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Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | September 2nd Week 2024

Weekly Current affairs play a very important role in the competitive examinations and hence, aspirants have to give undivided attention to it while doing preparation for the government examinations. The CGLRE, OCS examinations comprise a section of “Current Affairs” to evaluate how much the aspirant is aware of the daily happenings taking place around the world. To complement your preparation, we are providing you with a compilation of  Weekly Current affairs.

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  1. Where is Yudh Abhyas 2024 being conducted?
    (a) Jaisalmer
    (b) Mahajan Field Firing Ranges
    (c) Leh
    (d) Ladakh
    Ans: (b) Mahajan Field Firing Ranges
  2. When did Yudh Abhyas 2024 start?
    (a) 1st September 2024
    (b) 15th September 2024
    (c) 9th September 2024
    (d) 22nd September 2024
    Ans: (c) 9th September 2024
  3. What is the primary focus of Yudh Abhyas 2024?
    (a) Naval operations
    (b) Counter-terrorism operations in semi-desert conditions
    (c) Mountain warfare
    (d) Urban warfare
    Ans: (b) Counter-terrorism operations in semi-desert conditions
  4. Under which UN Charter chapter is Yudh Abhyas conducted?
    (a) Chapter VI
    (b) Chapter VIII
    (c) Chapter VII
    (d) Chapter IX
    Ans: (c) Chapter VII
  5. Since when has the Yudh Abhyas joint exercise been conducted alternately between India and the USA?
    (a) 2000
    (b) 2004
    (c) 2008
    (d) 2010
    Ans: (b) 2004
  6. Which country is hosting the 2024 Forum on China-Africa Cooperation (FOCAC)?
    (a) South Africa
    (b) Nigeria
    (c) China
    (d) Ethiopia
    Ans: (c) China
  7. How much funding did China pledge at the 2024 FOCAC summit?
    (a) $30 billion
    (b) $40 billion
    (c) $51 billion
    (d) $60 billion
    Ans: (c) $51 billion
  8. Which was China’s first major infrastructure project in Africa?
    (a) Suez Canal
    (b) Nigeria Railway
    (c) Tanzania-Zambia Railway
    (d) Ethiopian Dam Project
    Ans: (c) Tanzania-Zambia Railway
  9. In which year did China become Africa’s largest bilateral trading partner?
    (a) 1999
    (b) 2005
    (c) 2009
    (d) 2012
    Ans: (c) 2009
  10. Which African country is not a member of FOCAC due to its ties with Taiwan?
    (a) Ethiopia
    (b) Eswatini
    (c) Kenya
    (d) Ghana
    Ans: (b) Eswatini
  11. What is the theme of the 2024 FOCAC summit?
    (a) “Strengthening Sino-African Cooperation”
    (b) “Joining Hands to Advance Modernization and Build a High-Level China-Africa Community with a Shared Future”
    (c) “China-Africa: A Shared Vision for Future Prosperity”
    (d) “Fostering Economic and Technological Growth in Africa”
    Ans: (b) “Joining Hands to Advance Modernization and Build a High-Level China-Africa Community with a Shared Future”
  12. What is the significance of the Sanskrit phrase “Yato Dharmastato Jayah” in the Supreme Court’s new insignia?
    (a) Truth alone triumphs
    (b) Justice delayed is justice denied
    (c) Where there is righteousness, there is victory
    (d) Justice for all
    Ans: (c) Where there is righteousness, there is victory
  13. Which whale species was recently rediscovered in Antarctica by researchers in 2022?
    (a) Blue whale
    (b) Sperm whale
    (c) Arnoux’s beaked whale
    (d) Humpback whale
    Ans: (c) Arnoux’s beaked whale
  14. What is the scientific name of Arnoux’s beaked whales?
    (a) Balaenoptera musculus
    (b) Physeter macrocephalus
    (c) Berardius arnuxii
    (d) Delphinus delphis
    Ans: (c) Berardius arnuxii
  15. What is a distinctive feature of Arnoux’s beaked whales?
    (a) They are the largest species of whales.
    (b) They have four visible teeth in their lower jaws.
    (c) They can dive up to 10,000 meters.
    (d) They have a bright blue body.
    Ans: (b) They have four visible teeth in their lower jaws.
  16. Where was the Supreme Court’s new flag and insignia unveiled?
    (a) Supreme Court of India
    (b) Rashtrapati Bhavan
    (c) Parliament House
    (d) National Conference of District Judiciary in New Delhi
    Ans: (d) National Conference of District Judiciary in New Delhi
  17. What is the key objective of the Vishvasya-Blockchain Technology Stack launched by MeitY in 2024?
    (a) E-learning
    (b) Enhancing transparency, security, and efficiency in digital services
    (c) Artificial intelligence research
    (d) Reducing carbon emissions
    Ans: (b) Enhancing transparency, security, and efficiency in digital services
  18. Which platform in the Vishvasya Blockchain Technology Stack is designed for rapid prototyping, research, and learning?
    (a) Praamaanik
    (b) NBFLite
    (c) NICStack
    (d) FastChain
    Ans: (b) NBFLite
  19. Which solution within the Vishvasya Blockchain Stack verifies the authenticity of mobile applications?
    (a) Consent Management Framework
    (b) e-Stamps Solution
    (c) Praamaanik
    (d) IoT Device Security Management
    Ans: (c) Praamaanik
  20. Which of the following is NOT an application supported by the Vishvasya BaaS platform?
    (a) Judiciary Application
    (b) Forensic Application
    (c) Climate Change Monitoring
    (d) Cotton Bale Identification and Tracking
    Ans: (c) Climate Change Monitoring
  21. What was the percentage reduction in multidimensional poverty in Odisha from 2015-16 to 2019-21?
    (a) 50.12%
    (b) 29.34%
    (c) 15.68%
    (d) 62.6%
    Ans: (c) 15.68%
  22. Which organization published the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) progress review 2023 for Odisha?
    (a) Ministry of Finance
    (b) NITI Aayog
    (c) Ministry of Rural Development
    (d) Reserve Bank of India
    Ans: (b) NITI Aayog
  23. How many lakh people were freed from multidimensional poverty in Odisha as per the 2023 MPI report?
    (a) 50.2 lakh
    (b) 45.3 lakh
    (c) 62.6 lakh
    (d) 70 lakh
    Ans: (c) 62.6 lakh
  24. Odisha ranks ____ among Indian states in terms of Head Count Ratio for multidimensional poverty in 2023.
    (a) 5th
    (b) 10th
    (c) 8th
    (d) 7th
    Ans: (c) 8th
  25. What is the multidimensional poverty rate at the national level in India according to the report?
    (a) 12.5%
    (b) 14.96%
    (c) 10.7%
    (d) 16.3%
    Ans: (b) 14.96%
  26. Which of the following is NOT one of the three essential dimensions considered by NITI Aayog’s MPI?
    (a) Health
    (b) Education
    (c) Housing
    (d) Living standards
    Ans: (c) Housing
  27. The Indian MPI includes two additional indicators compared to the Global MPI. One of these indicators is _____.
    (a) Sanitation
    (b) Maternal Health
    (c) Nutrition
    (d) Child Mortality
    Ans: (b) Maternal Health
  28. Which district in Odisha witnessed the highest number of lightning-related deaths in the past five years?
    (a) Ganjam
    (b) Balasore
    (c) Mayurbhanj
    (d) Cuttack
    Ans: (c) Mayurbhanj
  29. How much money has the Odisha government allocated to the Forest Department to reduce lightning-related deaths through palm tree plantation?
    (a) Rs 5 crore
    (b) Rs 7 crore
    (c) Rs 10 crore
    (d) Rs 12 crore
    Ans: (b) Rs 7 crore
  30. In which city is India’s first Silicon Carbide manufacturing facility being established?
    (a) Mumbai
    (b) Bhubaneswar
    (c) Bengaluru
    (d) Chennai
    Ans: (b) Bhubaneswar
  31. Silicon Carbide is widely used in which of the following industries?
    (a) Textile
    (b) Power Electronics
    (c) Pharmaceuticals
    (d) Food Processing
    Ans: (b) Power Electronics
  32. Which company is setting up India’s first Silicon Carbide manufacturing unit in Odisha?
    (a) Reliance Power
    (b) Tata Electronics
    (c) RIR Power Electronics Ltd.
    (d) Larsen & Toubro
    Ans: (c) RIR Power Electronics Ltd.
  33. Satkosia Tiger Reserve spans across how many districts in Odisha?
    (a) 2
    (b) 3
    (c) 4
    (d) 5
    Ans: (c) 4
  34. Which two sanctuaries were combined to establish Satkosia Tiger Reserve in 2007?
    (a) Baisipalli and Simlipal
    (b) Satkosia Gorge and Baisipalli
    (c) Simlipal and Bhitarkanika
    (d) Chilika and Gahirmatha
    Ans: (b) Satkosia Gorge and Baisipalli
  35. What is the total area of the Satkosia Tiger Reserve?
    (a) 1,236.70 sq km
    (b) 1,146.50 sq km
    (c) 1,136.70 sq km
    (d) 1,250.50 sq km
    Ans: (c) 1,136.70 sq km
  36. Which of the following is true about the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)?
    (a) It was set up in 2006
    (b) It was set up under the Wildlife Protection Act, 2006
    (c) It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d) All of the above
  37. When was the Wildlife (Protection) Act first enacted in India?
    (a) 1968
    (b) 1972
    (c) 1980
    (d) 1995
    Ans: (b) 1972
  38. The NTCA was established after the recommendations of which task force?
    (a) Wildlife Task Force
    (b) Environment Protection Task Force
    (c) Tiger Task Force
    (d) Biodiversity Task Force
    Ans: (c) Tiger Task Force
  39. Which of the following is a key material used in semiconductor manufacturing?
    (a) Copper
    (b) Silicon Carbide
    (c) Zinc
    (d) Iron
    Ans: (b) Silicon Carbide
  40. The special Tiger Protection Force in Satkosia Tiger Reserve is aimed to act against which of the following?
    (a) Deforestation
    (b) Wildlife trafficking
    (c) Poachers
    (d) Climate change
    Ans: (c) Poachers
  41. Odisha’s second AIIMS is set to be established in which district?
    (a) Bhubaneswar
    (b) Cuttack
    (c) Sambalpur
    (d) Puri
    Ans: (c) Sambalpur
  42. When was the first AIIMS in Odisha established?
    (a) 2012
    (b) 2010
    (c) 2015
    (d) 2017
    Ans: (a) 2012
  43. AIIMS stands for:
    (a) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
    (b) All India Integrated Medical Services
    (c) Autonomous Institute of Medical Sciences
    (d) Advanced Institute of Medical Sciences
    Ans: (a) All India Institute of Medical Sciences
  44. Where is the annual census of monsoon birds conducted in Odisha?
    (a) Simlipal National Park
    (b) Nandankanan Zoo
    (c) Bhitarkanika National Park
    (d) Satkosia Wildlife Sanctuary
    Ans: (c) Bhitarkanika National Park
  45. Bhitarkanika National Park is located in which district of Odisha?
    (a) Balasore
    (b) Kendrapara
    (c) Khurda
    (d) Ganjam
    Ans: (b) Kendrapara
  46. The annual bird census at Bhitarkanika National Park is conducted by:
    (a) Zoologists and foresters
    (b) Ornithologists and park wildlife personnel
    (c) Local farmers and fishermen
    (d) Government officials
    Ans: (b) Ornithologists and park wildlife personnel
  47. What endangered species is Bhitarkanika National Park known for?
    (a) Bengal Tiger
    (b) Saltwater Crocodile
    (c) Indian Elephant
    (d) Red Panda
    Ans: (b) Saltwater Crocodile
  48. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with Monkeypox?
    (a) Fever
    (b) Rash
    (c) Headache
    (d) Joint Pain
    Ans: (d) Joint Pain
  49. Monkeypox is transmitted to humans through:
    (a) Air
    (b) Animals
    (c) Contaminated Water
    (d) Person-to-person only
    Ans: (b) Animals
  50. Odisha recently launched which scheme to support farmers?
    (a) PM-KISAN Yojana
    (b) CM-Kisan Yojana
    (c) Krushi Vidya Nidhi Yojana
    (d) Jan Dhan Yojana
    Ans: (b) CM-Kisan Yojana
  51. Under CM-Kisan Yojana, eligible farmers will receive:
    (a) ₹3,000 in two installments
    (b) ₹4,000 in two installments
    (c) ₹5,000 in three installments
    (d) ₹6,000 in two installments
    Ans: (b) ₹4,000 in two installments
  52. How much financial assistance do landless farmers receive annually under the CM-Kisan Yojana?
    (a) ₹10,000
    (b) ₹15,000
    (c) ₹12,500
    (d) ₹20,000
    Ans: (c) ₹12,500
  53. Which festival was marked with the launch of CM-Kisan Yojana?
    (a) Akshaya Tritiya
    (b) Makar Sankranti
    (c) Durga Puja
    (d) Nuakhai
    Ans: (d) Nuakhai
  54. How many beneficiaries were assisted in Sambalpur under CM-Kisan Yojana?
    (a) 45,000
    (b) 80,000
    (c) 82,666
    (d) 90,000
    Ans: (c) 82,666
  55. Who are eligible for the CM-Kisan Yojana?
    (a) Only land-owning farmers
    (b) Small, marginal, and landless farmers not covered under PM-KISAN
    (c) All farmers
    (d) Industrial workers
    Ans: (b) Small, marginal, and landless farmers not covered under PM-KISAN
  56. The CM-Kisan Yojana aims to provide a financial boost to:
    (a) Agricultural machinery
    (b) Farmers’ housing
    (c) Farmers’ daily expenses
    (d) Irrigation projects
    Ans: (c) Farmers’ daily expenses
  57. Krushi Vidya Nidhi Yojana provides a scholarship of how much to each student?
    (a) ₹1,00,000
    (b) ₹2,00,000
    (c) ₹3,00,000
    (d) ₹4,00,000
    Ans: (b) ₹2,00,000
  58. The Krushi Vidya Nidhi Yojana is aimed at which group?
    (a) All students in Odisha
    (b) Children of Kisan Yojana beneficiaries
    (c) Underprivileged students
    (d) Children of government employees
    Ans: (b) Children of Kisan Yojana beneficiaries
  59. The purpose of Krushi Vidya Nidhi Yojana is to:
    (a) Provide farming tools
    (b) Support the technical education of farmers’ children
    (c) Offer health insurance to farmers
    (d) Develop infrastructure for agriculture
    Ans: (b) Support the technical education of farmers’ children
  60. Odisha declared a health alert due to the first suspected case of which disease?
    (a) Bird Flu
    (b) Smallpox
    (c) Monkeypox
    (d) Swine Flu
    Ans: (c) Monkeypox
  61. When was the PRASHAD Scheme launched?
    (a) 2014
    (b) 2015
    (c) 2017
    (d) 2020
    Ans: (b) 2015
  62. Which ministry oversees the PRASHAD Scheme?
    (a) Ministry of Culture
    (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
    (c) Ministry of Tourism
    (d) Ministry of Finance
    Ans: (c) Ministry of Tourism
  63. What is the main objective of the PRASHAD Scheme?
    (a) Strengthening defense infrastructure
    (b) Rejuvenating pilgrimage sites
    (c) Enhancing rural healthcare
    (d) Expanding urban housing projects
    Ans: (b) Rejuvenating pilgrimage sites
  64. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the PRASHAD Scheme?
    (a) Sustainable tourism
    (b) Local economic development
    (c) Industrial development
    (d) Spiritual augmentation
    Ans: (c) Industrial development
  65. The PRASHAD scheme primarily aims to promote which form of tourism?
    (a) Adventure tourism
    (b) Eco-tourism
    (c) Religious and spiritual tourism
    (d) Cultural tourism
    Ans: (c) Religious and spiritual tourism
  66. Khiching Temple is located in which Indian state?
    (a) Tamil Nadu
    (b) Odisha
    (c) West Bengal
    (d) Madhya Pradesh
    Ans: (b) Odisha
  67. The PRASHAD scheme is closely associated with which type of destinations?
    (a) Wildlife reserves
    (b) Historical sites
    (c) Pilgrimage and spiritual destinations
    (d) Metropolitan cities
    Ans: (c) Pilgrimage and spiritual destinations
  68. Which century does the Khiching Temple complex date back to?
    (a) 6th-7th century
    (b) 9th-10th century
    (c) 12th-13th century
    (d) 15th-16th century
    Ans: (b) 9th-10th century
  69. What type of temple is Khiching Temple primarily considered?
    (a) Buddhist
    (b) Jain
    (c) Hindu
    (d) Sikh
    Ans: (c) Hindu
  70. Under the PRASHAD scheme, which aspect is NOT covered?
    (a) Spiritual augmentation
    (b) Development of accommodation
    (c) Boosting industrial hubs
    (d) Infrastructure development at pilgrimage sites
    Ans: (c) Boosting industrial hubs
  71. Which article of the Indian Constitution relates to the Appropriation Bill?
    (a) Article 114
    (b) Article 123
    (c) Article 312
    (d) Article 52
    Ans: (a) Article 114
  72. What is the maximum time allowed for the Appropriation Bill to be passed by the Parliament after the Union Budget is presented?
    (a) 15 days
    (b) 45 days
    (c) 75 days
    (d) 90 days
    Ans: (c) 75 days
  73. Which of the following is a key feature of Article 204 of the Indian Constitution?
    (a) Government borrowing
    (b) External affairs policies
    (c) Procedure for passing Appropriation Bills
    (d) Taxation laws
    Ans: (c) Procedure for passing Appropriation Bills
  74. The BCG vaccination is primarily used to prevent which disease?
    (a) Malaria
    (b) Tuberculosis (TB)
    (c) Typhoid
    (d) Dengue
    Ans: (b) Tuberculosis (TB)
  75. Which group is being targeted by the new adult BCG vaccination rollout in Odisha?
    (a) Children under 5 years
    (b) Pregnant women
    (c) Vulnerable adult population
    (d) Adolescents
    Ans: (c) Vulnerable adult population
  76. In Odisha’s adult BCG vaccination program, which of the following is NOT included in the six-target groups?
    (a) Contacts of TB patients
    (b) Adults with BMI less than 18 kg/sq m
    (c) People aged below 18 years
    (d) Self-reported smokers
    Ans: (c) People aged below 18 years
  77. Scrub typhus is caused by which bacteria?
    (a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    (b) Escherichia coli
    (c) Orientia tsutsugamushi
    (d) Salmonella typhi
    Ans: (c) Orientia tsutsugamushi
  78. What is the main vector responsible for transmitting scrub typhus?
    (a) Mosquitoes
    (b) Chiggers (larval mites)
    (c) Ticks
    (d) Flies
    Ans: (b) Chiggers (larval mites)
  79. Which is a common symptom of scrub typhus?
    (a) Joint pain
    (b) Dark scab (eschar) at the bite site
    (c) Severe cough
    (d) Yellow skin
    Ans: (b) Dark scab (eschar) at the bite site
  80. Which antibiotic is typically used to treat scrub typhus if administered early?
    (a) Penicillin
    (b) Doxycycline
    (c) Ciprofloxacin
    (d) Amoxicillin
    Ans: (b) Doxycycline
  81. What does KALIA stand for?
    (a) Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
    (b) Krushak Aid for Livelihood and Income Advancement
    (c) Krushak Assistance for Long-term Income Augmentation
    (d) Krushak Augmentation for Labor and Income Assistance
    Ans: (a)
  82. In which year was the KALIA scheme launched?
    (a) 2016
    (b) 2017
    (c) 2018
    (d) 2019
    Ans: (c)
  83. The KALIA scheme primarily targets which group of beneficiaries?
    (a) Urban workers
    (b) Industrial laborers
    (c) Farmers and landless agricultural laborers
    (d) Small-scale entrepreneurs
    Ans: (c)
  84. Which state implemented the KALIA scheme?
    (a) West Bengal
    (b) Bihar
    (c) Odisha
    (d) Andhra Pradesh
    Ans: (c)
  85. How much money was transferred to ineligible beneficiaries as identified by the CAG?
    (a) Rs 512.26 crore
    (b) Rs 782.26 crore
    (c) Rs 900.50 crore
    (d) Rs 1,000 crore
    Ans: (b)
  86. What is the total number of ineligible beneficiaries identified by the CAG audit?
    (a) 12.72 lakh
    (b) 10.50 lakh
    (c) 8.96 lakh
    (d) 15.32 lakh
    Ans: (a)
  87. Which database was used in addition to the KALIA database to identify ineligible beneficiaries?
    (a) SECC
    (b) VAHAN
    (c) IFMS
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d)
  88. What is one of the main goals of the KALIA scheme?
    (a) Providing free education to children
    (b) Poverty reduction and livelihood improvement in rural Odisha
    (c) Offering employment to unemployed youths
    (d) Establishing new farming technologies
    Ans: (b)
  89. Which of the following groups is NOT eligible under the KALIA scheme?
    (a) Farmers
    (b) Landless agricultural laborers
    (c) Industrial workers
    (d) Vulnerable agricultural households
    Ans: (c)
  90. Which government body detected financial irregularities in the KALIA scheme?
    (a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    (b) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
    (c) Planning Commission
    (d) Election Commission of India
    Ans: (b)
  91. The KALIA scheme is designed to provide which type of assistance?
    (a) Skill development
    (b) Financial assistance
    (c) Health insurance
    (d) Educational loans
    Ans: (b)
  92. Who chairs the selection committee for re-engaging retired personnel in Odisha as per the new guidelines?
    (a) Chief Minister
    (b) Chief Secretary
    (c) Governor
    (d) Finance Secretary
    Ans: (b)
  93. Under the new guidelines, what is the upper age limit for re-engagement of retired employees in Odisha?
    (a) 60 years
    (b) 65 years
    (c) 70 years
    (d) 55 years
    Ans: (b)
  94. How many years of outstanding performance is required for retired employees to be eligible for re-engagement in Odisha?
    (a) 3 years
    (b) 4 years
    (c) 5 years
    (d) 6 years
    Ans: (c)
  95. What percentage of jobs will be reserved for ex-Agniveers in Odisha’s uniform services?
    (a) 5%
    (b) 7%
    (c) 10%
    (d) 15%
    Ans: (c)
  96. How long do Agniveers serve in their short-term service contract?
    (a) 2 years
    (b) 3 years
    (c) 4 years
    (d) 5 years
    Ans: (c)
  97. What percentage of Agniveers are retained after completing their four-year service?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 25%
    (c) 30%
    (d) 50%
    Ans: (b)
  98. Which of the following is a feature of the Agniveer scheme?
    (a) Permanent employment for all participants
    (b) Provision of a severance package and skill development certificate
    (c) Guaranteed job in the state government
    (d) Lifetime pension after four years
    Ans: (b)
  99. Who received the National Florence Nightingale Award in 2024?
    (a) Sanjukta Sethi
    (b) Priya Patel
    (c) Anjali Das
    (d) Reena Malhotra
    Ans: (a)
  100. Which government department instituted the National Florence Nightingale Award?
    (a) Ministry of Education
    (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    (c) Ministry of Women and Child Development
    (d) Ministry of Social Justice
    Ans: (b)
  101. What celestial object is the Red Spider Nebula?
    a) A star cluster
    b) A planetary nebula
    c) A supernova remnant
    d) A galaxy
    Ans: b) A planetary nebula
  102. How far is the Red Spider Nebula from Earth?
    a) 1,000 light-years
    b) 2,000 light-years
    c) 3,000 light-years
    d) 4,000 light-years
    Ans: c) 3,000 light-years
  103. What is the primary feature of the star at the core of the Red Spider Nebula?
    a) It is one of the coldest known stars
    b) It is one of the hottest known stars
    c) It is a binary star system
    d) It is a pulsar
    Ans: b) It is one of the hottest known stars
  104. What is the height of the shockwaves created by the star in the Red Spider Nebula?
    a) 10 billion kilometers
    b) 30 billion kilometers
    c) 50 billion kilometers
    d) 100 billion kilometers
    Ans: d) 100 billion kilometers
  105. What is a nebula primarily composed of? a) Solid rocks and metals
    b) Gas and dust
    c) Liquid water
    d) Plasma
    Ans: b) Gas and dust
  106. Which agency is NOT involved in the implementation of Mission Mausam?
    a) India Meteorological Department
    b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
    c) National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting
    d) National Space Research Agency
    Ans: d) National Space Research Agency
  107. What is the budget allocated for Mission Mausam? a) Rs. 1,000 crore
    b) Rs. 1,500 crore
    c) Rs. 2,000 crore
    d) Rs. 2,500 crore
    Ans: c) Rs. 2,000 crore
  108. Which advanced technology is NOT mentioned as part of Mission Mausam’s focus?
    a) Next-generation radars
    b) High-performance supercomputers
    c) Quantum computing
    d) Artificial intelligence
    Ans: c) Quantum computing
  109. Who has been appointed as a national icon for voter awareness focusing on Persons with Disabilities (PwDs)?
    a) Ms. Sheetal Devi
    b) Shri Rakesh Kumar
    c) Both Ms. Sheetal Devi and Shri Rakesh Kumar
    d) None of the above
    Ans: c) Both Ms. Sheetal Devi and Shri Rakesh Kumar
  110. Which significant achievement is associated with Ms. Sheetal Devi?
    a) Winning a gold medal in the mixed team event at the Paralympic Games
    b) Becoming India’s youngest Paralympic medalist
    c) Earning a silver medal at the World Archery Para Championship
    d) Representing India at the Tokyo Olympics
    Ans: b) Becoming India’s youngest Paralympic medalist
  111. How many glossaries does the CSTT website currently provide access to?
    a) 150 glossaries
    b) 250 glossaries
    c) 322 glossaries
    d) 400 glossaries
    Ans: c) 322 glossaries
  112. What is the future goal for the number of glossaries on the CSTT portal?
    a) 350 glossaries
    b) 400 glossaries
    c) 450 glossaries
    d) 500 glossaries
    Ans: c) 450 glossaries
  113. Which new website has been introduced by CSTT to provide technical terms in Indian languages?
    a) shabd.gov.in
    b) terminology.india.gov.in
    c) shabd.education.gov.in
    d) sciencewords.in
    Ans: c) shabd.education.gov.in
  114. What is the main purpose of the Air Quality Management Exchange Platform (AQMx)?
    a) To manage city traffic
    b) To improve air quality
    c) To monitor water quality
    d) To develop energy resources
    Ans: b) To improve air quality
  115. Which international body passed the resolution for the creation of AQMx?
    a) World Health Organization (WHO)
    b) United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)
    c) International Climate Coalition (ICC)
    d) Global Air Quality Alliance (GAQA)
    Ans: b) United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)
  116. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Mission Mausam?
    a) Focus on monsoon predictions
    b) Developing fog and hail management techniques
    c) Integration of next-generation satellites
    d) Research on solar energy
    Ans: d) Research on solar energy
  117. In which field is the CSTT NOT involved?
    a) Standardizing scientific terms
    b) Developing glossaries for government use
    c) Publishing research journals
    d) Conducting space exploration missions
    Ans: d) Conducting space exploration missions
  118. Which institute is NOT part of the three primary institutes for implementing Mission Mausam?
    a) India Meteorological Department
    b) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
    c) National Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasting
    d) Indian Space Research Organisation
    Ans: d) Indian Space Research Organisation
  119. Who won a gold medal in the mixed team event at the 2023 World Archery Para Championship?
    a) Ms. Sheetal Devi
    b) Shri Rakesh Kumar
    c) Both Ms. Sheetal Devi and Shri Rakesh Kumar
    d) None of the above
    Ans: b) Shri Rakesh Kumar
  120. What is the main feature of the AQMx platform?
    a) Weather forecasting
    b) Air quality management strategies
    c) Oceanographic research
    d) Space exploration tools
    Ans: b) Air quality management strategies
  121. What is Tartrazine commonly known as?
    (a) FD&C Yellow 5
    (b) FD&C Yellow 6
    (c) FD&C Blue 1
    (d) FD&C Red 40
    Ans: (a) FD&C Yellow 5
  122. What is the primary function of Tartrazine in food products?
    (a) Preservation
    (b) Flavor enhancement
    (c) Coloring
    (d) Sweetening
    Ans: (c) Coloring
  123. Which of the following is a key property of Tartrazine?
    (a) Soluble in oil
    (b) Deep yellow powder
    (c) Insoluble in water
    (d) Refractive index matching
    Ans: (b) Deep yellow powder
  124. How does Tartrazine make the skin of live mice transparent?
    (a) By increasing skin thickness
    (b) By adjusting refractive indices
    (c) By absorbing blue light
    (d) By making skin reflect light
    Ans: (b) By adjusting refractive indices
  125. What is the effect of Tartrazine on light absorption?
    (a) It absorbs blue light
    (b) It absorbs red light
    (c) It reflects green light
    (d) It diffuses UV light
    Ans: (b) It absorbs red light
  126. Under which scheme is the road construction project for the Pahadi Korwa tribe being conducted?
    (a) PM Awas Yojana
    (b) Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)
    (c) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
    (d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    Ans: (b) Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN)
  127. What language do the Pahadi Korwa people primarily speak?
    (a) Hindi
    (b) Korwa
    (c) Telugu
    (d) Bhili
    Ans: (b) Korwa
  128. Which state is primarily associated with the Pahadi Korwa tribe?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Odisha
    (c) Chhattisgarh
    (d) Madhya Pradesh
    Ans: (c) Chhattisgarh
  129. What is the main goal of the PM JANMAN scheme?
    (a) Infrastructure development
    (b) Tribal upliftment
    (c) Educational reforms
    (d) Economic growth
    Ans: (b) Tribal upliftment
  130. What new role has the National Test House (NTH), Ghaziabad, recently taken on?
    (a) Certification Body for agricultural equipment
    (b) Certification Body for drones
    (c) Certification Body for pharmaceuticals
    (d) Certification Body for automobiles
    Ans: (b) Certification Body for drones
  131. When was the National Test House (NTH) established?
    (a) 1900
    (b) 1912
    (c) 1920
    (d) 1935
    Ans: (b) 1912
  132. What is the primary focus of the Certification Scheme for Unmanned Aircraft Systems (UAS)?
    (a) Financial aid for drone manufacturers
    (b) Certification of drone technology
    (c) Drone pilot training
    (d) Drone sales and marketing
    Ans: (b) Certification of drone technology
  133. What percentage of materials used in the construction of the INS Malpe and INS Mulki are indigenous?
    (a) 60%
    (b) 70%
    (c) 80%
    (d) 90%
    Ans: (c) 80%
  134. Where was the Myristica swamp forest discovered?
    (a) Kerala
    (b) Karnataka
    (c) Goa-Maharashtra border
    (d) Tamil Nadu
    Ans: (c) Goa-Maharashtra border
  135. What is the local name of the sacred grove containing Myristica magnifica?
    (a) Bhalandeshwar
    (b) Shivpuri
    (c) Saraswati Van
    (d) Narmada Van
    Ans: (a) Bhalandeshwar
  136. How many documented plant species are present in the Bhalandeshwar sacred grove?
    (a) 50
    (b) 39
    (c) 25
    (d) 45
    Ans: (b) 39
  137. What ecological services does the Myristica swamp forest provide?
    (a) Carbon sequestration and groundwater recharge
    (b) Air purification and noise reduction
    (c) Soil fertility and agricultural yield
    (d) Urban cooling and energy conservation
    Ans: (a) Carbon sequestration and groundwater recharge
  138. How many individuals of Myristica magnifica are dominant in the sacred grove?
    (a) 50
    (b) 70
    (c) 100
    (d) 30
    Ans: (b) 70
  139. When were INS Malpe and INS Mulki launched?
    (a) September 9, 2023
    (b) September 9, 2024
    (c) October 1, 2024
    (d) November 15, 2024
    Ans: (b) September 9, 2024
  140. What is the primary purpose of the Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) shallow water crafts INS Malpe and INS Mulki?
    (a) Coastal surveillance
    (b) Anti-submarine warfare
    (c) Mine sweeping
    (d) Rescue operations
    Ans: (b) Anti-submarine warfare
  141. What is the primary technology used in the new satellite-based tolling system?
    (a) Global Positioning System (GPS)
    (b) Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
    (c) Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
    (d) Wi-Fi Tracking
    Ans: (b) Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
  142. What is a key feature of the new satellite-based toll system?
    (a) Mandatory toll booth stops
    (b) Unlimited free travel
    (c) Free travel up to 20 km
    (d) Requires new vehicle registration
    Ans: (c) Free travel up to 20 km
  143. Which summit is China’s Xi Jinping scheduled to attend next month?
    (a) G7 Summit
    (b) ASEAN Summit
    (c) BRICS Summit
    (d) UN General Assembly
    Ans: (c) BRICS Summit
  144. Which country was added to the BRIC group in December 2010?
    (a) Mexico
    (b) South Africa
    (c) Indonesia
    (d) Turkey
    Ans: (b) South Africa
  145. What does the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measure?
    (a) Agricultural output
    (b) Industrial sector performance
    (c) Service sector growth
    (d) Retail sales
    Ans: (b) Industrial sector performance
  146. When was the Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) launched?
    (a) 2016
    (b) 2017
    (c) 2018
    (d) 2019
    Ans: (c) 2018
  147. Which Ministry is responsible for the Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)?
    (a) Ministry of Finance
    (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
    (d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
    Ans: (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  148. What recent action has the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) taken?
    (a) Issued new air travel regulations
    (b) Ordered a special safety audit of flying schools
    (c) Updated international air travel agreements
    (d) Increased aviation fuel taxes
    Ans: (b) Ordered a special safety audit of flying schools
  149. What is the primary responsibility of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)?
    (a) Regulating agricultural exports
    (b) Managing public health policies
    (c) Regulating civil aviation and air safety
    (d) Overseeing financial regulations in aviation
    Ans: (c) Regulating civil aviation and air safety
  150. Which organization is responsible for calculating and publishing the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) in India?
    (a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
    (b) Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)
    (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    (d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
    Ans: (b) Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)
Weekly Current Affairs Quiz for Odisha Competitive Exams | September 2nd Week 2024_3.1