The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-3 Download PDF
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: August-3
- Who proposed the Permanent Settlement system in 1786?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) William Pitt
(d) Robert Clive
Ans: (b) Lord Cornwallis - When did the Permanent Settlement Act come into effect?
(a) 1786
(b) 1790
(c) 1793
(d) 1800
Ans: (c) 1793 - Under the Permanent Settlement, who were recognized as the owners of the land?
(a) Farmers
(b) British Officials
(c) Zamindars
(d) Merchants
Ans: (c) Zamindars - What was the fixed revenue share that the landlords had to pay to the government?
(a) 1/11th
(b) 2/11th
(c) 9/10th
(d) 10/11th
Ans: (d) 10/11th - Which British official experimented with the annual settlement of land before the Permanent Settlement?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) William Pitt
(d) Robert Clive
Ans: (b) Warren Hastings - What document was the Zamindar required to give to the tenant describing the land and rent?
(a) Patta
(b) Sanad
(c) Farman
(d) Firman
Ans: (a) Patta - Which major event in 1770 partly occurred due to the Company’s neglect in revenue collection?
(a) Battle of Buxar
(b) Bengal Famine
(c) Battle of Plassey
(d) Sepoy Mutiny
Ans: (b) Bengal Famine - What was one of the merits of the Permanent Settlement?
(a) Increased tax revenue
(b) Security for all parties involved
(c) Less burden on Zamindars
(d) Complete British control over land
Ans: (b) Security for all parties involved - Which of the following was a demerit of the Permanent Settlement?
(a) Improved agricultural practices
(b) Creation of a class of aristocratic landlords
(c) Fixed and fair revenue assessment
(d) Equal distribution of land revenue
Ans: (b) Creation of a class of aristocratic landlords - In what year did the British government warn against imposing permanent settlement without a proper land survey?
(a) 1800
(b) 1805
(c) 1811
(d) 1820
Ans: (c) 1811 - This system of land revenue was instituted in the late 18th century by Sir Thomas Munro, Governor of Madras in 1820.
(a) Zamindari System
(b) Mahalwari System
(c) Ryotwari System
(d) Permanent Settlement
Ans. (c) Ryotwari System - In which areas was the Ryotwari system practiced?
(a) Bengal and Bihar
(b) Punjab and Sindh
(c) Madras and Bombay
(d) Orissa and Gujarat
Ans. (c) Madras and Bombay - Who were regarded as the owners of the land in the Ryotwari system?
(a) Zamindars
(b) British officials
(c) Peasants or cultivators
(d) Village headmen
Ans. (c) Peasants or cultivators - What was the percentage of tax rates in the Ryotwari system for dryland and wetland respectively?
(a) 30% and 40%
(b) 40% and 50%
(c) 50% and 60%
(d) 60% and 70%
Ans. (c) 50% and 60% - What problem arose due to high taxes being paid only in cash under the Ryotwari system?
(a) Increase in food crops
(b) Emergence of moneylenders
(c) Decline in village headmen
(d) Abundance of middlemen
Ans. (b) Emergence of moneylenders - The Mahalwari system was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 and reviewed under which governor in 1833?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Ans. (d) Lord William Bentinck - In the Mahalwari system, the land was divided into units known as:
(a) Villages
(b) Estates
(c) Mahals
(d) Districts
Ans. (c) Mahals - What percentage of the rental value was the state share of the revenue in the Mahalwari system?
(a) 33%
(b) 50%
(c) 66%
(d) 75%
Ans. (c) 66% - Which system of land revenue was known as the Modified Zamindari system?
(a) Zamindari System
(b) Ryotwari System
(c) Mahalwari System
(d) Permanent Settlement
Ans. (c) Mahalwari System - Which of the following was a consequence of the British land revenue systems?
(a) Decrease in bonded labour
(b) Increase in private ownership of land
(c) Decrease in food insecurity
(d) Reduction in moneylenders’ influence
Ans. (b) Increase in private ownership of land - Which oppressive practices did Raja Ram Mohan Roy condemn in his economic reforms?
(a) British trade monopolies
(b) Bengali zamindars
(c) Indian merchants
(d) British export policies
Answer: (b) Bengali zamindars - What did Raja Ram Mohan Roy demand in terms of rent fixation?
(a) Complete abolition of rent
(b) Increase in rent prices
(c) Fixation of minimum rents
(d) Rent to be paid in kind
Answer: (c) Fixation of minimum rents - Raja Ram Mohan Roy called for the abolition of which trading rights?
(a) British merchant trading rights
(b) Dutch East India Company’s trading rights
(c) French East India Company’s trading rights
(d) East India Company’s trading rights
Answer: (d) East India Company’s trading rights - What was one of the major reforms Raja Ram Mohan Roy advocated for in the press?
(a) Increased government control
(b) More advertisements
(c) Restrictions on foreign news
(d) Freedom of the press
Answer: (d) Freedom of the press - Which journal did Raja Ram Mohan Roy NOT establish?
(a) The Brahmanical Magazine
(b) Samvad Kaumudi
(c) Mirat-ul-Akbar
(d) The Hindu
Answer: (d) The Hindu - What was one of Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s demands in administrative reforms?
(a) Reduction of British salaries
(b) Indianisation of superior services
(c) Elimination of all British officials
(d) Increase in British judicial power
Answer: (b) Indianisation of superior services - Which association did Raja Ram Mohan Roy form in 1828 to promote religious and social reforms?
(a) Atmiya Sabha
(b) Calcutta Unitarian Association
(c) Brahmo Sabha or Brahmo Samaj
(d) Indian Social Reform Association
Answer: (c) Brahmo Sabha or Brahmo Samaj - What significant social evil did Raja Ram Mohan Roy campaign against, which was abolished in 1829?
(a) Child marriage
(b) Polygamy
(c) Caste system
(d) Sati
Answer: (d) Sati - Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s educational reforms included support for the establishment of which college?
(a) Presidency College
(b) Hindu College
(c) St. Xavier’s College
(d) University of Calcutta
Answer: (b) Hindu College - Which of the following beliefs did Raja Ram Mohan Roy NOT advocate?
(a) Monotheism
(b) Idol worship
(c) Rationalism
(d) Scientific approach
Answer: (b) Idol worship - What year was the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network Systems (CCTNS) launched?
(a) 2005
(b) 2007
(c) 2009
(d) 2011
Ans: (c) 2009 - Under which plan was CCTNS launched?
(a) National Development Plan (NDP)
(b) National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)
(c) National Cybersecurity Plan (NCP)
(d) National Policing Plan (NPP)
Ans: (b) National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) - Which ministry initiated the CCTNS project?
(a) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Law and Justice
Ans: (c) Ministry of Home Affairs - What is one of the primary objectives of CCTNS?
(a) To increase tourism
(b) To create a comprehensive and integrated system for effective policing
(c) To manage traffic systems
(d) To improve education standards
Ans: (b) To create a comprehensive and integrated system for effective policing - Which principle does CCTNS aim to adopt for crime and criminal data?
(a) Multiple sources of truth
(b) Dual sources of truth
(c) Single source of truth
(d) Decentralized sources of truth
Ans: (c) Single source of truth - CCTNS facilitates the collection, storage, retrieval, analysis, transfer, and sharing of what type of data?
(a) Economic data
(b) Environmental data
(c) Crime and criminal data
(d) Educational data
Ans: (c) Crime and criminal data - What feature does CCTNS provide for authorized personnel?
(a) Real-time access to classified criminal data
(b) Free public access to all criminal records
(c) Anonymous data sharing
(d) Offline access to data
Ans: (a) Real-time access to classified criminal data - Which interface does CCTNS support for better accessibility?
(a) Mobile-based only
(b) Web-based only
(c) Both web-based and mobile-friendly
(d) Desktop-based only
Ans: (c) Both web-based and mobile-friendly - What is the role of the centralized database in CCTNS?
(a) It is only for archival purposes
(b) Accessible by state and national level law enforcement agencies
(c) It serves as a backup only
(d) Accessible by the general public
Ans: (b) Accessible by state and national level law enforcement agencies - How can citizens interact with CCTNS?
(a) By visiting police stations only
(b) Through an online interface to lodge complaints and check the status of their complaints
(c) By mailing their complaints
(d) By calling a helpline number
Ans: (b) Through an online interface to lodge complaints and check the status of their complaints - What recent modifications have been made to CCTNS?
(a) 10 modifications
(b) 15 modifications
(c) 23 modifications
(d) 30 modifications
Ans: (c) 23 modifications - Who launched the CCTNS project?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans: (c) Ministry of Home Affairs - CCTNS is an initiative under which government plan?
(a) National Development Agenda
(b) Digital India Initiative
(c) National e-Governance Plan
(d) Smart City Project
Ans: (c) National e-Governance Plan - What year did CCTNS undergo significant modifications ahead of new criminal law implementations?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2022
(d) 2023
Ans: (d) 2023 - Which agencies provide the online interface for citizens in CCTNS?
(a) Private tech companies
(b) State and national law enforcement agencies
(c) Non-governmental organizations
(d) International policing bodies
Ans: (b) State and national law enforcement agencies - Where have scientists from the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad discovered new craters on Mars?
(a) Olympus Mons region
(b) Tharsis volcanic region
(c) Valles Marineris
(d) Elysium Planitia
Ans. (b) Tharsis volcanic region - Which organization approved the naming of the new craters found on Mars?
(a) NASA
(b) ESA
(c) International Astronomical Union (IAU)
(d) SpaceX
Ans. (c) International Astronomical Union (IAU) - When was the International Astronomical Union (IAU) founded?
(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1930
(d) 1945
Ans. (a) 1919 - By how much did nitrous oxide emissions increase between 1980 and 2020?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Ans. (c) 40% - Which country is the largest emitter of nitrous oxide (N2O)?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Brazil
Ans. (b) China - What percentage of nitrous oxide emissions in the past decade were due to agriculture?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 74%
Ans. (d) 74% - Which organization concluded the first phase of the ‘Phenome India’ Project?
(a) ICMR
(b) CSIR
(c) DRDO
(d) AIIMS
Ans. (b) CSIR - What is the primary focus of the ‘Phenome India’ Project?
(a) Infectious diseases
(b) Cardiovascular diseases
(c) Neurodegenerative diseases
(d) Cardio-metabolic diseases
Ans. (d) Cardio-metabolic diseases - Who recently urged the Election Commission to prioritize the counting of postal ballots?
(a) Ruling party
(b) Judiciary
(c) Media
(d) Opposition
Ans. (d) Opposition - Which category of voters is eligible for postal ballot voting?
(a) General voters
(b) Service voters
(c) Overseas voters
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b) Service voters - Where did scientists develop a novel method for generating non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles (VLPs)?
(a) IISc Bangalore
(b) Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV), Thiruvananthapuram
(c) IIT Delhi
(d) AIIMS
Ans. (b) Institute of Advanced Virology (IAV), Thiruvananthapuram - What is the primary use of Virus-like Particles (VLPs)?
(a) Diagnostic tools
(b) Vaccine development
(c) Therapeutic agents
(d) Gene therapy
Ans. (b) Vaccine development - What is the objective of China’s Chang’e-6 mission?
(a) Mars exploration
(b) Sample return from the far side of the moon
(c) Jupiter flyby
(d) Venus atmospheric study
Ans. (b) Sample return from the far side of the moon - Where did Chang’e-6 land on the moon?
(a) Mare Imbrium
(b) Sea of Tranquility
(c) South Pole-Aitken Basin
(d) Oceanus Procellarum
Ans. (c) South Pole-Aitken Basin - Recent scientific analysis has pushed back the origin of the Tamil-Brahmi script to which century BCE?
(a) 5th century BCE
(b) 6th century BCE
(c) 7th century BCE
(d) 8th century BCE
Ans. (c) 7th century BCE - What was the purpose of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946?
(a) To negotiate India’s independence
(b) To establish a British interim government
(c) To divide India into two separate nations
(d) To annex India as a British colony
Ans. (a) To negotiate India’s independence - Who led the First Interim National Government of India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Pandit Nehru
Ans. (d) Pandit Nehru - Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
(d) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
Ans. (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad - Which country’s constitution provided the concept of Fundamental Rights to the Indian Constitution?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Ans. (a) USA - Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Ans. (b) Part II - The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the constitution of which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Ireland
(d) Australia
Ans. (c) Ireland - Which Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 52nd Amendment Act
(d) 56th Amendment Act
Ans. (b) 44th Amendment Act - The concept of a single citizenship for the whole of India is taken from which country’s constitution?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans. (a) UK - Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Eighth Schedule
Ans. (c) Fourth Schedule - The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended by which Amendment Act to include the words “Socialist” and “Secular”?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 52nd Amendment Act
(d) 56th Amendment Act
Ans. (a) 42nd Amendment Act - Who is considered the father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar - Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Emergency Provisions?
(a) Part XVIII
(b) Part XIV
(c) Part XX
(d) Part XII
Ans. (a) Part XVIII - The concept of judicial review in India is borrowed from which country?
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Germany
Ans. (b) USA - Who appoints the Governor of a State in India?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
Ans. (a) President - The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Indian Constitution by which Amendment Act?
(a) 40th Amendment Act
(b) 42nd Amendment Act
(c) 44th Amendment Act
(d) 52nd Amendment Act
Ans. (b) 42nd Amendment Act - The provision for impeachment of the President of India is mentioned in which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 61
(b) Article 72
(c) Article 76
(d) Article 78
Ans. (a) Article 61 - Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Panchayats?
(a) Part IX
(b) Part IXA
(c) Part X
(d) Part XI
Ans. (a) Part IX - Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fifth Schedule
(d) Sixth Schedule
Ans. (c) Fifth Schedule - The concept of federalism in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Australia
(d) Canada
Ans. (a) USA - Who was the first Vice-President of India?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. (b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan - Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages of India?
(a) Part XV
(b) Part XVII
(c) Part XIX
(d) Part XX
Ans. (b) Part XVII - Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice President
Ans. (a) Chief Justice of India - The Election Commission of India is mentioned in which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 324
(b) Article 335
(c) Article 343
(d) Article 350
Ans. (a) Article 324 - The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right by which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 52nd Amendment Act
(d) 56th Amendment Act
Ans. (b) 44th Amendment Act - The concept of a parliamentary system of government in India is taken from which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Ans. (b) UK - Which Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution added Part IX dealing with the Panchayats?
(a) 73rd Amendment Act
(b) 74th Amendment Act
(c) 75th Amendment Act
(d) 76th Amendment Act
Ans. (a) 73rd Amendment Act - The powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats are included in which Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Ninth Schedule
(b) Tenth Schedule
(c) Eleventh Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Ans. (c) Eleventh Schedule - The right to education as a Fundamental Duty of parents was added to the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 92nd Amendment Act
Ans. (c) 86th Amendment Act - Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(d) K.M. Munshi
Ans. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Who was the first Chief Justice of India?
(a) Justice H.J. Kania
(b) Justice M. Patanjali Sastri
(c) Justice B.N. Rao
(d) Justice A.N. Ray
Ans. (a) Justice H.J. Kania - ଯେଉଁ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସାମାନ୍ୟ ରୂପରେ ପରିବର୍ଭନ ହୋଇ ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ଚଳୁଛି ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
(a) ତତ୍ସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (b) ତଭବ - ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦୀର୍ଘକାଳ ଧରି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ଚଳି | ଆସୁଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ତତ୍ସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (c) ଦେଶଜ - ଯେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଅନ୍ୟ ଭାଷାରୁ ଆସି ଆମ ଭାଷାରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଉଅଛି, ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ କଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ତତସମ
(b) ତଭବ
(c) ଦେଶଜ
(d) ବୈଦେଶିକ
Ans. (d) ବୈଦେଶିକ - କେଉଁଟି ବୈଦେଶିକ ବ୍ୟାପାଦିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ?
(a) ଟାଜୁନ
(b) ସହର
(c) ସିଟି
(d) ଟାଉନିଆ
Ans. (d) ଟାଉନିଆ - ଦୁଃପାଦିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ ।
(a) ବୀଣା
(b) ଦେଶର
(c) ବ୍ୟାକରଣ
(d) ପରୀକ୍ଷା
Ans. (c) ବ୍ୟାକରଣ - କ୍ରିୟାର ମୂଳପିଣ୍ଡକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) କ୍ରିୟା
(b) କାଳ
(c) ଧାତୁ
(d) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
Ans. (c) ଧାତୁ - ଧାତୁ ସହିତ କ’ଣ ଯୋଗକଲେ ଶବ୍ଦ ଗଠନ କରାଯାଏ ?
(a) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
(b) ଅନ୍ୟଧାତୁ
(c) ଅନ୍ୟଶବ୍ଦ
(d) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Ans. (a) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ - ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ସ୍ଥାନ ଧାତ୍ମର କେଉଁଠାରେ ରହେ ନାହିଁ ?
(a) ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ
(b) ଧାତୁର ପରେ
(c) ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଓ ପରେ ।
(d) ଧାତୁର ଉପରେ
Ans. (d) ଧାତୁର ଉପରେ - ଶବ୍ଦ କାହା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିବାରେ ସମର୍ଥ ହୁଏ ?
(a) କେବଳ ଧାତୁ ଯୋଗୁଁ
(b) କେବଳ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗୁଁ
(c) ଧାତୁ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଉଭୟ ଯୋଗୁ
(d) ନିଜ ଗୁଣ ଯୋଗୁଁ
Ans. (c) ଧାତୁ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଉଭୟ ଯୋଗୁ - ଧାତୁର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଯେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗ ହୁଏ, ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ପର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
(b) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ।
(c) ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
(d) ବିରକ୍ତି
Ans. (b) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ‘ନି’ ଉପସର୍ଗରୁ ଗଠିତ ଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ନିଶ୍ଚଳ
(b) ନିସ୍ତାର
(c) ନିଷ୍ପାପ
(d) ନିକ୍ଷେପ
Ans. (d) ନିକ୍ଷେପ - ‘ଦେଖିବା ‘ – ଉକ୍ତ କ୍ରିୟାର ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଧାତୁ ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ହେବ ସୂଚାଅ?
(a) ଦୃଷ୍ଟ
(b) ଦ୍ରଶ୍
(c) ଦେଖ୍
(d) ଦୃଶ୍
Ans. (d) ଦୃଶ୍ - ‘ଖ’ ଓ ‘ଘ’ ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁ ବ୍ୟଞ୍ଜନ ଅନ୍ତର୍ଭୁକ୍ତ?
(a) ମହାପ୍ରାଣ
(b) ଅଳ୍ପପ୍ରାଣ
(c) ସଘୋଷ
(d) ଅଘୋଷ
Ans. (a) ମହାପ୍ରାଣ - ‘ମିଶ୍ର’ – ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ଯୋଗେ ଗଠିତ?
(a) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
(b) ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା
(c) ପ୍ରଥମା
(d) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ
Ans. (c) ପ୍ରଥମା - ମାଟି କାନ୍ଥଟି ଭୁଶୁଡି ପଡିଛି | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କି ପ୍ରକାର ବିଶେଷଣ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କର ।
(a) ସର୍ବ ନାମିକ
(b) କ୍ରିୟା ବାଚକ
(c) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟରୂପୀ
(d) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ବାଚକ
Ans. (c) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟରୂପୀ - ଇଂରାଜୀ ଶବ୍ଦ ‘ଅଡ଼ରଲି’ ର ଓଡ଼ିଆ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ ହେବ?
(a) ଅଡ଼ର
(b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧଳି
(c) ଆଦରଲି
(d) ଓଡ଼ରଲି
Ans. (b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧଳି - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ କେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦ ‘ସମ୍’ ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗେ ଗଠିତ?
(a) ସୁତୀକ୍ଷ୍ଣ
(b) ସୁଦର୍ଶନ
(c) ସମ୍ଭାଷଣ
(d) ସୁସମ୍ବାଦ
Ans. (c) ସମ୍ଭାଷଣ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଭିନ୍ନ ଶବ୍ଦ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ?
(a) ଆସନ୍ନ
(b) ନିକଟ
(c) ଦୂର
(d) ସମୀପ
Ans. (c) ଦୂର - ‘ଓହ୍ଲାଇବା’ – ଏହି ଅମିଶ୍ର କ୍ରିୟାର ମିଶ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା କଣହେବ?
(a) ଅବତରଣ କରିବା
(b) ତଳକୁ ଯିବା
(c) ପଛକୁ ଫେରିବା
(d) ଓହ୍ଲାଇହେବା
Ans. (a) ଅବତରଣ କରିବା - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭିନ୍ନ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟାୟବାଚୀ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ?
(a) ମହେନ୍ଦ୍ର
(b) ମଦନ
(c) ମନ୍ମଥ
(d) ଅନଙ୍ଗ
Ans. (a) ମହେନ୍ଦ୍ର - ‘ତାଳୁରେ ତେନ୍ତୁଳିଆ ବିଛା କାମୁଡ଼ିବା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଦେହ ଖରାପ ହେବା
(b) ମୁଣ୍ଡ ବିନ୍ଧିବା
(c) ବିଛା କାମୁଡ଼ିବା
(d) ଘୋର ଚିନ୍ତାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ ହେବା
Ans. (d) ଘୋର ଚିନ୍ତାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ ହେବା - ‘ଦକ୍ଷଯଜ୍ଞ’ ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଗୁପ୍ତରେ ଅନିଷ୍ଟ କରିବା
(b) ତୁମୁଳ କାଣ୍ଡ
(c) ଯଜ୍ଞ କରିବା
(d) ପୂଜା କରିବା
Ans. (b) ତୁମୁଳ କାଣ୍ଡ - ‘ପୟୋଦ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଅଗ୍ନି
(b) ପବନ
(c) ଜଳ
(d) ମେଘ
Ans. (d) ମେଘ - ‘ କ୍ଷତ୍ରିୟ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ପ୍ରକୃତି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
(a) ରାଜବଂଶ
(b) ଯେ କ୍ଷତ ରୁ ତ୍ରାଣ କରେ
(c) ଯେ କ୍ଷେତରେ କାମକରେ
(d) ଏକ ଜାତି
Ans. (b) ଯେ କ୍ଷତ ରୁ ତ୍ରାଣ କରେ - ମଧୁଦାସ ଖାଇ ଖାଇ ସମ୍ପତ୍ତି ସାରିଦେଲେ | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ କେଉଁ ପଦରୂପେ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଇଛି?
(a) କ୍ରିୟା ବିଶେଷଣ
(b) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
(c) କ୍ରିୟା ବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
(d) ଅସମାପିକା କ୍ରିୟା
Ans. (d) ଅସମାପିକା କ୍ରିୟା - ମାନସ ବାବୁ ପିଲାପିଲିଙ୍କୁ ଧରି ଗାଁ କୁ ଗଲେ | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କି ପ୍ରକାର ଯୁଗ୍ମ ଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ବିପରୀତାର୍ଥକ
(b) ଧ୍ଵନ୍ୟାତ୍ମକ
(c) ସାର୍ଥକ ଓ ନିରର୍ଥକ
(d) ସମାନାର୍ଥକ
Ans. (c) ସାର୍ଥକ ଓ ନିରର୍ଥକ - ଓଡ଼ିଆ ବର୍ଷ ‘ ସ୍’ କେଉଁ ଧ୍ୱନି ଅନ୍ତର୍ଭୁକ୍ତ?
(a) ସଂଘର୍ଷୀ
(b) ପାର୍ଶ୍ଵିକ
(c) ଲୋଡିତ
(d) ନାସିକ୍ୟ
Ans. (a) ସଂଘର୍ଷୀ - ‘ଦିନ ଗଣିବା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ସୁଯୋଗ ମିଳିବା
(b) ଜାଣିଶୁଣି ବିଳମ୍ବ କରିବା
(c) ଦିନ ଗଣନା କରିବା
(d) ଆତୁରଭାବେ ପ୍ରତୀକ୍ଷା କରିବା
Ans. (d) ଆତୁରଭାବେ ପ୍ରତୀକ୍ଷା କରିବା - ତତ୍ ସମ ‘ଗୋଧୂମ’ ର ତଦ୍ ଭବ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ ହେବ?
(a) ଗଧ
(b) ଗୋଧୂଳି
(c) ଗୋଧନ
(d) ଗହମ
Ans. (d) ଗହମ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଶବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଭିନ୍ନଧର୍ମୀ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
(a) ଖୁବ୍
(b) ସେହି
(c) ଏ
(d) ଯେଉଁ
Ans. (a) ଖୁବ୍ - Which of the following statements is correct about British rule in India?
(a) The literacy rate was high during the British rule in India
(b) The infant mortality rate was high during the British rule in India
(c) The life expectancy rate was high during the British rule in India
(d) The female literacy rate was high during the British rule in India
Ans. b - What was the policy of British rulers in India for industrialisation?
(a) The British rulers wanted to make India an importer of both primary and finished goods
(b) The British rulers wanted to make India an exporter of both primary and finished goods
(c) The British rulers wanted to make India an importer of primary goods from Britain and an exporter of finished goods to Britain
(d) The British rulers wanted to make India an exporter of primary goods to Britain and an importer of finished goods from Britain
Ans. d - Which of the following statements is true about the occupational structure of the Indian economy during British rule?
(a) The occupational structure of the Indian economy during the British rule was stagnant
(b) The occupational structure of the Indian economy during the British rule was underdeveloped
(c) The occupational structure of the Indian economy during the British rule was both stagnant and underdeveloped
(d) The occupational structure of the Indian economy during British rule was developed
Ans. c - What was one of the major contributions of the Britishers to the Indian economy?
(a) The British rule in India saw the construction of several all-weather roads
(b) The British rule in India saw the introduction of the railway network
(c) The British rule in India saw the development of the inland trade and sea lanes
(d) All of the above
Ans. b - Which of the following was the main interest of the zamindar during the British rule in India?
(a) The main interest of the zamindar was to produce cash crops
(b) The main interest of the zamindar was to collect rent from the farmers
(c) The main interest of the zamindar was to improve the condition of the agricultural sector
(d) The main interest of the zamindar was to produce food crops
Ans. b - Which of the following statements is true about the industrial sector in the Indian economy during the British rule?
(a) India faced an acute shortage of goods that were made within the country
(b) The growth rate for the industrial sector in India was minimal
(c) India was reduced to being an exporter of raw materials
(d) There was a huge increase in cheap imports of goods in India which were manufactured in Britain
Ans. a - Which of the following statements reflects the condition of the agricultural sector in India during British rule?
(a) The agricultural sector experienced huge stagnation and deterioration because of the drain of India’s wealth
(b) The agricultural sector experienced huge stagnation and deterioration because of the land tenure system
(c) The agricultural sector experienced huge stagnation and deterioration because of the decline of handicrafts
(d) None of the above
Ans. b - Which of the following was the main reason for decline in the handicrafts sector during the British rule in India?
(a) New patterns of the demand for handicrafts
(b) The tariff policy followed by the British
(c) The competition in the sector due to man-made machines
(d) All of the above
Ans. d - Which of the following sectors was the major contributor to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) during the British rule in India?
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of the above
Ans. a - Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the Indian economy on the eve of independence?
(a) India was a net exporter of capital goods
(b) India was a net exporter of primary products
(c) India was a net exporter of industrial products
(d) India was a net exporter of agricultural goods
Ans. b - In which year were the details about the population in British India collected for the first time?
(a) 1881
(b) 1891
(c) 1871
(d) None of the above
Ans. c - Which of the following industries were operating in the Indian economy on the eve of its independence?
(a) Sugar, paper and cement industries
(b) Iron and steel industries
(c) Jute textile and cotton industries
(d) All of the above
Ans. d - Which of the following statements correctly reflects the demographic profile of India on the eve of its independence?
(a) India had an average life expectancy of 63 years
(b) Both the birth rate and death rate in India were very low
(c) The overall levels of literacy in India was even less than 16 percent
(d) The infant mortality rate in India was just around 70 per every thousand live births
Ans. c - Which of the following services was totally inadequate during British rule in India?
(a) Law and order, railways and ports
(b) Postal services
(c) Railways and ports
(d) None of the above
Ans. b - In which year was India’s first official census survey undertaken?
(a) 1881
(b) 1850
(c) 1891
(d) None of the above
Ans. a - When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is called _______.
A. Primary sector
B. Service sector
C. Public sector
D. Tertiary sector
Ans. A: Primary sector - Name one type of classification of the economy.
A. Urban Rural
B. Public/Private
C. State/National
D. Urban
Ans. B: Public/Private - Name one functioning activity of the Tertiary sector.
A. This sector gradually became associated with different kinds of industries.
B. Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing.
C. Produce a good by exploiting natural resources.
D. Goods that are produced would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops.
Ans. D: Goods that are produced would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. - Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the ______ to get the total production.
A. Final goods and services.
B. Adding up the actual numbers of goods.
C. Goods and services in the three sectors.
D. Values of goods and services in production.
Ans. A: Final goods and services - The task of measuring GDP is undertaken by the _______.
A. State government
B. Provincial government
C. All of the options are correct
D. Central government
Ans. D: Central government - Which of the following is NOT true about indirect tax?
(a) Wealth tax is direct tax.
(b) It is imposed by the central government but collected by the state government and handed over to central govt.
(c) In the budget of 2016-17, income tax collections was more than non tax revenue.
(d) In the budget of 2016-17, income tax collection was 14% of total revenue of the central government.
Ans. b - Which bank takes care of agriculture & rural finance?
(a) IDBI
(b) IFC
(c) RBI
(d) NABARD
Ans. d - What is CRR?
(a) The rate at which commercial banks borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India.
(b) The rate at which RBI borrows money from the commercial banks.
(c) It’s a rate at which RBI decides the sale and purchase of capital assets with foreign banks.
(d) It’s a proportion of cash that commercial banks have to deposit with the RBI.
Ans. d - Who imposes corporation tax in India?
(a) State govt.
(b) Central govt.
(c) State and central both
(d) Local govt.
Ans. b - Dunkel draft is related to ………
(a) Associated with Uruguay round
(b) Related to atomic treaty among nations
(c) Related to super 301
(d) Related to check drug trade
Ans. a - Who designed the symbol of Indian rupee?
(a) Rakesh Kumar
(b) Udit Raj
(c) D. Uday Kumar
(d) Dr. Raj Kumar
Ans. c - Who had given the concept of zero-based budgeting?
(a) Peter Drucker
(b) Peter Pyhrr
(c) Jagdish Bhagwati
(d) None of these
Ans. b - Who develops and updates Global Hunger Index?
(a) UNICEF
(b) WTO
(c) FAO
(d) International Food Policy Research Institute
Ans. d - ‘ECOMARK’ a symbol is related to ……
(a) Agricultural goods
(b) Manufacturing goods
(c) Goods of best quality
(d) Goods safe for environment
Ans. d - What kind of convertibility of currency is permitted in India?
(a) Capital account
(b) Current account
(c) Both a & b
(d) Partial in both a & b
Ans. c - The city in Odisha famous for its appliqué work is:
(a) Baripada
(b) Bargarh
(c) Puri
(d) Raghurajpur
Answer: (c) Puri - Which dance form, dedicated to Lord Krishna, originated in Odisha?
(a) Ranappa
(b) Kathak
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Manipuri
Answer: (a) Ranappa - Which national highway connects Kolkata with Chennai, passing through Odisha?
(a) NH-6
(b) NH-16
(c) NH-26
(d) NH-55
Answer: (b) NH-16 - The largest tribal group in Odisha is:
(a) Santhal
(b) Gond
(c) Kondh
(d) Bhil
Answer: (c) Kondh - Which district in Odisha is renowned for its silver filigree work?
(a) Nuapada
(b) Cuttack
(c) Sonepur
(d) Puri
Answer: (b) Cuttack - The “Black Pagoda,” a UNESCO World Heritage Site, refers to which temple in Odisha?
(a) Lingaraja Temple
(b) Jagannath Temple
(c) Mukteshvara Temple
(d) Konark Sun Temple
Answer: (d) Konark Sun Temple - Maharaja Shaktivarmana issued Ragolu Copper place and transferred his capital from Simhapura to which location?
(a) Amaravati
(b) Pishtapura
(c) Kalinga
(d) Dantapura
Ans: (b) Pishtapura - What were the different units of land under the Gajapati dynasty?
(a) Guntha
(b) Mana
(c) Bati
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - “Amils” in Maratha administration of Odisha were associated with which department?
(a) Investigation
(b) Civil cases
(c) Criminal cases
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - What was/were the main reasons for the Gumsar Rebellion?
(a) Suppression of Meriah
(b) Forceful collection of land revenue up to 50%
(c) Death of Dhananjay Bhanja
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - Who among the following planned to launch movements similar to the Civil Disobedience Movement of Mahatma Gandhi in Odisha?
(a) Gopabandhu Choudhury
(b) Surendranath Das
(c) Harekrushna Mahatab
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - The Brahmo movement was responsible for spreading which concept?
(a) Polytheism
(b) Monotheism
(c) Atheism
(d) Judaism
Ans: (b) Monotheism - Which Odishan leader attended the First Round Table Conference in 1930?
(a) Surendranath Das
(b) Surendranath Dutta
(c) Krushna Chandra Dev
(d) Gopabandhu Das
Ans: (c) Krushna Chandra Dev - The decision for the Individual Civil Disobedience Movement was taken in which session of INC?
(a) Ramgarh
(b) Nagpur
(c) Kolkata
(d) Belgaum
Ans: (a) Ramgarh - During the starting of which movement did Bal Gangadhar Tilak die?
(a) Non-cooperation movement
(b) Civil disobedience movement
(c) Quit India Movement
(d) Swadeshi Movement
Ans: (a) Non-cooperation movement - Which among the following is not a district of Odisha adjacent to the coastal area?
(a) Bhadrak
(b) Baleswar
(c) Jajpur
(d) Chatrapur
Ans: (c) Jajpur - Why was the Bhatrajore Dam in Junagadh, Kalahandi district, in the news?
(a) It was newly constructed
(b) It got clogged
(c) It was demolished
(d) It changed its course
Ans: (b) It got clogged - What are Kharif and Rabi crops?
(a) Seasonal crops
(b) Perennial crops
(c) Hybrid crops
(d) Genetic crops
Ans: (a) Seasonal crops - What project in Odisha’s Nayagarh district received final forest clearance from the Centre?
(a) Hirakud Project
(b) Brutang Irrigation Project
(c) Balimela Project
(d) Mahanadi Project
Ans: (b) Brutang Irrigation Project - What unique journey do the sibling deities of Lord Jagannath undertake during Rath Yatra from the Kankana Sikhari temple?
(a) Road procession
(b) Boat chariot
(c) Airlift
(d) Elephant ride
Ans: (b) Boat chariot - The Ratna Bhandar of Shree Jagannath Temple houses valuable jewels and ornaments belonging to which deities?
(a) Lord Shiva and Parvati
(b) Lord Vishnu and Lakshmi
(c) Lord Jagannath, Devi Subhadra, and Lord Balabhadra
(d) Lord Brahma and Saraswati
Ans: (c) Lord Jagannath, Devi Subhadra, and Lord Balabhadra - What did researchers at IIT Bhubaneswar develop to address urban flooding and the heat island effect?
(a) Solar panels
(b) Pervious concrete pavements
(c) Wind turbines
(d) Rainwater harvesting systems
Ans: (b) Pervious concrete pavements - The National Centre for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBD(c) administers a programme for the prevention and control of which diseases?
(a) Cardiovascular diseases
(b) Vector borne diseases
(c) Respiratory diseases
(d) Genetic diseases
Ans: (b) Vector borne diseases - Who was appointed as the new chief administrator of the Shree Jagannath Temple Administration (SJT(a)?
(a) Arabinda Kumar Padhee
(b) Veer Vikram Yadav
(c) Suresh Mohapatra
(d) Ashok Meena
Ans: (a) Arabinda Kumar Padhee - Which project aims to upgrade 800 schools in Odisha into PM SHRI Schools?
(a) PM GatiShakti
(b) PM Ayushman Bharat
(c) PM SHRI Scheme
(d) PM Ujjwala Yojana
Ans: (c) PM SHRI Scheme - Monsoon nesting season in Bhitarkanika National Park attracts which bird species?
(a) Flamingos
(b) Peacocks
(c) Open-billed stork, Little Cormorant, and others
(d) Sparrows
Ans: (c) Open-billed stork, Little Cormorant, and others - The Justice Biswanath Rath Committee proposed to open the Ratna Bhandar on which date?
(a) July 14
(b) August 15
(c) September 5
(d) October 2
Ans: (a) July 14 - The Sagarpali Van Suraksha Samiti received the prestigious Biju Patnaik Award for contributions to what?
(a) Agricultural development
(b) Forest protection
(c) Cultural preservation
(d) Industrial growth
Ans: (b) Forest protection - Centurion University of Technology and Management received the Outstanding Skill University Award at which event?
(a) World Education Summit
(b) Global Skills Conference
(c) National Academic Meet
(d) International Education Expo
Ans: (a) World Education Summit - Which session of the INC decided on the Individual Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) Ramgarh
(b) Nagpur
(c) Kolkata
(d) Belgaum
Ans: (a) Ramgarh - According to the Indian Constitution, under which Article must there be a separate High Court established in every state of India?
(a) Article 214
(b) Article 226
(c) Article 227
(d) Article 32
Ans. (a) Article 214 - Before the establishment of the Odisha High Court, which High Court had jurisdiction over Odisha along with Bihar in 1912?
(a) Bombay High Court
(b) Calcutta High Court
(c) Madras High Court
(d) Allahabad High Court
Ans. (b) Calcutta High Court - Under which section of the Government of India Act, 1915, was Odisha placed under the jurisdiction of the Patna High Court?
(a) Section 213
(b) Section 214
(c) Section 113
(d) Section 229
Ans. (c) Section 113 - On which date did the Patna High Court hold its first sitting at Cuttack?
(a) 1st April, 1936
(b) 26th July, 1948
(c) 9th February, 1916
(d) 18th May, 1916
Ans. (d) 18th May, 1916 - When was Odisha made a separate province?
(a) 1st April, 1936
(b) 26th July, 1948
(c) 9th February, 1916
(d) 18th May, 1916
Ans. (a) 1st April, 1936 - On what date was the Odisha High Court formally inaugurated?
(a) 1st April, 1936
(b) 26th July, 1948
(c) 9th February, 1916
(d) 18th May, 1916
Ans. (b) 26th July, 1948 - Under which Article of the Constitution does the High Court have the power to issue writs for the restoration of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Article 214
(b) Article 226
(c) Article 227
(d) Article 32
Ans. (b) Article 226 - What type of jurisdiction allows High Courts to hear matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial, and contempt of court cases?
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Supervisory Jurisdiction
(d) Federal Jurisdiction
Ans. (b) Original Jurisdiction - Under which Article does the High Court have the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals except those dealing with armed forces?
(a) Article 214
(b) Article 226
(c) Article 227
(d) Article 32
Ans. (c) Article 227 - If the High Court withdraws a case from a subordinate court that involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution, what can it do?
(a) Only dispose of the case
(b) Only return the case to the subordinate court without any judgement
(c) Dispose of the case or determine the question of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement
(d) Transfer the case to the Supreme Court
Ans. (c) Dispose of the case or determine the question of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement - Which Constitutional Amendment mandates the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions as per the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1958?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 86th Amendment
(d) 91st Amendment
Ans. (b) 73rd Amendment - In which year was the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) established in Odisha?
(a) 1958
(b) 1961
(c) 1994
(d) 1997
Ans. (b) 1961 - What are the three tiers of Panchayati Raj Institutions in Odisha?
(a) District Council, Block Committee, Village Council
(b) Zila Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat
(c) State Council, Block Council, Village Assembly
(d) District Assembly, Taluk Panchayat, Village Panchayat
Ans. (b) Zila Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat - Which state was the first to conduct elections according to the Provisions of Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) of 1996?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Gujarat
Ans. (c) Odisha - What unique feature is mandated in the Panchayati Raj System in Odisha regarding the roles of Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson?
(a) Both must be from the same party
(b) Both must belong to SC/ST community
(c) Either the Chairperson or the Vice-Chairperson must be a woman
(d) Both must have prior experience in government service
Ans. (c) Either the Chairperson or the Vice-Chairperson must be a woman - In what year did the Odisha Assembly pass the bills providing 33% reservation for women, including SC and ST women, in Panchayats?
(a) 1991
(b) 1994
(c) 1997
(d) 2011
Ans. (a) 1991 - To what percentage was the quota for women in Panchayats increased by the Odisha Panchayat Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2011?
(a) 33%
(b) 40%
(c) 45%
(d) 50%
Ans. (d) 50% - How many Zila Parishads are there in Odisha?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
Ans. (c) 30 - Who is the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of the Panchayat Samiti?
(a) Sarpanch
(b) Chairperson
(c) Block Development Officer (BDO)
(d) District Collector
Ans. (c) Block Development Officer (BDO) - How many Gram Panchayats are there in Odisha according to the Panchayati Raj & Drinking Water Department?
(a) 5000
(b) 6000
(c) 6798
(d) 7000
Ans. (c) 6798 - When was the Odisha State Vigilance created?
(a) 1944
(b) 1950
(c) 1957
(d) 1961
Ans: (a) 1944 - Under which department does the Odisha State Vigilance function?
(a) Finance Department
(b) General Administration Department
(c) Public Service Commission
(d) State Election Commission
Ans: (b) General Administration Department - When was the Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) constituted?
(a) 1944
(b) 1949
(c) 1957
(d) 1961
Ans: (b) 1949 - How many members were there in the Odisha Public Service Commission at the time of its creation?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Ans: (b) Three - When did the State Election Commission of Odisha come into existence?
(a) 1987
(b) 1994
(c) 1997
(d) 2000
Ans: (b) 1994 - In which year was the first General Election to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) held after the constitution of the State Election Commission?
(a) 1987
(b) 1994
(c) 1997
(d) 2000
Ans: (c) 1997 - When did the Odisha Human Rights Commission become formally operational?
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2003
Ans: (d) 2003 - Who was the first chairperson of the Odisha Human Rights Commission?
(a) Justice DP Mohapatra
(b) Justice BN Patnaik
(c) Justice AK Sinha
(d) Justice SK Das
Ans: (a) Justice DP Mohapatra - Where are the headquarters of the Odisha Human Rights Commission situated?
(a) Cuttack
(b) Sambalpur
(c) Bhubaneswar
(d) Berhampur
Ans: (c) Bhubaneswar - Which department is responsible for the management of finances of the State Government of Odisha?
(a) State Vigilance Directorate
(b) Odisha Public Service Commission
(c) Finance Department
(d) State Election Commission
Ans: (c) Finance Department - The World Braille Day is observed on:
(a) 1st January
(b) 2nd January
(c) 3rd January
(d) 4th January
Ans: (d) 4th January - Which city is the most populous in India?
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Ans: (b) Mumbai - The tallest waterfall in India is:
(a) Jog Falls
(b) Dudhsagar Falls
(c) Kunchikal Falls
(d) Nohkalikai Falls
Ans: (c) Kunchikal Falls - The World Water Day is observed on:
(a) 20th March
(b) 21st March
(c) 22nd March
(d) 23rd March
Ans: (c) 22nd March - The right bank tributaries of the Ganga include:
(a) Yamuna, Son, Ghaghra
(b) Yamuna, Son, Ramganga
(c) Yamuna, Son, Chambal
(d) Yamuna, Son, Gandak
Ans: (c) Yamuna, Son, Chambal - The left bank tributaries of the Ganga include:
(a) Ghaghra, Gandak, Kosi
(b) Yamuna, Ramganga, Ghaghra
(c) Ghaghra, Gandak, Chambal
(d) Yamuna, Gandak, Kosi
Ans: (a) Ghaghra, Gandak, Kosi - The longest tributary of the Ganga is:
(a) Yamuna
(b) Son
(c) Ghaghra
(d) Kosi
Ans: (a) Yamuna - The Gandak River originates from:
(a) Yamunotri Glacier
(b) Dhaulagiri
(c) Mapchachungo Glacier
(d) Milan Glacier
Ans: (b) Dhaulagiri - The Nambor Wildlife Sanctuary is located in:
(a) Bihar
(b) Assam
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Goa
Ans: (b) Assam - The Valmiki Wildlife Sanctuary is in:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Bihar
(c) Haryana
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (b) Bihar - The Bhairamgarh Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in:
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Goa
(c) Gujarat
(d) Haryana
Ans: (a) Chhattisgarh - The Indian Constitution was influenced by which country’s Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) Canada
(d) France
Ans: (b) Ireland - The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from:
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (b) USA - The emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution are derived from:
(a) Germany
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Russia
Ans: (a) Germany - The Preamble of the Indian Constitution includes the ideals of:
(a) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
(b) Justice, Liberty, Equality
(c) Sovereignty, Socialism, Secularism
(d) Democracy, Republic, Unity
Ans: (a) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity - The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (a) USA - The headquarters of the United Nations Organisation is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Paris, France
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (b) New York, USA - The headquarters of the World Health Organisation (WHO) is located in:
(a) Washington DC, United States
(b) New York, USA
(c) Geneva, Switzerland
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (c) Geneva, Switzerland - Nanda Lake, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Assam
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Gujarat
Ans: (b) Goa - Which country rejected joining the BRICS group in 2024?
(a) Argentina
(b) Sweden
(c) Iran
(d) UAE
Ans: (a) Argentina - Nakti Bird Sanctuary, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Bihar
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (a) Bihar - The headquarters of the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) London, United Kingdom
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (c) London, United Kingdom - Thol Lake, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (a) Gujarat - The State of Palestine became the 194th member of the UN on:
(a) May 10, 2024
(b) June 10, 2024
(c) July 10, 2024
(d) August 10, 2024
Ans: (a) May 10, 2024 - The headquarters of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is located in:
(a) Jakarta, Indonesia
(b) Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
(c) Bangkok, Thailand
(d) Hanoi, Vietnam
Ans: (a) Jakarta, Indonesia - Which organization has its headquarters in Gland, Switzerland?
(a) World Health Organisation (WHO)
(b) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(c) Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF)
(d) United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
Ans: (c) Worldwide Fund for Nature (WWF) - Which organ is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
(a) Liver
(b) Heart
(c) Kidneys
(d) Lungs
Ans: (b) Heart - What is the longest bone in the human body?
(a) Femur
(b) Radius
(c) Tibia
(d) Humerus
Ans:(a) Femur - Which of the following is not a part of the human digestive system?
(a) Stomach
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Small Intestine
Ans: (c) Kidney - What is the primary function of the respiratory system?
(a) Pump blood
(b) Filter waste
(c) Exchange gases
(d) Digest food
Ans: (c) Exchange gases - The famous Lagoon Lake of India is:
(a) Dal Lake
(b) Chilka Lake
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Mansarover
Ans. (b) - Which of the following passes lies in the Sutlej valley?
(a) Nathu La
(b) Jelep La
(c) Shipki La
(d) Sherabathanga
Ans. (c) - Where is Panzseer valley situated?
(a) Lebanon
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Jammu and Kashmir, India
(d) Syria
Ans. (b) - Which of the following cities lies to the western-most longitude?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Nagpur
(c) Bhopal
(d) Hyderabad
Ans. (a) - Duncan Passage is located between
(a) South and Little Andaman
(b) North and South Andaman
(c) North and Middle Andaman
(d) Andaman and Nicobar
Ans. (a) - Which of the following mountain ranges in India are the oldest?
(a) Himalayas
(b) Vindhyas
(c) Aravalli
(d) Sahyadri
Ans. (c) - Where are the Saltora Ranges located?
(a) Ladakh
(b) Along the Vindhyas
(c) Part of the Karakoram Ranges
(d) Part of the Western Ghats
Ans. (c) - Which of the following processes is responsible for producing the sand dunes in western Rajasthan?
(a) Wind erosion
(b) Erosion by water
(c) Wind deposition
(d) Mechanical weathering
Ans. (c) - The standard time of a country differs from the GMT in multiples of—
(a) Two hours
(b) One hour
(c) Half hour
(d) Four minutes
Ans. (c) - The Indian Sub-continent was originally a part of
(a) Jurassic-land
(b) Angara-land
(c) Arya-varta
(d) Gondwana-land
Ans. (d) - Which one of the following mountain ranges lies in India?
(a) Arakan Yoma
(b) Sulainian
(c) Salt Range
(d) Pir Panjal
Answer: (d) - Nathu La, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: (a) - In terms of area, India is the _____ largest country of the world.
(a) second
(b) fourth
(c) sixth
(d) seventh
Answer: (d) - India has a coastline of
(a) 5500 kms
(b) 6500 kms
(c) 7500 kms
(d) 8400 kms
Answer: (c) - Which of the following cities/ towns lies to the northern-most latitude?
(a) Patna
(b) Allahabad
(c) Pachmarhi
(d) Ahmedabad
Answer: (a) - The Andaman group and Nicobar group of islands are separated from each other by
(a) Ten Degree Channel
(b) Great Channel
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Andaman Sea
Answer: (a) - In which state is the Maikala range situated?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhatisgarh
Answer: (d) - Nallamala hills are located in the state of
(a) Orissa
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
Answer: (c) - The highest Indian water fall is
(a) Gokak
(b) Gersoppa
(c) Shivasamudram
(d) Yenna
Answer: (b) - Indian Standard Time relates to
(a) 75.5° E longitude
(b) 82.5° E longitude
(c) 90.5° E longitude
(d) 0° longitude
Answer: (b) - Which one of the following is the second highest peak of the world?
(a) Dhaulagiri
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) K2
(d) Nanda Devi
Answer: (c) - Badland topography is characteristic of which region?
(a) Chambal valley
(b) Coastal area
(c) Sundarban delta
(d) Gulf of Kachchh
Answer: (a) - ‘Loktak’ is a
(a) Valley
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) Mountain Range
Answer: (b) - The pass located in Himachal Pradesh is
(a) Shipkila
(b) Zojila
(c) Nathula
(d) Jelepla
Answer: (a) - The Thar Express goes to
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
Answer: (c) - Which one of the following is a coastal district in Kerala?
(a) Palghat
(b) Wayanad
(c) Kovallam
(d) Idukki
Answer: (c) - The southern tip of India is
(a) Cape Comorin
(b) Point Calimere
(c) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
(d) Kovalam in Trivandrum
Answer: (c) - The important fishing harbour in India is
(a) Kolkata
(b) Cohin
(c) Paradeep
(d) Mumbai
Answer: (b) - Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in
(a) Baluchistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Kashmir
Answer: (b) - Which one of the following factors is the main reason for the peninsular rivers to flow towards the east?
(a) Western part is rainy
(b) Western Ghats act as major water-divide
(c) Rivers follow rift valleys
(d) Eastern Ghats are lower than the Western Ghats
Answer: (d) - The longest bone present in the human body is:
(a) Humerus
(b) Tibia
(c) Femur
(d) Radius
Ans: (c) Femur - The longest muscle present in the human body is:
(a) Biceps brachii
(b) Triceps brachii
(c) Sartorius
(d) Rectus femoris
Ans: (c) Sartorius - The smallest organ in the human body is:
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Pineal gland
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Adrenal gland
Ans: (b) Pineal gland - Which of the following elements is essential for the synthesis of proteins in plants?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Potassium
(d) Magnesium
Ans: (a) Nitrogen - What is the main constituent of biogas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane
Ans: (a) Methane - Which vitamin is synthesized in the human body when exposed to sunlight?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Ans: (d) Vitamin D - What is the chemical formula for table salt?
(a) NaCl
(b) KCl
(c) CaCl2
(d) Na2CO3
Ans: (a) NaCl - Which part of the human brain is responsible for regulating balance and coordination?
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Medulla
(d) Pons
Ans: (b) Cerebellum - The study of tissues is known as:
(a) Cytology
(b) Histology
(c) Mycology
(d) Pathology
Ans: (b) Histology - Which gas is released during the process of photosynthesis?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
Ans: (b) Oxygen - What is the pH value of pure water?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Ans: (c) 7 - Which is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Argon
Ans: (b) Nitrogen - What is the primary function of red blood cells?
(a) To fight infections
(b) To transport oxygen
(c) To clot blood
(d) To regulate body temperature
Ans: (b) To transport oxygen - Which element is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Graphite
(d) Plutonium
Ans: (c) Graphite - Which planet is known as the “Red Planet”?
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Ans: (b) Mars - The hardness of minerals is measured by which scale?
(a) Richter scale
(b) Mohs scale
(c) Beaufort scale
(d) Decibel scale
Ans: (b) Mohs scale - Which vitamin is also known as ascorbic acid?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
Ans: (c) Vitamin C - What is the process of cell division in somatic cells called?
(a) Meiosis
(b) Mitosis
(c) Cytokinesis
(d) Apoptosis
Ans: (b) Mitosis - Which acid is found in the stomach?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Sulfuric acid
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Nitric acid
Ans: (a) Hydrochloric acid - What is the main function of chlorophyll in plants?
(a) Absorb water
(b) Absorb sunlight
(c) Absorb nutrients
(d) Absorb carbon dioxide
Ans: (b) Absorb sunlight - Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?
(a) Veins
(b) Arteries
(c) Capillaries
(d) Venules
Ans: (b) Arteries - What is the chemical name for baking soda?
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
(c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) Sodium chloride
Ans: (b) Sodium bicarbonate - What is the normal body temperature of a human being in Celsius?
(a) 36°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 38°C
(d) 39°C
Ans: (b) 37°C - Which part of the cell is responsible for generating energy?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Ribosome
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans: (c) Mitochondria - Which disease is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin B1?
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Beriberi
(d) Pellagra
Ans: (c) Beriberi - Which organ in the human body produces insulin?
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Kidney
(d) Stomach
Ans: (b) Pancreas - Which planet is closest to the sun?
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Mercury
(d) Jupiter
Ans: (c) Mercury - Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Coal
(d) Hydroelectric energy
Ans: (c) Coal - What is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Silicon
(c) Aluminum
(d) Iron
Ans: (a) Oxygen - Which metal is the best conductor of electricity?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminum
Ans: (b) Silver - Which gas is commonly known as laughing gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Nitrous oxide
(d) Sulfur dioxide
Ans: (c) Nitrous oxide - Which of the following names was used for Odisha during the Gupta period?
(a) Kalinga
(b) Utkala
(c) Mahakantara
(d) Odra
Answer: (c) Mahakantara - The name “Odra” was given after which tribe?
(a) Odra
(b) Kalinga
(c) Utkala
(d) Kongoda
Answer: (a) Odra - According to the Ramayana, who ruled South Kosala?
(a) King Bali
(b) Rama’s son Kush
(c) Karna
(d) Ashoka
Answer: (b) Rama’s son Kush - What does the name “Kamala Mandala” mean?
(a) Three Kalingas
(b) Lotus regions
(c) Coastal region
(d) Sacred river
Answer: (b) Lotus regions - The city of Tosali, mentioned during the Asoka period, is located in which modern-day area?
(a) Dhauli
(b) Jeypore
(c) Ganjam
(d) Kalahandi
Answer: (a) Dhauli - Which of the following literary sources is NOT mentioned as a source of Odishan history?
(a) The Mahabharata
(b) Arthashastra
(c) Ramayana
(d) Arthashastra
Answer: (d) Arthashastra - Which Greek historian provided valuable information about the people of Kalinga?
(a) Pliny
(b) Megasthenes
(c) Ptolemy
(d) Curtius
Answer: (b) Megasthenes - What was the significance of the Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves near Bhubaneswar?
(a) They were Buddhist stupas.
(b) They were Jain residential blocks.
(c) They were royal palaces.
(d) They were Hindu temples.
Answer: (b) They were Jain residential blocks. - The “Diamond Triangle” of Odisha archaeology consists of which sites?
(a) Ratnagiri, Udayagiri, Lalitgiri
(b) Dhauli, Jaugada, Talcher
(c) Angul, Talcher, Bursapalli
(d) Ganjam, Jeypore, Kalahandi
Answer: (a) Ratnagiri, Udayagiri, Lalitgiri - What does the term “Oddiyana” refer to in Buddhist texts?
(a) A coastal region
(b) A Buddhist monastery
(c) A historical name for Odisha
(d) A sacred river
Answer: (c) A historical name for Odisha - Who was the founder of the Ganga dynasty?
(a) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V
(b) Kamarnava
(c) Narasimhadeva I
(d) Rajaraja II
Answer: (b) Kamarnava - Which ruler of the Ganga dynasty is credited with having ruled over the region extending from the Ganga to the Godavari?
(a) Anangabhimadeva III
(b) Rajaraja II
(c) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V
(d) Narasimhadeva I
Answer: (c) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V - During whose reign was the famous Sun Temple at Konark constructed?
(a) Anangabhimadeva III
(b) Narasimhadeva I
(c) Rajaraja II
(d) Chodagangadeva
Answer: (b) Narasimhadeva I - The Jagannath Temple was built by which Ganga ruler?
(a) Narasimhadeva I
(b) Rajaraja II
(c) Anangabhimadeva III
(d) Bhanudeva IV
Answer: (c) Anangabhimadeva III - Which style of temple architecture was prominent during the Ganga dynasty?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Vesara
(c) Nagara
(d) Kalinga
Answer: (c) Nagara - The Gajapati dynasty was founded by which ruler?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Purushottam Deva
(c) Prataparudra Deva
(d) Kakharua Deva
Answer: (a) Kapilendra Deva - In which year did Krishnadevaraya attack Udayagiri fort?
(a) 1522 AD
(b) 1497 AD
(c) 1512 AD
(d) 1434 AD
Answer: (c) 1512 AD - Who was the last ruler of the Gajapati dynasty?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Prataparudra Deva
(c) Kakharua Deva
(d) Purushottam Deva
Answer: (c) Kakharua Deva - During which Gajapati ruler’s reign did the famous Vaishnav saint Sri Chaitanya visit Odisha?
(a) Kapilendra Deva
(b) Purushottam Deva
(c) Prataparudra Deva
(d) Kakharua Deva
Answer: (c) Prataparudra Deva - What was the administrative unit known as ‘Visaya’ under the Ganga dynasty?
(a) A province
(b) A village
(c) A tax category
(d) A military unit
Answer: (a) A province - Who were the first Europeans to enter Odisha?
a) British
b) Dutch
c) Portuguese
d) French
Ans: c) Portuguese - In which year did the Portuguese establish their settlements at Pipli in Balasore district?
a) 1605 AD
b) 1625 AD
c) 1650 AD
d) 1680 AD
Ans: b) 1625 AD - What significant event in 1765 affected British control over Odisha?
a) Battle of Plassey
b) Battle of Buxar
c) Treaty of Deogarh
d) Battle of Laswari
Ans: b) Battle of Buxar - Which territories did the East India Company acquire from Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II after the Battle of Buxar?
a) Bengal and Bihar
b) Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha
c) Bihar and Assam
d) Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, and Punjab
Ans: b) Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha - When did the British first capture Puri?
a) 14th October, 1803
b) 18th September, 1803
c) 22nd September, 1803
d) 17th December, 1803
Ans: b) 18th September, 1803 - Which British officer captured Cuttack in October 1803?
a) Colonel Harcourt
b) Captain Morgan
c) Major Broughton
d) General Robert Clive
Ans: a) Colonel Harcourt - The Treaty of Deogarh in December 1803 resulted in the surrender of which territories to the East India Company?
a) Balasore and Ganjam
b) Cuttack and Balasore
c) Cuttack and Ganjam
d) Ganjam and Sambalpur
Ans: b) Cuttack and Balasore - Who was the British officer responsible for the conquest of Sambalpur in January 1804?
a) Colonel Harcourt
b) Major Broughton
c) Captain Morgan
d) Lord Wellesley
Ans: b) Major Broughton - Under British administration, how was Odisha divided administratively?
a) Bengal Presidency and Madras Presidency
b) Central Provinces and Bengal Presidency
c) Bengal Presidency, Madras Presidency, and Central Provinces
d) Madras Presidency and Central Provinces
Ans: c) Bengal Presidency, Madras Presidency, and Central Provinces - What were the types of land settlements implemented under British rule in Odisha?
a) Zamindari, Ryotwari, Mahalwari
b) Revenue, Zamindari, Tenancy
c) Ryotwari, Mahalwari, Tenancy
d) Mahalwari, Revenue, Tenancy
Ans: a) Zamindari, Ryotwari, Mahalwari - Which new species of flower flies were discovered in Kerala by the Shadpada Entomology Research Lab?
(a) Mesembrius bengalensis and M. quadrivittatus
(b) Mesembrius keraliensis and M. aethiopicus
(c) Mesembrius indicus and M. bengalensis
(d) Mesembrius westensis and M. quadrivittatus
Ans. (a) Mesembrius bengalensis and M. quadrivittatus - What significant change did Wolbachia bacteria cause in the wasp Encarsia formosa?
(a) Increased male population
(b) Reproductive system alteration leading to only female offspring
(c) Enhanced resistance to pesticides
(d) Altered feeding habits
Ans. (b) Reproductive system alteration leading to only female offspring - Which lizard species has been reclassified as threatened according to the IUCN Red List update?
(a) Mediterranean Lizard
(b) Ibiza Wall Lizard
(c) Green Iguana
(d) Komodo Dragon
Ans. (b) Ibiza Wall Lizard - Where was the new species of horned frog, Xenophrys apatani, discovered?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Andaman Islands
Ans. (c) Arunachal Pradesh - What is the main vulnerability of West Antarctica according to recent studies?
(a) Increasing ice thickness
(b) Rising temperatures and ice sheet melting
(c) Decreasing sea levels
(d) Enhanced ice formation
Ans. (b) Rising temperatures and ice sheet melting - Which fatal brain-eating amoeba infection was reported in Kerala recently?
(a) Naegleria fowleri
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Acanthamoeba castellanii
(d) Balamuthia mandrillaris
Ans. (a) Naegleria fowleri - Where was South India’s first leopard safari opened?
(a) Bannerghatta Biological Park, Bengaluru
(b) Bandipur National Park, Karnataka
(c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kerala
(d) Nagarhole National Park, Karnataka
Ans. (a) Bannerghatta Biological Park, Bengaluru - Which two new plant species were recently discovered in India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
Ans. (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Arunachal Pradesh - What recent update did the IUCN make about the Iberian Lynx?
(a) Status changed from Vulnerable to Endangered
(b) Status upgraded to Endangered
(c) Status upgraded to Vulnerable
(d) Status remained as Critically Endangered
Ans. (c) Status upgraded to Vulnerable - Where were the world’s oldest termite mounds discovered?
(a) Namaqualand, South Africa
(b) Amazon Rainforest, Brazil
(c) Kalahari Desert, Botswana
(d) Sahara Desert, Egypt
Ans. (a) Namaqualand, South Africa - What type of infection has caused a surge in Japan, with health officials on high alert?
(a) Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (STSS)
(b) Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
(c) Avian Influenza
(d) Tuberculosis
Ans. (a) Streptococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome (STSS) - Which new species of snake eel was discovered in Odisha?
(a) Ophichthus gomesii
(b) Muraenesox cinereus
(c) Myrichthys tigrinus
(d) Uropterygius vitta
Ans. (a) Ophichthus gomesii - Who conducted the study showing the impact of Wolbachia bacteria on wasps?
(a) Shenyang Agricultural University (SAU)
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Harvard University
(d) University of Tokyo
Ans. (a) Shenyang Agricultural University (SAU) - Which region in India is known for having the recently discovered Xenophrys apatani?
(a) North-East
(b) South-West
(c) Central
(d) North-West
Ans. (a) North-East - What environmental issue has been highlighted by the vulnerability of West Antarctica?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Ocean acidification
(c) Ice sheet melting
(d) Desertification
Ans. (c) Ice sheet melting - Who coined the term “ecology”?
(a) Ernst Haeckel
(b) Nernst Kelvin
(c) Lord Kelvin
(d) Nicola Tesla
Ans. (a) Ernst Haeckel - Which species uses ‘Diptericin B’ peptide?
(a) Snake
(b) Fly
(c) Mosquito
(d) Bat
Ans. (b) Fly - Ludwigia peruviana, an exotic aquatic weed, has been found in which Indian state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c) Tamil Nadu - The ‘Azure-thighed tree frog’ was discovered in which country?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) New Guinea
Ans. (d) New Guinea - The ‘Vaquita porpoise’ is endemic to which region?
(a) Mexico
(b) Australia
(c) South Asia
(d) West Africa
Ans. (a) Mexico - By what percent has India reduced its greenhouse emissions in the last 14 years?
(a) 3 per cent
(b) 15 per cent
(c) 33 per cent
(d) 49 per cent
Ans. (c) 33 per cent - Where was the Amazon Summit 2023 held?
(a) Brazil
(b) Chile
(c) Argentina
(d) Mexico
Ans. (a) Brazil - The 247-million-year-old ‘Arenaepeton supinatus’ was discovered in which country?
(a) India
(b) Greece
(c) China
(d) Australia
Ans. (d) Australia - Redwood National and State Parks are located in which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Australia
(d) New Zealand
Ans. (a) USA - The fossil of ‘Fujianvenator’ was found in which country?
(a) Greece
(b) China
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Ans. (b) China - What is the Boma technique commonly used for in wildlife conservation?
(a) Capturing and relocating wild animals
(b) A software tool for tracking animal populations
(c) A traditional African method for hunting
(d) Monitoring bird migrations
Ans. (a) Capturing and relocating wild animals - How has Wolbachia bacteria affected the wasp Encarsia formosa?
(a) Created groups of only females
(b) Created groups of only males
(c) Increased reproductive rate
(d) Decreased reproductive rate
Ans. (a) Created groups of only females - What is the primary reason for the Ibiza wall lizard being reclassified as threatened?
(a) Climate change
(b) Invasive species
(c) Deforestation
(d) Pollution
Ans. (b) Invasive species - Xenophrys apatani, a new species of horned frog, was discovered in which Indian state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (d) Arunachal Pradesh - Which region in Antarctica is highly vulnerable to warming?
(a) East Antarctica
(b) West Antarctica
(c) North Antarctica
(d) South Antarctica
Ans. (b) West Antarctica - Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
(a) Ganges
(b) Kosi
(c) Yamuna
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (b) Kosi - Which river is the longest river in India?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Ganges
(c) Godavari
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (b) Ganges - Which river is known as the ‘Dakshina Ganga’ or the ‘Ganges of the South’?
(a) Krishna
(b) Godavari
(c) Kaveri
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (b) Godavari - Which river is the main water source for the city of Kolkata?
(a) Ganges
(b) Hooghly
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Yamuna
Ans: (b) Hooghly - Which river flows through the Thar Desert in India?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Beas
(c) Luni
(d) Narmada
Ans: (c) Luni - Which river forms the largest delta in the world?
(a) Ganges-Brahmaputra
(b) Godavari
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Ganges-Brahmaputra - Which river is associated with the Hirakud Dam?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Tapti
Ans: (c) Mahanadi - Which river is called the ‘lifeline of Madhya Pradesh’?
(a) Chambal
(b) Tapti
(c) Narmada
(d) Betwa
Ans: (c) Narmada - Which river originates from the Amarkantak Plateau?
(a) Ganges
(b) Narmada
(c) Yamuna
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (b) Narmada - Which river’s basin is shared by the maximum number of Indian states?
(a) Ganges
(b) Godavari
(c) Krishna
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (a) Ganges - Which river flows through the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Ravi
(c) Sutlej
(d) Beas
Ans: (a) Jhelum - Which river is famous for the annual flooding in Assam?
(a) Ganges
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Yamuna
(d) Godavari
Ans: (b) Brahmaputra - Which of the following rivers does not originate in India?
(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Ganges
(c) Yamuna
(d) Godavari
Ans: (a) Brahmaputra - Which river is known as the ‘River of Bengal’?
(a) Hooghly
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Hooghly - Which river flows through the city of Agra?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Chambal
(d) Betwa
Ans: (b) Yamuna - Which river is associated with the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kaveri
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (b) Krishna - Which river is known for the city of Varanasi located on its banks?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Godavari
(d) Kaveri
Ans: (a) Ganges - Which river is known as the ‘Dead River’ because it has no tributaries?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Luni
(c) Mahi
(d) Tapti
Ans: (b) Luni - Which river is the main tributary of the Ganges?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Kosi
(c) Son
(d) Gandak
Ans: (a) Yamuna - Which river originates from the Mansarovar Lake in Tibet?
(a) Ganges
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Indus
(d) Sutlej
Ans: (c) Indus - Which river is associated with the Sardar Sarovar Dam?
(a) Narmada
(b) Tapti
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Narmada - Which river flows through the Sundarbans delta?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Ganges
(d) Brahmaputra
Ans: (c) Ganges - Which river is the major water source for the state of Rajasthan?
(a) Ganges
(b) Chambal
(c) Luni
(d) Yamuna
Ans: (b) Chambal - Which river is known for the city of Hyderabad located on its banks?
(a) Ganges
(b) Musi
(c) Godavari
(d) Krishna
Ans: (b) Musi - Which river is the primary water source for the state of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Godavari
(b) Krishna
(c) Kaveri
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (c) Kaveri - Which river is associated with the Bhakra Nangal Dam?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Beas
(c) Ravi
(d) Chenab
Ans: (a) Sutlej - Which river is the main tributary of the Indus?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Sutlej
(d) Ravi
Ans: (c) Sutlej - Which river is associated with the Tehri Dam?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Alaknanda
Ans: (c) Bhagirathi - Which river is the primary water source for the state of Kerala?
(a) Periyar
(b) Bharathapuzha
(c) Pamba
(d) Chalakudy
Ans: (a) Periyar - Which river flows through the city of Patna?
(a) Ganges
(b) Yamuna
(c) Kosi
(d) Gandak
Ans: (a) Ganges - Which districts in Odisha are known for prehistoric painted rock shelters?
(a) Jharsuguda and Sundargarh
(b) Kalahandi and Nuapada
(c) Keonjhar and Khandagiri
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d) All of the above - What do the rock paintings in Odisha typically depict?
(a) Abstract art
(b) Hunting, dancing, and domestic activities
(c) Mythological stories
(d) Geometric shapes only
Ans. (b) Hunting, dancing, and domestic activities - Which colors are commonly used in the rock paintings of Odisha?
(a) Blue, green, yellow
(b) Red, white, brown
(c) Black, white, yellow
(d) Pink, purple, grey
Ans. (b) Red, white, brown - The characters in the rock paintings of Odisha resemble which scripts?
(a) Devanagari and Tamil
(b) Greek and Latin
(c) Mohenjodaro and Brahmi
(d) Cyrillic and Arabic
Ans. (c) Mohenjodaro and Brahmi - The Ravana Chhaya Rock painting at Sitabinji in Keonjhar district depicts which scene?
(a) A battle between gods and demons
(b) A royal procession with a king on an elephant
(c) A religious ceremony
(d) Daily market activities
Ans. (b) A royal procession with a king on an elephant - Who is credited as the first Odia poet to highlight classical ragas?
(a) Kavisurya Baladeva Rath
(b) Jayadeva
(c) Singhari Shyamasundar Kar
(d) Sunanda Patnaik
Ans. (b) Jayadeva - What is the first class of Odissi music?
(a) Chitrakala
(b) Chitrapada
(c) Dhruvapada
(d) Chhanda
Ans. (c) Dhruvapada - Which of the following is a distinctive feature of Chitrapada?
(a) Repetition of lines
(b) Artistic expression in music
(c) Alliterative arrangement of words
(d) Combination of bhava, kala, and swara
Ans. (c) Alliterative arrangement of words - Which treatise on music was written in the early 19th century?
(a) Sangitamava Chandrika
(b) Gita Prakasha
(c) Sangita Kalalata
(d) Sangita Sarani
Ans. (d) Sangita Sarani
