A) Rs 4,000
    B) Rs 5,000
    C) Rs 6,000
    D) Rs 7,000
    Answer: C) Rs 6,000
  40. Which parameter is NOT typically affected by urbanization-driven warming?
    A) Temperature
    B) Rainfall
    C) Pollution levels
    D) Coastal erosion
    Answer: D) Coastal erosion
  41. What is Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM)?
    A. A bacterial infection
    B. A viral infection
    C. A fungal infection
    D. A rare and fatal brain infection caused by an amoeba
    Answer: D
  42. Which organism causes Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM)?
    A. Plasmodium falciparum
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
    C. Naegleria fowleri
    D. Giardia lamblia
    Answer: C
  43. In which environments does Naegleria fowleri thrive?
    A. Cold freshwater and soil
    B. Warm freshwater and soil
    C. Salty water
    D. Ice and snow
    Answer: B
  44. What is the suspected source of infection in the recent case in Kerala?
    A. Drinking contaminated water
    B. Inhaling dust particles
    C. Swimming in a local river
    D. Eating contaminated food
    Answer: C
  45. How does Naegleria fowleri enter the human body?
    A. Through the mouth
    B. Through the nose
    C. Through cuts in the skin
    D. Through the ears
    Answer: B
  46. What is the initial symptom of PAM?
    A. Diarrhea
    B. Rash
    C. Headache
    D. Shortness of breath
    Answer: C
  47. Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of PAM?
    A. Amphotericin B
    B. Azithromycin
    C. Paracetamol
    D. Miltefosine
    Answer: C
  48. What is the typical survival time after the onset of PAM symptoms?
    A. 1 to 3 days
    B. 1 to 18 days
    C. 1 to 4 weeks
    D. 1 to 2 months
    Answer: B
  49. Which symptom is NOT associated with the progression of PAM?
    A. Stiff neck
    B. Confusion
    C. Seizures
    D. Chronic cough
    Answer: D
  50. Which temperature can Naegleria fowleri survive up to?
    A. 100°F
    B. 110°F
    C. 115°F
    D. 120°F
    Answer: C
  51. How many children developed symptoms in the recent case in Kerala?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    Answer: A
  52. What type of water bodies are commonly associated with Naegleria fowleri infections?
    A. Oceans
    B. Cold rivers
    C. Warm freshwater bodies
    D. Desert ponds
    Answer: C
  53. What part of the body does Naegleria fowleri affect after entering through the nose?
    A. Lungs
    B. Stomach
    C. Liver
    D. Brain
    Answer: D
  54. Which of the following is a secondary symptom of PAM?
    A. Nausea
    B. Itchy skin
    C. Sore throat
    D. Hair loss
    Answer: A
  55. Which treatment combination is used for PAM?
    A. Antibiotics and antivirals
    B. Antifungals and steroids
    C. Antifungals, antibiotics, and steroids
    D. Only antifungals
    Answer: C
  56. What is the mortality rate of PAM?
    A. 20%
    B. 50%
    C. 80%
    D. Over 95%
    Answer: D
  57. Which drug used for PAM is known for its antifungal properties?
    A. Amphotericin B
    B. Azithromycin
    C. Rifampin
    D. Dexamethasone
    Answer: A
  58. What other condition is miltefosine commonly used to treat?
    A. Malaria
    B. Leishmaniasis
    C. Tuberculosis
    D. Influenza
    Answer: B
  59. What precaution can reduce the risk of Naegleria fowleri infection while swimming?
    A. Wearing a nose clip
    B. Avoiding swimming in saltwater
    C. Swimming in colder water
    D. Using insect repellent
    Answer: A
  60. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Naegleria fowleri?
    A. Single-celled organism
    B. Thrives in cold environments
    C. Can cause brain infections
    D. Found in warm freshwater
    Answer: B
  61. What marks the significance of the fourth successful natural breeding of gharials in the Satkosia gorge?
    A) The discovery of a new gharial species
    B) Increase in local tourism
    C) The birth of 35 baby crocodiles
    D) The decline in poaching activities
    Answer: C) The birth of 35 baby crocodiles
  62. Which river is recognized as the southernmost limit for gharials in India?
    A) Ganges
    B) Brahmaputra
    C) Mahanadi
    D) Godavari
    Answer: C) Mahanadi
  63. What role has the Gharial Species Recovery programme played in Satkosia gorge?
    A) Introducing crocodile farming
    B) Preventing the local extinction of gharials
    C) Establishing a zoo
    D) Increasing fishing activities
    Answer: B) Preventing the local extinction of gharials
  64. When was the first natural breeding of gharials observed after nearly 40 years?
    A) 2018
    B) 2019
    C) 2021
    D) 2022
    Answer: C) 2021
  65. What measures have been taken to protect the nesting site of gharials in Satkosia gorge?
    A) Constructing a dam
    B) Declaring it a no fishing zone
    C) Introducing new fish species
    D) Banning tourism
    Answer: B) Declaring it a no fishing zone
  66. What is the name of the first cyclone of the pre-monsoon season expected to bypass Odisha?
    A) Fani
    B) Amphan
    C) Remal
    D) Hudhud
    Answer: C) Remal
  67. Which districts in Odisha are expected to experience heavy rainfall due to cyclone Remal?
    A) Puri, Khurda, Cuttack
    B) Balasore, Bhadrak, Kendrapara
    C) Ganjam, Koraput, Sundargarh
    D) Sambalpur, Jharsuguda, Bargarh
    Answer: B) Balasore, Bhadrak, Kendrapara
  68. What is the expected wind speed along the north Odisha coast due to cyclone Remal?
    A) 20-30 km/h
    B) 30-40 km/h
    C) 40-50 km/h
    D) 50-60 km/h
    Answer: C) 40-50 km/h
  69. What impact will cyclone Remal have on the temperatures in Odisha?
    A) Decrease by 2-3 degrees Celsius
    B) No change in temperature
    C) Increase by 2-3 degrees Celsius
    D) Drastic increase by 5 degrees Celsius
    Answer: C) Increase by 2-3 degrees Celsius
    World Youth Weightlifting Championships 2024
  70. Which athlete from Odisha achieved a new World Record at the IWF World Youth Weightlifting Championships?
    A) Jyoshna Sabar
    B) Preetismita Bhoi
    C) Mirabai Chanu
    D) Saikhom Mirabai
    Answer: B) Preetismita Bhoi
  71. Where was the IWF World Youth Weightlifting Championships held?
    A) Tokyo, Japan
    B) Lima, Peru
    C) New Delhi, India
    D) Beijing, China
    Answer: B) Lima, Peru
  72. What highlights Odisha’s efforts in nurturing weightlifting talent?
    A) Hosting international events
    B) Establishing the Odisha Weightlifting High Performance Centre
    C) Sponsoring international athletes
    D) Introducing new weightlifting techniques
    Answer: B) Establishing the Odisha Weightlifting High Performance Centre
    Mukhyamantri Research Fellowship Programme
  73. How many students were selected for the Mukhyamantri Research Fellowship (MRFT)?
    A) 100
    B) 200
    C) 300
    D) 400
    Answer: C) 300
  74. What is the monthly fellowship amount for successful students in the MRFT programme?
    A) Rs 20,000
    B) Rs 25,000
    C) Rs 30,000
    D) Rs 35,000
    Answer: C) Rs 30,000
  75. Who conducts the selection test for the MRFT programme?
    A) University Grants Commission
    B) State Selection Board
    C) National Testing Agency
    D) Ministry of Education
    Answer: B) State Selection Board
    Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP) Targets
  76. What is the targeted Profit Before Tax (PBT) for Rourkela Steel Plant in 2024-25?
    A) Rs 500 crore
    B) Rs 750 crore
    C) Rs 1,008 crore
    D) Rs 1,500 crore
    Answer: C) Rs 1,008 crore
  77. What strategy is RSP using to enhance its productivity and techno-economics of Blast Furnaces (BFs)?
    A) Importing high-grade iron ore
    B) Using iron ore pellets from unused iron ore fines
    C) Increasing workforce
    D) Expanding to new markets
    Answer: B) Using iron ore pellets from unused iron ore fines
  78. Which companies are involved with RSP in producing iron ore pellets?
    A) Tata Steel and JSW Steel
    B) SAIL and NMDC
    C) Shri Mahavir Ferro Alloys Pvt Ltd and MSP Steel & Power Ltd
    D) Vedanta and Hindalco
    Answer: C) Shri Mahavir Ferro Alloys Pvt Ltd and MSP Steel & Power Ltd
  79. How many tonnes of iron ore pellets will RSP receive annually from its agreements?
    A) 5,00,000 tonnes
    B) 6,50,000 tonnes
    C) 7,00,000 tonnes
    D) 8,00,000 tonnes
    Answer: B) 6,50,000 tonnes
  80. What other strategies is RSP focusing on to improve its cost efficiency?
    A) Increasing exports
    B) Introducing new steel grades
    C) Closing unviable production units and expanding market presence
    D) Hiring more employees
    Answer: C) Closing unviable production units and expanding market presence
  81. What specific form of cell death has been discovered to occur in the lungs of severe COVID-19 patients?
    A) Apoptosis
    B) Necrosis
    C) Ferroptosis
    D) Autophagy
    Answer: C) Ferroptosis
  82. What is the main characteristic of ferroptosis?
    A) Breakdown of internal cell molecules
    B) Collapse of outer fat layers in cells
    C) Activation of immune cells
    D) Formation of cellular debris
    Answer: B) Collapse of outer fat layers in cells
  83. In which journal was the study on ferroptosis and COVID-19 lung disease published?
    A) Nature
    B) Science
    C) The Lancet
    D) Nature Communications
    Answer: D) Nature Communications
  84. Who first identified ferroptosis in 2012?
    A) Professor Brent Stockwell
    B) Dr. Anthony Fauci
    C) Professor Jennifer Doudna
    D) Dr. Katalin Karikó
    Answer: A) Professor Brent Stockwell
  85. Which diseases have been linked to ferroptosis aside from COVID-19?
    A) Cardiovascular diseases
    B) Neurodegenerative diseases like Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s
    C) Diabetes
    D) Osteoporosis
    Answer: B) Neurodegenerative diseases like Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s
  86. How might ferroptosis be therapeutically targeted for severe COVID-19 patients?
    A) By inducing more ferroptosis
    B) By halting ferroptosis with therapeutic drugs
    C) By promoting inflammation
    D) By increasing cell death
    Answer: B) By halting ferroptosis with therapeutic drugs
  87. What is the primary purpose of France’s ASMPA missile?
    A) Space exploration
    B) Nuclear deterrence
    C) Surveillance
    D) Weather monitoring
    Answer: B) Nuclear deterrence
  88. When was the ASMPA missile initially developed?
    A) 1966
    B) 1976
    C) 1986
    D) 1996
    Answer: C) 1986
  89. What recent program is responsible for the latest modernization of the ASMPA missile?
    A) ASMPA-2
    B) ASMPA-X
    C) ASMPA-R
    D) ASMPA-Next
    Answer: C) ASMPA-R
  90. During which military exercise was the recent ASMPA missile test conducted?
    A) Trident Juncture
    B) Aurora
    C) Durandal
    D) Defender-Europe
    Answer: C) Durandal
  91. Which aircraft was used to test the updated ASMPA missile?
    A) Mirage 2000
    B) Dassault Rafale
    C) Eurofighter Typhoon
    D) Boeing F/A-18
    Answer: B) Dassault Rafale
  92. Which viruses were discovered in the Neanderthal skeletons from the Chagyrskaya cave?
    A) HIV, Influenza, Zika
    B) Adenovirus, Herpesvirus, Papillomavirus
    C) Ebola, Rabies, SARS
    D) Hepatitis B, Dengue, Mumps
    Answer: B) Adenovirus, Herpesvirus, Papillomavirus
  93. How old are the viruses found in the Neanderthal skeletons?
    A) 10,000 years
    B) 20,000 years
    C) 30,000 years
    D) 50,000 years
    Answer: D) 50,000 years
  94. What modern human diseases are similar to those caused by the ancient viruses found in Neanderthals?
    A) Diabetes and Hypertension
    B) Cold sores, genital warts, cold-like symptoms
    C) Malaria and Tuberculosis
    D) Chickenpox and Measles
    Answer: B) Cold sores, genital warts, cold-like symptoms
  95. What is a potential reason for the extinction of Neanderthals as suggested by this research?
    A) Climate change
    B) Predatory attacks
    C) Viral infections
    D) Food scarcity
    Answer: C) Viral infections
  96. Why is resurrecting ancient viruses from Neanderthal DNA cautioned against?
    A) Lack of interest
    B) Technical limitations
    C) Risk of reconstructing damaged viral DNA
    D) Ethical concerns
    Answer: C) Risk of reconstructing damaged viral DNA
  97. What percentage of pregnancies globally are affected by preeclampsia?
    A) 1-2%
    B) 3-4%
    C) 5-8%
    D) 10-12%
    Answer: C) 5-8%
  98. What are the main symptoms of preeclampsia?
    A) High blood sugar and fatigue
    B) High blood pressure and potential organ damage
    C) Low blood pressure and dizziness
    D) Severe headaches and rash
    Answer: B) High blood pressure and potential organ damage
  99. When is World Preeclampsia Day observed annually?
    A) April 22nd
    B) May 22nd
    C) June 22nd
    D) July 22nd
    Answer: B) May 22nd
  100. What is emphasized by the Society of Fetal Medicine (SFM) to combat preeclampsia?
    A) Improved dietary guidelines
    B) Increased physical activity
    C) Early detection and proper management
    D) Use of herbal supplements
    Answer: C) Early detection and proper management
  101. What is the primary aim of Project Udbhav?
    A. Modernize military equipment
    B. Integrate ancient strategic wisdom into modern military practices
    C. Develop new military training programs
    D. Expand military bases
    Answer: B. Integrate ancient strategic wisdom into modern military practices

     

  102. Which organizations are jointly involved in Project Udbhav?
    A. Indian Army and DRDO
    B. Indian Army and USI
    C. Indian Navy and Indian Air Force
    D. Indian Army and ISRO
    Answer: B. Indian Army and USI

     

  103. What ancient texts does Project Udbhav draw insights from?
    A. Bhagavad Gita and Ramayana
    B. Vedas, Puranas, Mahabharata, Upanishads, and Arthashastra
    C. Panchatantra and Jataka Tales
    D. Manusmriti and Rigveda
    Answer: B. Vedas, Puranas, Mahabharata, Upanishads, and Arthashastra

     

  104. Which aspects of India’s military heritage does Project Udbhav explore?
    A. Modern warfare strategies
    B. Tribal traditions, Maratha naval legacy, and heroic exploits
    C. International military alliances
    D. Digital warfare techniques
    Answer: B. Tribal traditions, Maratha naval legacy, and heroic exploits

     

  105. What is the intended outcome of the Udbhav Compendium?
    A. To provide new weapon designs
    B. To ensure the Indian Armed Forces remain future-ready
    C. To establish new military bases
    D. To promote international peace
    Answer: B. To ensure the Indian Armed Forces remain future-ready

     

  106. Which region was significantly impacted by Cyclone Laly?
    A. South America
    B. East African coastline
    C. Southeast Asia
    D. North America
    Answer: B. East African coastline

     

  107. How many people were reported dead due to Cyclone Laly in Kenya?
    A. Ten
    B. Two
    C. Fifty
    D. Five
    Answer: B. Two

     

  108. What unusual characteristic did Cyclone Laly have based on its latitude?
    A. Extremely high temperatures
    B. Rare occurrence for its latitude range
    C. Formation over land
    D. Lack of wind
    Answer: B. Rare occurrence for its latitude range

     

  109. Which city in Somalia was affected by Cyclone Laly?
    A. Hargeisa
    B. Mogadishu
    C. Kismayo
    D. Baidoa
    Answer: B. Mogadishu

     

  110. What essential services were disrupted by Cyclone Laly in Kenya?
    A. Internet and telecommunication
    B. Transportation and healthcare
    C. Power and water supply
    D. Banking and finance
    Answer: C. Power and water supply

     

  111. What type of celestial body is Gliese 12 b?
    A. Asteroid
    B. Dwarf planet
    C. Exoplanet
    D. Comet
    Answer: C. Exoplanet

     

  112. How far is Gliese 12 b from Earth?
    A. 10 light-years
    B. 20 light-years
    C. 30 light-years
    D. 40 light-years
    Answer: D. 40 light-years

     

  113. Which space telescope helped discover Gliese 12 b?
    A. Hubble Space Telescope
    B. James Webb Space Telescope
    C. Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS)
    D. Kepler Space Telescope
    Answer: C. Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS)

     

  114. What is notable about Gliese 12 b’s average surface temperature?
    A. It is similar to Earth’s average temperature
    B. It is colder than most exoplanets discovered
    C. It is the hottest exoplanet found
    D. It is colder than Earth’s average temperature
    Answer: B. It is colder than most exoplanets discovered

     

  115. How many rocky planets does the star Gliese 12 host?
    A. Two
    B. Five
    C. Seven
    D. Ten
    Answer: C. Seven

     

  116. What action did ASCI take against advertisements featuring celebrities?
    A. Increased advertisement duration
    B. Imposed fines on all ads
    C. Acted against 101 advertisements
    D. Introduced new guidelines for ads
    Answer: C. Acted against 101 advertisements

     

  117. Which sector emerged as the most violative according to ASCI’s findings?
    A. Education
    B. Personal care
    C. Healthcare
    D. Food and beverage
    Answer: C. Healthcare

     

  118. What percentage of cases did illegal offshore betting contribute to?
    A. 10%
    B. 17%
    C. 25%
    D. 30%
    Answer: B. 17%

     

  119. In the context of ASCI, what new category emerged as a top violator?
    A. Technology
    B. Baby care
    C. Automotive
    D. Fashion
    Answer: B. Baby care

     

  120. What significant contribution did influencer promotions make to baby care violations?
    A. 50%
    B. 60%
    C. 70%
    D. 81%
    Answer: D. 81%
  121. DD Kisan recently relaunched with AI anchors named:
    a) Krish and Bhoomi
    b) Radha and Shyam
    c) Arjun and Meera
    d) Vikram and Jaya
    Answer: a) Krish and Bhoomi

     

  122. DD Kisan aims to enhance engagement and better serve India’s farming community by providing information on:
    a) Agricultural research and weather updates
    b) Fashion trends and celebrity gossip
    c) Sports news and political debates
    d) Movie reviews and cooking recipes
    Answer: a) Agricultural research and weather updates

     

  123. DD Kisan is the country’s first government TV channel to adopt AI technology.
    a) True
    b) False
    Answer: a) True

     

  124. The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) is based in:
    a) New York, USA
    b) Geneva, Switzerland
    c) Hamburg, Germany
    d) Tokyo, Japan
    Answer: c) Hamburg, Germany

     

  125. ITLOS recently delivered an advisory opinion on:
    a) Human rights violations
    b) Climate change
    c) Space exploration
    d) Cybersecurity
    Answer: b) Climate change

     

  126. According to ITLOS, anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions into the atmosphere constitute pollution of the:
    a) Land environment
    b) Air environment
    c) Freshwater environment
    d) Marine environment
    Answer: d) Marine environment

     

  127. States are required to take “all necessary measures” to prevent, reduce, and control marine pollution from anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions according to:
    a) The Kyoto Protocol
    b) The Paris Agreement
    c) The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)
    d) The Antarctic Treaty System
    Answer: c) The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

     

  128. The newly discovered plant species named Stellaria mcclintockiae is classified under which group?
    a) Caryophyllaceae
    b) Asteraceae
    c) Orchidaceae
    d) Poaceae
    Answer: a) Caryophyllaceae

     

  129. Stellaria mcclintockiae exhibits notable differences in:
    a) Bracts, sepals, and petals
    b) Stems, leaves, and roots
    c) Flowers, fruits, and seeds
    d) Bark, wood, and branches
    Answer: a) Bracts, sepals, and petals

     

  130. The Fourth International Conference on Small Island Developing States (SIDS-4) is scheduled to be held from:
    a) May 25-28, 2024
    b) May 27-30, 2024
    c) June 1-4, 2024
    d) June 3-6, 2024
    Answer: b) May 27-30, 2024

     

  131. SIDS comprise how many UN member nations and associate members of regional commissions?
    a) 47 UN member nations and 20 associate members
    b) 37 UN member nations and 20 associate members
    c) 57 UN member nations and 15 associate members
    d) 27 UN member nations and 25 associate members

    Answer: b) 37 UN member nations and 20 associate members

     

  132. SIDS are recognized as a special case both for their environment and development since the year:
    a) 1982
    b) 1992
    c) 2002
    d) 2012
    Answer: b) 1992

     

  133. SIDS are spread across three key regions, which are:
    a) North America, Europe, and Asia
    b) Africa, South America, and Antarctica
    c) The Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean, and South China Sea (AIS)
    d) Middle East, Central Asia, and Oceania
    Answer: c) The Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean, and South China Sea (AIS)

     

  134. The conference theme for SIDS-4 is:
    a) “Building Bridges for Sustainable Development”
    b) “Nurturing Nature for Future Generations”
    c) “Charting the course toward resilient prosperity”
    d) “Empowering Communities for a Better Tomorrow”
    Answer: c) “Charting the course toward resilient prosperity”

     

  135. How much grant finance has the Global Environment Facility (GEF) provided to SIDS?
    a) $1.9 million
    b) $1.9 billion
    c) $19 million
    d) $19 billion
    Answer: b) $1.9 billion

     

  136. The GEF-8 funding cycle continues to strongly support SIDS and:
    a) Developed countries
    b) Middle-income countries
    c) Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
    d) Large industrialized nations
    Answer: c) Least Developed Countries (LDCs)

     

  137. The SIDS-4 conference aims to evaluate SIDS’ progress toward:
    a) The 2020 Agenda
    b) The 2030 Agenda
    c) The 2050 Agenda
    d) The 2075 Agenda
    Answer: b) The 2030 Agenda

     

  138. The discovery of Stellaria mcclintockiae occurred in which hills?
    a) Himalayas
    b) Western Ghats
    c) Eastern Ghats
    d) Nelliyampathy hills
    Answer: d) Nelliyampathy hills

     

  139. Which journal published the description of the newly found species, Stellaria mcclintockiae?
    a) Nature
    b) Science
    c) Phytotaxa
    d) Journal of Botany
    Answer: c) Phytotaxa

     

  140. The AI anchors of DD Kisan, Krish and Bhoomi, are capable of communicating fluently in how many languages?
    a) 10 languages
    b) 25 languages
    c) 50 languages
    d) 75 languages
    Answer: c) 50 languages
  141. What is the name of the state where GAIL has commissioned its first 10 MW Green Hydrogen Plant?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Madhya Pradesh
    c) Karnataka
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: b) Madhya Pradesh

     

  142. How much hydrogen does the plant produce per day?
    a) 3.7 Tonnes
    b) 4.3 Tonnes
    c) 5.8 Tonnes
    d) 6.5 Tonnes
    Answer: b) 4.3 Tonnes

     

  143. What is the purity level of the hydrogen produced by the plant?
    a) 95%
    b) 98%
    c) 99.99%
    d) 100%
    Answer: c) 99.99%

     

  144. At what pressure is the hydrogen generated at the plant?
    a) 10 Kg per square centimeter
    b) 20 Kg per square centimeter
    c) 30 Kg per square centimeter
    d) 40 Kg per square centimeter
    Answer: c) 30 Kg per square centimeter

     

  145. Initially, what will the hydrogen be used for alongside natural gas?
    a) Transportation
    b) Heating
    c) Fuel for captive purposes
    d) Electricity generation
    Answer: c) Fuel for captive purposes

     

  146. How does the plant fulfill its green power requirement for electrolysis?
    a) Wind Power
    b) Nuclear Power
    c) Solar Power
    d) Hydro Power
    Answer: c) Solar Power

     

  147. What is the total capacity of the solar power plants being installed at Vijaipur?
    a) 10 MW
    b) 15 MW
    c) 20 MW
    d) 25 MW
    Answer: c) 20 MW

     

  148. What is the overarching objective of the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
    a) To reduce carbon emissions
    b) To increase fossil fuel imports
    c) To promote grey hydrogen production
    d) To make India a global hub for production, usage, and export of Green Hydrogen
    Answer: d) To make India a global hub for production, usage, and export of Green Hydrogen

     

  149. How much is the outlay of the National Green Hydrogen Mission?
    a) ₹ 10,000 crore
    b) ₹ 15,000 crore
    c) ₹ 19,744 crore
    d) ₹ 25,000 crore
    Answer: c) ₹ 19,744 crore

     

  150. What is the expected reduction in CO2 emissions through the production and use of Green Hydrogen by 2030?
    a) 25 MMT per annum
    b) 50 MMT per annum
    c) 75 MMT per annum
    d) 100 MMT per annum
    Answer: b) 50 MMT per annum
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | May 4th Week 2024_3.1