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Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10

The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.

Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10 PDF Download

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10

  1. What is Muruja?
    A. A form of pottery
    B. A type of embroidery
    C. A contemporary art form similar to Rangoli
    D. A style of mural painting
    Answer: C. A contemporary art form similar to Rangoli
  2. What materials are used to create Muruja?
    A. Clay and charcoal
    B. Powders of different hues such as white, green, black, yellow, and red
    C. Oil paints and canvas
    D. Fabric and thread
    Answer: B. Powders of different hues such as white, green, black, yellow, and red
  3. Which town in Odisha is famous for its applique work?
    A. Cuttack
    B. Bhubaneswar
    C. Pipili
    D. Konark
    Answer: C. Pipili
  4. What is the origin of Pipili’s applique work?
    A. Mughal influence
    B. British colonization
    C. Lord Jagannath culture during the 12th century
    D. Portuguese traders
    Answer: C. Lord Jagannath culture during the 12th century
  5. What are some common forms created using applique craft?
    A. Pottery and ceramics
    B. Sculptures and statues
    C. Birds, animals, flowers, and leaves
    D. Textiles and garments
    Answer: C. Birds, animals, flowers, and leaves
  6. For what occasions are large applique canopies used in Odisha?
    A. Birthdays
    B. Funerals
    C. Marriage celebrations
    D. Religious processions
    Answer: C. Marriage celebrations
  7. What is the significance of tiny mirrors in Odisha’s applique craft?
    A. They reflect sunlight
    B. They represent spiritual enlightenment
    C. They enhance the aesthetic appeal
    D. They ward off evil spirits
    Answer: C. They enhance the aesthetic appeal
  8. Which traditional colors are commonly used in Odisha’s applique craft?
    A. Blue, green, purple, and orange
    B. Red, black, yellow, and white
    C. Pink, brown, gray, and teal
    D. Gold, silver, bronze, and copper
    Answer: B. Red, black, yellow, and white
  9. Where is sand art a popular form of expression in Odisha?
    A. Bhubaneswar
    B. Cuttack
    C. Puri Beach
    D. Konark Sun Temple
    Answer: C. Puri Beach
  10. What is the primary medium used in sand art?
    A. Clay
    B. Sand
    C. Paint
    D. Stone
    Answer: B. Sand
  11. What are some common items made from bamboo and cane in Odisha?
    A) Earthen pots
    B) Baskets, mats, and lamp shades
    C) Metal sculptures
    D) Glassware
    Answer: B) Baskets, mats, and lamp shades
  12. How is bamboo and cane prepared before crafting items?
    A) Soaked in water
    B) Boiled in oil
    C) Cut, split longitudinally, and heated over a low flame
    D) Frozen
    Answer: C) Cut, split longitudinally, and heated over a low flame
  13. What process enhances the durability and flexibility of coir fiber?
    A) Boiling in vinegar
    B) Treating with saline water (retting) for 8-10 months
    C) Exposure to direct sunlight
    D) Mixing with synthetic fibers
    Answer: B) Treating with saline water (retting) for 8-10 months
  14. What kind of craft involves creating figures of animals, birds, and eco-friendly toys using yellow-colored fiber?
    A) Pottery
    B) Wood carving
    C) Coir craft
    D) Glassblowing
    Answer: C) Coir craft
  15. Which grass is known as “Golden Grass” and is found in many parts of Odisha after the rainy season?
    A) Sabai Grass
    B) Jute
    C) Kaincha
    D) Wheatgrass
    Answer: C) Kaincha
  16. Where is the Sabai Grass extensively grown in Odisha?
    A) Mayurbhanj district
    B) Sundergarh district
    C) Balasore district
    D) Puri district
    Answer: A) Mayurbhanj district
  17. Which village in Balasore district of Odisha is known for practicing Sabai Grass weaving?
    A) Kendrapara
    B) Jajang
    C) Baliapal
    D) Gop
    Answer: C) Baliapal
  18. What are some products made from Sabai Grass?
    A) Metal sculptures
    B) Pottery
    C) Baskets, trays, hats, and bags
    D) Glassware
    Answer: C) Baskets, trays, hats, and bags
  19. Which district in Odisha is famous for Grass Weaving Craft using Golden Grass?
    A) Mayurbhanj
    B) Kendrapara
    C) Jajpur
    D) Sundergarh
    Answer: A) Mayurbhanj
  20. What is a characteristic feature of products made from Golden Grass and Sabai Grass?
    A) They are non-biodegradable
    B) They are highly toxic
    C) They are eco-friendly and biodegradable
    D) They are very expensive
    Answer: C) They are eco-friendly and biodegradable
  21. What is the traditional craft work of Odisha primarily practiced by Santhals, Oraons, and Marijas tribes?
    a) Lac Craft
    b) Metal Craft
    c) Horn Craft
    d) Lacquer Craft
    Answer: c) Horn Craft
  22. Which items are commonly made from cow and buffalo horns in Odisha’s traditional craft?
    a) Toys and vessels
    b) Jewelry and lamp stands
    c) Wall hangings and coasters
    d) Pottery and paintings
    Answer: b) Jewelry and lamp stands
  23. What is the locally known name for lac comb in Odisha’s Lac Craft?
    a) Lacquer
    b) Lac Siredi
    c) Horns comb
    d) Buffalo comb
    Answer: b) Lac Siredi
  24. Which district of Odisha is famous for Lac Craft?
    a) Cuttack
    b) Gajapati
    c) Koraput
    d) Nabarangpur
    Answer: d) Nabarangpur
  25. What material is melted and mixed with lac to create lacquered bamboo craft?
    a) Wax
    b) Clay
    c) Metal
    d) Lac
    Answer: d) Lac
  26. Which tribal community practices Dhokra-Lost Wax Metal Casting in Odisha?
    a) Santhals
    b) Situlia
    c) Oraons
    d) Marijas
    Answer: b) Situlia
  27. How old is the Dhokra-Lost Wax Metal Casting craft in Odisha?
    a) 100 years
    b) 500 years
    c) 4,000 years
    d) 10,000 years
    Answer: c) 4,000 years
  28. Which district is NOT mentioned as a center for Dhokra-Lost Wax Metal Casting in Odisha?
    a) Nayagarh
    b) Dhenkanal
    c) Rayagada
    d) Khordha
    Answer: d) Khordha
  29. Which ancient artifact is cited as one of the earliest known lost-wax artifacts?
    a) Horn comb
    b) Dancing girl of Mohenjodaro
    c) Lac Siredi
    d) Bamboo craft
    Answer: b) Dancing girl of Mohenjodaro
  30. Which craft combines horn and silver filigree work to create beautiful ornaments?
    a) Horn Craft
    b) Lac Craft
    c) Metal Craft
    d) Lacquer Craft
    Answer: a) Horn Craft
  31. Who was the founder of the Mahameghavahana dynasty?
    a) Mahameghavahana
    b) Kharavela
    c) Sri Gupta
    d) Visakhavarman
    Answer: a) Mahameghavahana
  32. What is another name for the Mahameghavahana dynasty?
    a) Gupta dynasty
    b) Chedi dynasty
    c) Nala dynasty
    d) Muranda dynasty
    Answer: b) Chedi dynasty
  33. Which ruler of the Chedi dynasty is known for his conquests and promotion of Jainism?
    a) Mahameghavahana
    b) Kharavela
    c) Sri Gupta
    d) Visakhavarman
    Answer: b) Kharavela
  34. Where is most of the information about Kharavela found?
    a) Lingaraj Temple
    b) Konark Sun Temple
    c) Hathigumpha inscription
    d) Jagannath Temple
    Answer: c) Hathigumpha inscription
  35. Which dynasty ruled in the Kalinga region during the 4th and 5th centuries?
    a) Matharas
    b) Nalas
    c) Parvatadvarkas
    d) Meghas
    Answer: a) Matharas
  36. Who was the founder of the Mathara dynasty?
    a) Visakhavarman
    b) Umavarman
    c) Shaktivarman
    d) Vardhamanpura
    Answer: a) Visakhavarman
  37. Which dynasty established a kingdom in the Trikalinga region?
    a) Matharas
    b) Nalas
    c) Parvatadvarkas
    d) Meghas
    Answer: b) Nalas
  38. What was the capital of the Nala dynasty?
    a) Vardhamanpura
    b) Parvatadvarka
    c) Pushkari
    d) Parvatadvarka
    Answer: c) Pushkari
  39. In which region did the Parvatadvarkas dynasty appear?
    a) Ganjam
    b) Koraput
    c) Jajpur
    d) Kalahandi
    Answer: d) Kalahandi
  40. Who was the founder of the Parvatadvarkas dynasty?
    a) Nandaraja
    b) Tustikara
    c) Parvatadvarka
    d) Maharaja Narendra
    Answer: c) Parvatadvarka
  41. Which dynasty ruled over South Kosala in the middle of the 6th century AD?
    a) Matharas
    b) Nalas
    c) Meghas
    d) Sarbhapuriyas
    Answer: c) Meghas
  42. Which dynasty established its kingdom over South Kosala around the 5th century AD?
    a) Matharas
    b) Nalas
    c) Meghas
    d) Sarbhapuriyas
    Answer: d) Sarbhapuriyas
  43. What is another name for the Somavamshi dynasty?
    a) Keshari dynasty
    b) Gajapati dynasty
    c) Bhoi dynasty
    d) Chola dynasty
    Answer: a) Keshari dynasty
  44. Who is credited with building a new temple at Puri and installing the image of Purushottama (Jagannatha) there?
    a) Janmejaya I
    b) Yayati I
    c) Janmejaya II
    d) Abhinava-Yayati
    Answer: b) Yayati I
  45. What was the capital of the Somavamshi dynasty after the conquest of the Bhauma-Kara kingdom?
    a) Yayatinagara
    b) Binika
    c) Jajpur
    d) Chaudwar
    Answer: c) Jajpur
  46. What marks the beginning of the Somavamshi style of temple architecture in Odisha?
    a) Construction of Lingaraj Temple
    b) Installation of the image of Purushottama at Puri
    c) The Utkaliya era
    d) Conquest of Dakshina Kosala
    Answer: b) Installation of the image of Purushottama at Puri
  47. Which king is described as “lord of Kosala” in the Chaudwar inscription?
    a) Yayati I
    b) Janmejaya I
    c) Janmejaya II
    d) Abhinava-Yayati
    Answer: b) Janmejaya I
  48. What is the modern-day name for the capital of the Somavamshi dynasty, Abhinava-Yayatinagara?
    a) Binika
    b) Jajpur
    c) Puri
    d) Cuttack
    Answer: b) Jajpur
  49. Which epoch marked the reign of Yayati I and implied the start of the era for the Odia calendar?
    a) Kalinga epoch
    b) Utkaliya era
    c) Keshari dynasty era
    d) Madala Panji era
    Answer: b) Utkaliya era
  50. Who established the Gajapati Dynasty in 1435?
    a) Kapilendra Deva
    b) Bhanudeva IV
    c) Hamira
    d) Purushottama Deva
    Answer: a) Kapilendra Deva
  51. In which year did Kapilendra Deva die?
    a) 1450
    b) 1467
    c) 1484
    d) 1541
    Answer: b) 1467
  52. Who succeeded Kapilendra Deva to the throne of the Gajapati Dynasty after a civil war?
    a) Hamira
    b) Govinda Vidyadhara
    c) Chakrapratap
    d) Purushottama Deva
    Answer: d) Purushottama Deva
  53. What was the cause of the founding of the Bhoi Dynasty?
    a) A civil war
    b) A foreign invasion
    c) A natural disaster
    d) A peaceful transition of power
    Answer: a) A bloody coup
  54. Who succeeded Govinda Vidyadhara in the Bhoi Dynasty?
    a) Raghubhanja Chhotray
    b) Chakrapratap
    c) Mukunda Deva
    d) Hamvira
    Answer: b) Chakrapratap
  55. What title did Mukunda Deva take after declaring himself ruler of Odisha?
    a) Maharaja
    b) Rajguru
    c) Minister
    d) King
    Answer: a) Maharaja
  56. Which event led to the downfall of the Bhoi Dynasty?
    a) Mukunda Deva’s rebellion
    b) The death of Chakrapratap
    c) Raghubhanja Chhotray’s rebellion
    d) Govinda Vidyadhara’s coup
    Answer: c) Raghubhanja Chhotray’s rebellion
  57. Who was installed as the governor of Rajamundry and Kondavidu by Kapilendra Deva?
    a) Bhanudeva IV
    b) Hamira
    c) Govinda Vidyadhara
    d) Chakrapratap
    Answer: b) Hamira
  58. What is another name for the Gajapati Dynasty?
    a) Bhoi Dynasty
    b) Suryavamsi dynasty
    c) Kapilendra Dynasty
    d) Eastern Ganga dynasty
    Answer: b) Suryavamsi dynasty
  59. When did the Bhoi Dynasty come to an end?
    a) 1484
    b) 1457
    c) 1541
    d) 1557
    Answer: d) 1557
  60. During which period did the Bhauma-Kara Dynasty exist?
    a) c. 500 CE to c. 736 CE
    b) c. 736 CE to c. 940 CE
    c) c. 940 CE to c. 1100 CE
    d) c. 1100 CE to c. 1300 CE
    Answer: b) c. 736 CE to c. 940 CE
  61. What is the purpose of establishing the Biju Patnaik Aviation Centre (BPAC) at the Birasal airstrip in Dhenkanal district?A) To create a commercial airport for international flightsB) To establish a tourism hub in the districtC) To provide aviation training and pilot educationD) To host annual air shows and exhibitions

    Answer: C) To provide aviation training and pilot education

  62. In which district of Odisha is the Biju Patnaik Aviation Centre (BPAC) planned to be established?A) BhubaneswarB) CuttackC) PuriD) Dhenkanal

    Answer: D) Dhenkanal

  63.  Which institute collaborated with Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA) to strengthen disaster preparedness?A) Indian Institute of Technology, DelhiB) National Institute of Technology, RourkelaC) Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System (RIMES), BangkokD) University of Hyderabad

    Answer: C) Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System (RIMES), Bangkok

  64. Bhadraka inscription gives a description of which dynasty of Odisha?
    [A] Muranda
    [B] Gupta
    [C] Nanda
    [D] ChediCorrect Answer: A [Muranda]
    Notes: The Bhadrak inscription refers to the Muranda dynasty, believed to be a foreign tribe that entered India with the Kushanas.
  65. Taranath referred Odisha as?
    [A] Odiya
    [B] Odivisa
    [C] Orissya
    [D] None of the aboveCorrect Answer: B [Odivisa]
    Notes: The Tibetan historian Taranath referred to Odisha as Odivisa in his works.
  66. The Chandra Kala Natika was written by?
    [A] Viswanath Kaviraj
    [B] Ananta Dasa
    [C] Jayadeva
    [D] AchyutanandaCorrect Answer: A [Viswanath Kaviraj]
    Notes: The Chandra Kala Natika was authored by the renowned Odishan poet Viswanath Kaviraj and depicts the conquest of Gauda (Bengal) by the last Ganga king Bhanudeva IV.
  67. Which of the following was a famous poet, also a contemporary to Rajaraja II?
    [A] Dandin
    [B] Utbi
    [C] Jayadeva
    [D] TulsidasaCorrect Answer: C [Jayadeva]
    Notes: Jayadeva, renowned for his work Gita Govind, was a court poet of the Bengal ruler Laxmansena and lived during the time of Rajaraja II.
  68. Who was the first ruler to issue coins with Odia inscriptions?
    [A] Mahameghavahana Aira Kharavela
    [B] Samudragupta
    [C] Ashoka
    [D] Pulakesin IICorrect Answer: A [Mahameghavahana Aira Kharavela]
    Notes: Mahameghavahana Aira Kharavela, a ruler of Kalinga in the 2nd century BCE, was the first to issue coins with Odia inscriptions.
  69. What is the purpose of the collaboration between OSDMA, RIMES, and Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham?A) To establish research facilities in natural sciencesB) To strengthen disaster preparedness through impact-based forecasting and early warning disseminationC) To create a platform for international tradeD) To launch new educational programs in the state

    Answer: B) To strengthen disaster preparedness through impact-based forecasting and early warning dissemination

  70. Odisha State Disaster Management Authority (OSDMA) falls under which ministry?A) Ministry of Health and Family WelfareB) Ministry of Rural DevelopmentC) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate ChangeD) Ministry of Home Affairs

    Answer: D) Ministry of Home Affairs

  71. What is the full form of OSDMA?A) Odisha State Development Management AssociationB) Odisha State Disaster Management AuthorityC) Odisha State Disease Monitoring AssociationD) Odisha State Domestic Market Association

    Answer: B) Odisha State Disaster Management Authority

  72. In which Indian state was the ‘Ama Bank’ initiative launched to extend banking services to all unbanked panchayats?A) KarnatakaB) OdishaC) MaharashtraD) Tamil Nadu

    Answer: B) Odisha

  73. What is the primary objective of the ‘Ama Bank’ initiative launched in Odisha?A) To promote foreign investments in the stateB) To encourage the use of digital payments in urban areasC) To provide banking services to all unbanked panchayats in OdishaD) To establish new bank branches in every city

    Answer: C) To provide banking services to all unbanked panchayats in Odisha

  74. How many CSP Plus outlets (Customer Service Points) were launched under the ‘Ama Bank’ initiative in Odisha?A) 1,500B) 1,800C) 2,000D) 2,500

    Answer: C) 2,000

  75. Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which Indian state?A) West BengalB) JharkhandC) OdishaD) Chhattisgarh

    Answer: C) Odisha

  76. Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which district of Odisha?A) CuttackB) PuriC) BalasoreD) Bhadrak

    Answer: C) Balasore

  77. Which type of forest is predominantly found in Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary?A) Evergreen forestB) Mixed deciduous forest dominated by Sal treesC) Coniferous forestD) Mangrove forest

    Answer: B) Mixed deciduous forest dominated by Sal trees

  78. The sustainability grants extended to 11 research centers of excellence (CoEs) in Odisha are part of which program?A) Odisha Higher Education Initiative for Equity and Excellence (OHEIEE)B) Odisha Higher Education Programme for Excellence and Equity (OHEPEE)C) Odisha Advanced Education Programme (OAEP)D) Odisha Education and Research Support Initiative (OERSI)

    Answer: B) Odisha Higher Education Programme for Excellence and Equity (OHEPEE)

  79. How much total sustainability grant was awarded to the 11 CoEs for the academic sessions of 2023-24 and 2024-25 under the Mukhyamantri Research and Innovation Fellowship programme?A) Rs 45 lakhB) Rs 50 lakhC) Rs 61.5 lakhD) Rs 75 lakh

    Answer: C) Rs 61.5 lakh

  80. Which research center at Sambalpur University received the highest grant, and how much was the grant?A) Research on ‘biotechnology and bioinformatics’ received Rs 25 lakhB) Research on ‘agricultural sciences’ received Rs 30 lakhC) Research on ‘natural products and therapeutics’ received Rs 35 lakhD) Research on ‘environmental sciences’ received Rs 40 lakh

    Answer: C) Research on ‘natural products and therapeutics’ received Rs 35 lakh

  81. Which phase of the Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is mentioned in the context of the CoEs in Odisha?A) Phase OneB) Phase TwoC) Phase ThreeD) Phase Four

    Answer: B) Phase Two

  82. What types of support are being provided to the CoEs under the Mukhyamantri Research and Innovation Fellowship programme?A) Research grants to fellows and maintenance of equipmentB) Research internships, publication of critical textsC) Engagement of research associatesD) All of the above

    Answer: D) All of the above

  83. Until what year has the Odisha government extended its command area development and water management scheme?A) 2025B) 2027C) 2029D) 2031

    Answer: C) 2029

  84.  What is the total outlay of the Odisha government’s command area development and water management scheme?A) Rs 500 croreB) Rs 763.47 croreC) Rs 1,000 croreD) Rs 900 crore

    Answer: B) Rs 763.47 crore

  85. How many kilometers of field channel network are planned for construction in the 80,000 hectares of command area?A) 1,200 kmB) 3,600 kmC) 2,400 kmD) 3,000 km

    Answer: C) 2,400 km

     

  86. What is one of the main goals of the scheme related to water management?A) To promote tourism in the stateB) To enhance production and productivity through on-farm water management and crop diversificationC) To establish new urban areas in the state

    D) To promote industrialization

    Answer: B) To enhance production and productivity through on-farm water management and crop diversification

  87. How much funding does the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) contribute to the scheme?A) Approximately Rs 108 croreB) Approximately Rs 200 croreC) Approximately Rs 150 croreD) Approximately Rs 50 crore

    Answer: A) Approximately Rs 108 crore

  88. NTPC’s Kaniha power plant is located in which district of Odisha?A) KhordhaB) AngulC) BalasoreD) Puri

    Answer: B) Angul

  89. What is the installed capacity of NTPC’s Kaniha power plant?A) 1500MWB) 3000MWC) 4500MWD) 5000MW

    Answer: B) 3000MW

  90. The source of water for NTPC’s Kaniha power plant is from which reservoir?A) Hirakud ReservoirB) Chilika LakeC) Samal Barrage ReservoirD) Puri Lake

    Answer: C) Samal Barrage Reservoir

  91. The fire at NTPC’s Kaniha power plant originated from which part of the plant?A) Cooling towerB) Turbine generatorC) Coal transporting conveyor beltD) Control room

    Answer: C) Coal transporting conveyor belt

  92. Which of the following states does the Talcher power plant supply power to?A) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Bihar, and West BengalB) Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Gujarat, and MaharashtraC) Odisha, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Uttar PradeshD) Odisha, Sikkim, Assam, Manipur, and Meghalaya

    Answer: A) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Bihar, and West Bengal

  93. Which rivers in southern Odisha are currently facing a lack of water according to data from the Central Water Commission?A) Baitarani, Subarnarekha, Brahmani, and BudhabalangaB) Rushikulya, Bahuda, Vamsadhara, and NagavaliC) Mahanadi, Brahmani, Baitarani, and SubarnarekhaD) Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari, and Krishna

    Answer: B) Rushikulya, Bahuda, Vamsadhara, and Nagavali

  94. What is one of the main causes attributed to the lack of water in the rivers of southern Odisha?A) Excessive rainfallB) Strong wind patternsC) Reduced monsoon rainfall and changes in rainfall patternsD) Rising sea levels

    Answer: C) Reduced monsoon rainfall and changes in rainfall patterns

  95. What did Nitin Bassi from the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) suggest to reduce the water deficit in the Mahanadi river basin?A) Building more dams and reservoirsB) Implementing water diversion projectsC) Adopting micro-irrigation systems and changing cropping patternsD) Increasing the use of groundwater

    Answer: C) Adopting micro-irrigation systems and changing cropping patterns

  96. Which town in Odisha has a very poor Air Quality Index (AQI) value of 304, as reported by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?A) BhubaneswarB) BarbilC) CuttackD) Rourkela

    Answer: B) Barbil

  97. What were the AQI values recorded in Keonjhar and Nayagarh in Odisha on the same day when Barbil had a very poor AQI?A) 100 and 150 respectivelyB) 200 and 250 respectivelyC) 228 and 275 respectivelyD) 300 and 350 respectively

    Answer: C) 228 and 275 respectively

  98. What was the total population of Odisha according to the Census 2011?
    A) 3.8 crore
    B) 4.2 crore
    C) 5.0 crore
    D) 2.5 crore
    Answer: B) 4.2 crore
  99. What percentage of India’s population does Odisha’s population form according to the Census 2011?
    A) 4.47%
    B) 2.67%
    C) 3.47%
    D) 3.97%
    Answer: C) 3.47%
  100. What was the male population in Odisha according to the Census 2011?
    A) 22,500,136
    B) 21,112,136
    C) 21,312,136
    D) 21,212,136
    Answer: D) 21,212,136
  101. What was the female population in Odisha according to the Census 2011?
    A) 20,562,082
    B) 20,962,082
    C) 20,662,082
    D) 20,762,082
    Answer: D) 20,762,082
  102. What is the population density of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    A) 270 per square km
    B) 290 per square km
    C) 230 per square km
    D) 310 per square km
    Answer: A) 270 per square km
  103. What is the total area of Odisha?
    A) 155,107 square km
    B) 160,707 square km
    C) 145,707 square km
    D) 155,707 square km
    Answer: D) 155,707 square km
  104. Which district in Odisha has the highest literacy rate according to the Census 2011?
    A) Cuttack
    B) Puri
    C) Khordha
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: C) Khordha
  105. What is the literacy rate of Khordha District according to the Census 2011?
    A) 84.88%
    B) 86.88%
    C) 82.88%
    D) 88.88%
    Answer: B) 86.88%
  106. What is the national average population density of India per square km?
    A) 392 per square km
    B) 372 per square km
    C) 382 per square km
    D) 362 per square km
    Answer: C) 382 per square km
  107. What is the average sex ratio of Odisha as per the Census 2011?
    A) 943
    B) 979
    C) 965
    D) 982
    Answer: B) 979
  108. How does Odisha’s average sex ratio compare to the national average according to Census 2011?
    A) Below the national average
    B) Equal to the national average
    C) Above the national average
    D) Fluctuates with the national average
    Answer: C) Above the national average
  109. What is the child sex ratio (age less than 6 years) in Odisha as per the Census 2011?
    A) 918
    B) 941
    C) 960
    D) 930
    Answer: B) 941
  110. What percentage of Odisha’s population lived in urban regions according to the Census 2011?
    A) 20.50%
    B) 16.69%
    C) 19.40%
    D) 14.30%
    Answer: B) 16.69%
  111. What percentage of Odisha’s population lived in rural areas according to the Census 2011?
    A) 78.20%
    B) 73.50%
    C) 83.31%
    D) 80.45%
    Answer: C) 83.31%
  112. What was the total urban population of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    A) 8,103,656
    B) 7,203,656
    C) 7,003,656
    D) 7,503,656
    Answer: C) 7,003,656
  113. What was the male population in urban regions of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    A) 3,625,933
    B) 3,745,933
    C) 3,525,933
    D) 3,605,933
    Answer: A) 3,625,933
  114. What was the female population in urban regions of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    A) 3,377,723
    B) 3,177,723
    C) 3,477,723
    D) 3,577,723
    Answer: A) 3,377,723
  115. What was the average sex ratio in urban regions of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    A) 932 females per 1000 males
    B) 949 females per 1000 males
    C) 922 females per 1000 males
    D) 913 females per 1000 males
    Answer: A) 932 females per 1000 males
  116. What was the average sex ratio in rural areas of Odisha as per Census 2011?
    A) 978 females per 1000 males
    B) 990 females per 1000 males
    C) 978 females per 1000 males
    D) 989 females per 1000 males
    Answer: D) 989 females per 1000 males
  117. As per the census conducted in 2011, what is the rank of Odisha in terms of the total population in India?
    A) 7th
    B) 10th
    C) 9th
    D) 11th
    Answer: D) 11th
  118. Which of the following districts of Odisha has the highest population as per the census 2011?
    A) Khordha
    B) Puri
    C) Ganjam
    D) Cuttack
    Answer: C) Ganjam
  119. Which of the following districts of Odisha has the lowest population as per the census 2011?
    A) Malkangiri
    B) Nayagarh
    C) Jharsuguda
    D) Nabarangpur
    Answer: A) Malkangiri
  120. As per the census 2011, what is the population growth rate of Odisha?
    A) 13.97%
    B) 15.45%
    C) 16.69%
    D) 12.21%
    Answer: A) 13.97%
  121. Which district is considered the most developed and richest district in Odisha?
    A) Cuttack
    B) Puri
    C) Khordha
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: C) Khordha
  122. Which district in Odisha is considered the second most developed after Khordha?
    A) Puri
    B) Cuttack
    C) Bhadrak
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: B) Cuttack
  123. Which district in Odisha has the lowest literacy rate in rural areas, as per the information provided?
    A) Malkangiri
    B) Gajapati
    C) Nabarangpur
    D) Kandhamal
    Answer: C) Nabarangpur
  124. Which district in Odisha has the lowest urban literacy rate?
    A) Boudh
    B) Malkangiri
    C) Rayagada
    D) Jajpur
    Answer: B) Malkangiri
  125. Which district is the largest in Odisha by area?
    A) Mayurbhanj
    B) Ganjam
    C) Cuttack
    D) Khordha
    Answer: A) Mayurbhanj
  126. Which is the most populous district in Odisha as per the 2011 census?
    A) Khordha
    B) Cuttack
    C) Ganjam
    D) Puri
    Answer: C) Ganjam
  127. Which is the smallest district in Odisha by area?
    A) Nayagarh
    B) Jagatsinghpur
    C) Malkangiri
    D) Boudh
    Answer: B) Jagatsinghpur
  128. Which of the following kings is known for the construction of the Sun Temple at Konark?
    [A] Prithviraj Chauhan
    [B] Ashoka
    [C] Narasimha Deva I
    [D] Raja Raja Chola
    Correct Answer: [C] Narasimha Deva I
    Notes: The Sun Temple at Konark was constructed in the 13th century by King Narasimha Deva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
  129. Which famous Buddhist site in Odisha is known for its rock-cut caves?
    [A] Dhauli
    [B] Ratnagiri
    [C] Lalitgiri
    [D] Udayagiri and Khandagiri
    Correct Answer: [D] Udayagiri and Khandagiri
    Notes: The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are rock-cut caves associated with Jain and Buddhist traditions, located near Bhubaneswar.
  130. Who was the last independent Hindu king of Odisha?
    [A] Raja Raja Chola
    [B] Prithviraj Chauhan
    [C] Mukunda Deva
    [D] Prataprudra Deva
    Correct Answer: [C] Mukunda Deva
    Notes: Mukunda Deva was the last independent Hindu king of Odisha who ruled until the state fell under the control of the Mughals in the late 16th century.
  131. What is the significance of Dhauli in the history of Odisha?
    [A] Site of a famous battle during the time of Ashoka
    [B] The birthplace of a famous poet
    [C] Location of a major temple
    [D] An important port
    Correct Answer: [A] Site of a famous battle during the time of Ashoka
    Notes: Dhauli is known for the famous Kalinga War fought by Emperor Ashoka. It marked his transformation and the adoption of Buddhism.
  132. The capital city of ancient Kalinga was:
    [A] Bhubaneswar
    [B] Cuttack
    [C] Jeypore
    [D] Puri
    Correct Answer: [B] Cuttack
    Notes: Cuttack was the capital city of ancient Kalinga and continued to serve as the capital of Odisha until the colonial period.
  133. The Puri Rath Yatra is dedicated to which Hindu deity?
    [A] Shiva
    [B] Vishnu
    [C] Jagannath
    [D] Brahma
    Correct Answer: [C] Jagannath
    Notes: The Puri Rath Yatra is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of Vishnu, and is one of the most significant religious festivals in India.
  134. Quli Qutub Shah, who invaded Odisha, was the general of which ruler?
    [A] Mahmud Shah
    [B] Tajuddin Firoz
    [C] Ahmad Shah
    [D] Humayun Shah
    Correct Answer: [A] Mahmud Shah
    Notes: Quli Qutub Shah was the general of Sultan Mahmud Shah of the Bahamani kingdom. He invaded Odisha in 1522 AD but was defeated by Prataprudradeva.
  135. Who was one of the Odia leaders that took part in the Great Revolt of 1857?
    [A] Surendra Sai
    [B] Chakhi Khuntia
    [C] Ramakrushna Samanta Singhar
    [D] All of the above
    Correct Answer: [D] All of the above
    Notes: Surendra Sai, Chakhi Khuntia, and Ramakrushna Samanta Singhar were some of the great patriots of Odisha who participated in the Great Revolt of 1857.
  136. Which Odia leader led a strong armed resistance against British rule during the 19th century?
    [A] Baji Rout
    [B] Jagannath Das
    [C] Surendra Sai
    [D] Raja Anangabhima Deva
    Correct Answer: [C] Surendra Sai
    Notes: Surendra Sai was one of the most significant leaders in Odisha who led an armed resistance against British rule during the 19th century.
  137. What was the role of Chakhi Khuntia in the Great Revolt of 1857?
    [A] He was a poet
    [B] He provided spiritual guidance to the rebels
    [C] He acted as a guide and adviser to Rani Lakshmibai
    [D] He led the revolt in Odisha
    Correct Answer: [C] He acted as a guide and adviser to Rani Lakshmibai
    Notes: Chakhi Khuntia was an important figure in the Great Revolt of 1857, known for his role as a guide and adviser to Rani Lakshmibai.
  138. Laxman Nayak led the Quit India movement of Odisha in which district?
    [A] Keonjhar
    [B] Cuttack
    [C] Koraput
    [D] Ganjam
    Correct Answer: [C] Koraput
    Notes: Laxman Nayak led the Quit India movement in Koraput district by organizing an army of 200 men. He was later arrested and executed on 29th March 1943.
  139. Who was the first woman to be elected to the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    [A] Sarala Devi
    [B] Rama Devi
    [C] Sarojini Devi
    [D] Malati Devi
    Correct Answer: [A] Sarala Devi
    Notes: Sarala Devi was the first woman to be elected to the Odisha Legislative Assembly on 1st April 1936. She also became the first female speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly.
  140. Who was felicitated as “Bhumi Putra” by the Indonesian government?
    [A] Biju Pattanaik
    [B] Gopabandhu Das
    [C] Gopabandhu Choudhury
    [D] Naveen Pattanaik
    Correct Answer: [A] Biju Pattanaik
    Notes: Biju Pattanaik, former chief minister of Odisha, was honored with the title of “Bhumi Putra” by the Indonesian government.
  141. Which event inspired Laxman Nayak to lead the Quit India movement in Koraput?
    [A] The Non-Cooperation Movement
    [B] The Salt March
    [C] The call of Mahatma Gandhi
    [D] The Rowlatt Satyagraha
    Correct Answer: [C] The call of Mahatma Gandhi
    Notes: Laxman Nayak was inspired by the call of Mahatma Gandhi to lead the Quit India movement in Koraput.
  142. What role did Sarala Devi play in Odisha’s political history?
    [A] First woman to lead a political party
    [B] First female Chief Minister of Odisha
    [C] First female governor of Odisha
    [D] First female speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly
    Correct Answer: [D] First female speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly
    Notes: Sarala Devi was the first female speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly and played a significant role in Odisha’s political history.
  143. Badaghagara waterfall is located in which district of Odisha?
    [A] Mayurbhanj
    [B] Koraput
    [C] Keonjhar
    [D] Balangir
    Correct Answer: [C] Keonjhar
    Notes: Badaghagara waterfall lies in Keonjhar district of Odisha and is located at a distance of 3 km downstream of Sanaghagara waterfall.
  144. Which river is the source of the Badaghagara waterfall?
    [A] Budhabalanga River
    [B] Machha Kandana
    [C] Rushikulya River
    [D] Subarnarekha River
    Correct Answer: [B] Machha Kandana
    Notes: Badaghagara waterfall is a source of a small river known as Machha Kandana.
  145. What is the height of the Barehipani waterfall in Mayurbhanj district, Odisha?
    [A] 200 m
    [B] 300 m
    [C] 400 m
    [D] 500 m
    Correct Answer: [C] 400 m
    Notes: Barehipani waterfall is the highest waterfall in Odisha with a total height of 400 m. It is also the second-highest waterfall in India.
  146. Where is Duduma waterfall located?
    [A] Mayurbhanj district
    [B] Keonjhar district
    [C] On the border of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
    [D] In the core area of Simlipal National Park
    Correct Answer: [C] On the border of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
    Notes: Duduma waterfall is located on the boundary of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha states, situated at a distance of 92 km from Koraput district (Odisha).
  147. Which other waterfall is near Barehipani waterfall in Simlipal National Park?
    [A] Duduma waterfall
    [B] Badaghagara waterfall
    [C] Joranda waterfall
    [D] Chilika waterfall
    Correct Answer: [C] Joranda waterfall
    Notes: Joranda waterfall (150 m) is near Barehipani waterfall in Simlipal National Park and is in the core area of the park.
  148. What date is Utkal Divas, also known as Odisha Foundation Day, celebrated annually?
    [A] March 15th
    [B] April 1st
    [C] May 1st
    [D] January 26th
    Correct Answer: [B] April 1st
    Notes: Utkal Divas, also known as Odisha Foundation Day, is celebrated annually on April 1st to commemorate the formation of Odisha as a state.
  149. Under British rule, Odisha was part of which presidency?
    [A] Madras Presidency
    [B] Bombay Presidency
    [C] Bengal Presidency
    [D] Punjab Presidency
    Correct Answer: [C] Bengal Presidency
    Notes: Under British rule, Odisha was part of the Bengal Presidency, which also included present-day Bihar and West Bengal.
  150. Who was the ancient king of Odisha known for establishing the state’s reputation as a center of art, architecture, and sculpture?
    [A] Ashoka
    [B] Prithviraj Chauhan
    [C] Chandragupta Maurya
    [D] Kharavela
    Correct Answer: [D] Kharavela
    Notes: King Kharavela’s reign is credited with establishing Odisha’s reputation as a center of art, architecture, and sculpture.
  151. The Choudwar fortress site is located in which district of Odisha?
    [A] Puri
    [B] Bhubaneswar
    [C] Cuttack
    [D] Balasore
    Correct Answer: [C] Cuttack
    Notes: The Choudwar fortress site is located in Cuttack district on the left bank of river Birupa.
  152. Which act is being violated by the Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO) due to its actions at the Choudwar fortress?
    [A] Indian Forest Act, 1927
    [B] Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
    [C] Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958
    [D] Environmental Protection Act, 1986
    Correct Answer: [C] Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958
    Notes: IDCO has been accused of violating the AMASR Act, 1958, by excavating and leveling the protected area of the Choudwar fortress.
  153. Choudwar fortress is one of the five forts (Panchakatakas) built by which ruler?
    [A] Ashoka
    [B] Harsha Vardhana
    [C] Chodagangadeva of the Ganga dynasty
    [D] Raja Raja Chola
    Correct Answer: [C] Chodagangadeva of the Ganga dynasty
    Notes: The Choudwar fortress is one of the five forts (Panchakatakas) built by Chodagangadeva of the Ganga dynasty.
  154. Which temple remains at the Choudwar fortress site?
    [A] Lingaraja Temple
    [B] Jagannath Temple
    [C] Kedaresvara Temple
    [D] Konark Sun Temple
    Correct Answer: [C] Kedaresvara Temple
    Notes: The only remains at the Choudwar fortress site are those of the Kedaresvara temple.
  155. By which financial year are eight Indian states expected to have economies exceeding one trillion dollars each?
    [A] 2030-31
    [B] 2046-47
    [C] 2040-41
    [D] 2050-51
    Correct Answer: [B] 2046-47
    Notes: By the 2046-47 financial year, eight states are expected to have economies exceeding one trillion dollars each.
  156. Which state is expected to achieve a one trillion dollar economy by 2046 according to the report?
    [A] Karnataka
    [B] Odisha
    [C] Uttar Pradesh
    [D] Andhra Pradesh
    Correct Answer: [D] Andhra Pradesh
    Notes: Andhra Pradesh is expected to achieve a one trillion dollar economy by 2046.
  157. What was the estimated size of Odisha’s economy in 2023-24?
    [A] USD 75.5 billion
    [B] USD 103.2 billion
    [C] USD 93.7 billion
    [D] USD 80.4 billion
    Correct Answer: [C] USD 93.7 billion
    Notes: Odisha’s economy was estimated to be USD 93.7 billion in 2023-24, ranking 13th among sub-national economies.
  158. Which important Ganga dynasty ruler ruled from 1077 to 1147 AD?
    A) Rajaraja II
    B) Anangabhimadeva III
    C) Narasimhadeva I
    D) Anantavarma Chodagangadeva
    Answer: D) Anantavarma Chodagangadeva
  159. What was the capital of the Ganga dynasty?
    A) Ujjain
    B) Kalinganagara
    C) Pataliputra
    D) Tosali
    Answer: B) Kalinganagara
  160. Who was the last Ganga king?
    A) Anangabhimadeva III
    B) Bhanudeva IV
    C) Narasimhadeva I
    D) Rajaraja II
    Answer: B) Bhanudeva IV
  161. Which temple was built by Narasimhadeva I?
    A) Jagannath temple
    B) Lingaraj temple
    C) Mukteswara temple
    D) Sun temple at Konark
    Answer: D) Sun temple at Konark
  162. During which ruler’s reign did poet Jayadeva flourish?
    A) Anantavarma Chodagangadeva
    B) Rajaraja II
    C) Narasimhadeva I
    D) Anangabhimadeva III
    Answer: B) Rajaraja II
  163. Who built the Jagannath temple in Puri?
    A) Rajaraja II
    B) Anangabhimadeva III
    C) Anantavarman Vajrahasta V
    D) Narasimhadeva I
    Answer: B) Anangabhimadeva III
  164. Which style of temple architecture flourished during the Ganga period?A) Dravidian style
    B) Nagara style
    C) Vesara style
    D) Pallava style
    Answer: B) Nagara style
  165. Which temple in Bhubaneswar is an example of the Nagara style?
    A) Lingaraj temple
    B) Meenakshi temple
    C) Brihadeeswarar temple
    D) Somanath temple
    Answer: A) Lingaraj temple
  166. The Ganga dynasty provided patronage to which religious tradition primarily?
    A) Buddhism
    B) Jainism
    C) Shaivism
    D) Vaishnavism
    Answer: D) Vaishnavism
  167. Which famous literary work is attributed to Jayadeva?
    A) Mahabharata
    B) Meghaduta
    C) Ramayana
    D) Gita Govinda
    Answer: D) Gita Govinda
  168. What were the notable architectural features of temples built during the Ganga dynasty?
    A) Minarets and domes
    B) Shikharas, Amlaka, Mandap
    C) Pagodas and stupas
    D) Frescoes and arches
    Answer: B) Shikharas, Amlaka, Mandap
  169. What is another name for the Ganga dynasty?
    A) Western Gangas
    B) Eastern Gangas
    C) Southern Gangas
    D) Northern Gangas
    Answer: B) Eastern Gangas
  170. Which notable rulers were part of the Ganga dynasty?
    A) Skandagupta and Kumaragupta I
    B) Chandragupta II and Vikramaditya
    C) Chodagangadeva, Rajaraja II, Anangabhimadeva III
    D) Devapala and Bhaskaravarman
    Answer: C) Chodagangadeva, Rajaraja II, Anangabhimadeva III
  171. Which region did Anantavarma Chodagangadeva rule over during his reign?
    A) From the Ganga to the Godavari
    B) From the Yamuna to the Cauvery
    C) From the Indus to the Brahmaputra
    D) From the Narmada to the Krishna
    Answer: A) From the Ganga to the Godavari
  172. What were the main reasons for the golden era under the Ganga dynasty?
    A) Military conquests and territorial expansion
    B) Cultural and religious patronage, architectural achievements
    C) Efficient administration and strong trade networks
    D) Strong navy and maritime dominance
    Answer: B) Cultural and religious patronage, architectural achievements
  173. What were the provinces under the Ganga dynasty known as?A) Districts
    B) Talukas
    C) Visayas
    D) Subdivisions
    Answer: C) Visayas
  174. Which of the following officials assisted the Ganga kings?
    A) Mantri and Purohita
    B) Yuvaraja and Sandhivigrahika
    C) Senapati and Dauvarika
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  175. What political divisions were provinces divided into during the Ganga dynasty?A) Districts
    B) Panchali and Bhoga
    C) Villages
    D) Cities and towns
    Answer: B) Panchali and Bhoga
  176. Which of the following taxes was collected during the Ganga dynasty rule?
    A) Bheta
    B) Voda
    C) Paridarsana
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  177. Who founded the Gajapati dynasty?A) Anangabhimadeva III
    B) Kapilendra Deva
    C) Prataparudra Deva
    D) Purushottam Deva
    Answer: B) Kapilendra Deva
  178. Which language’s literature saw a renaissance during the Gajapati period?
    A) Hindi
    B) Bengali
    C) Odia
    D) Sanskrit
    Answer: C) Odia
  179. Who was the most powerful Hindu king during the Gajapati dynasty?
    A) Prataparudra Deva
    B) Purushottam Deva
    C) Kapilendra Deva
    D) Kakharua Deva
    Answer: C) Kapilendra Deva
  180. Which Odia poet wrote Mahabharata in Odia during the Gajapati period?
    A) Kalidasa
    B) Sarala Dasa
    C) Jayadeva
    D) Banabhatta
    Answer: B) Sarala Dasa
  181. Who was the last ruler of the Gajapati dynasty?
    A) Purushottam Deva
    B) Kapilendra Deva
    C) Prataparudra Deva
    D) Kakharua Deva
    Answer: D) Kakharua Deva
  182. Who was the minister that killed the last ruler of the Gajapati dynasty?A) Krishnadevaraya
    B) Sri Chaitanya
    C) Govinda Vidyadhara
    D) Sarala Dasa
    Answer: C) Govinda Vidyadhara
  183. Which Vaishnav saint came to Odisha during the reign of Prataparudra Deva?
    A) Kabir
    B) Tulsidas
    C) Sri Chaitanya
    D) Surdas
    Answer: C) Sri Chaitanya
  184. Which fort did Krishnadevaraya attack and capture in 1512 AD?
    A) Simhachalam
    B) Udayagiri fort
    C) Lingaraj temple
    D) Jagannath temple
    Answer: B) Udayagiri fort
  185. Who did Krishnadevaraya marry after concluding peace with Prataparudra Deva?
    A) Anangabhimadeva’s daughter
    B) Kapilendra Deva’s sister
    C) Prataparudra Deva’s daughter, Jagamohini
    D) None of the above
    Answer: C) Prataparudra Deva’s daughter, Jagamohini
  186. What was the result of the Peace Treaty between Krishnadevaraya and Prataparudra Deva?
    A) Vijayanagara empire expanded into Odisha
    B) Prataparudra Deva married Krishnadevaraya’s sister
    C) River Krishna was the line of demarcation between the two empires
    D) Odisha gained control over parts of the Vijayanagara empire
    Answer: C) River Krishna was the line of demarcation between the two empires
  187. What was the dynasty of the Gajapati rulers of Odisha known as?
    A) Gupta dynasty
    B) Maurya dynasty
    C) Suryavamsi lineage
    D) Eastern Gangas
    Answer: C) Suryavamsi lineage
  188. What was the time period of the Gajapati dynasty’s rule in Odisha?
    A) 1200-1300 AD
    B) 1434-1541 AD
    C) 1000-1100 AD
    D) 1600-1700 AD
    Answer: B) 1434-1541 AD
  189. Where are the painted rock shelters from the prehistoric era primarily located?
    a) Western part of Karnataka
    b) Western part of Odisha
    c) Northern part of Tamil Nadu
    d) Southern part of Rajasthan
    Answer: b) Western part of Odisha
  190. What is the predominant theme depicted in these prehistoric rock paintings?
    a) Religious rituals
    b) Modern city life
    c) Hunting, dancing, fighting, and domestic activities
    d) Agricultural practices
    Answer: c) Hunting, dancing, fighting, and domestic activities
  191. What colors were used in these paintings, extracted from various sources?
    a) Blue, green, and yellow
    b) Red, white, and brown
    c) Black, purple, and orange
    d) Pink, turquoise, and gold
    Answer: b) Red, white, and brown
  192. Which script do the characters in these rock paintings resemble a mix of?
    a) Indus Valley Civilization script
    b) Egyptian hieroglyphs
    c) Mohenjodaro and Brahmi scripts
    d) Greek alphabet
    Answer: c) Mohenjodaro and Brahmi scripts
  193. Where can examples of these prehistoric paintings be found, depicting a procession scene of a king riding an elephant among other motifs?
    a) Lakshmi temple in Odisha
    b) Jagannath temple in Odisha
    c) Ajanta caves in Maharashtra
    d) Ellora caves in Maharashtra
    Answer: b) Jagannath temple in Odisha
  194. What is the primary subject matter of Saura paintings?
    A) Tribal deities
    B) Agricultural activities
    C) Animals and nature
    D) Mythological figures
    Answer: A) Tribal deities
  195. Which of the following tribal communities is associated with Kondh paintings?
    A) Saura
    B) Juang
    C) Kondh
    D) Paudi Bhuyan
    Answer: C) Kondh
  196. What are Kondh wall paintings known as?
    A) Idital
    B) Tikangkuda
    C) Manji Gunda
    D) Jhanjira
    Answer: C) Manji Gunda
  197. Which community’s paintings primarily depict the Samlai deity and agricultural activities?
    A) Saura
    B) Kondh
    C) Paudi Bhuyan
    D) Juang
    Answer: C) Paudi Bhuyan
  198. What themes are commonly depicted in Juang paintings?
    A) Tribal deities
    B) Agricultural activities
    C) Birds, animals, and flowers
    D) Mythological figures
    Answer: C) Birds, animals, and flowers
  199. What is the primary theme of Pattachitra paintings of Odisha?
    A) Buddhist mythology
    B) Hindu mythology
    C) Islamic folklore
    D) Tribal legends
    Answer: B) Hindu mythology
  200. Which village in Odisha is renowned for being the original hub of Pattachitra painters?
    A) Bhubaneswar
    B) Konark
    C) Raghurajpur
    D) Sonepur
    Answer: C) Raghurajpur
  201. When is the origin of Pattachitra art traced back to?
    A) 1st century AD
    B) 5th century BC
    C) 10th century AD
    D) 15th century AD
    Answer: B) 5th century BC
  202. Which mythical creature is depicted in the Navagunjara theme of Pattachitra?
    A) Dragon
    B) Griffin
    C) Chimera
    D) Nine different creatures
    Answer: D) Nine different creatures
  203. In which regions of Odisha did Pattachitra painting flourish?
    A) Konark and Bhubaneswar
    B) Puri and Chikiti
    C) Paralakhemundi and Sonepur
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  204. What are Ganjapa playing cards in relation to Pattachitra?
    A) Square shaped painted cards
    B) Circular shaped painted cards
    C) Rectangular shaped painted cards
    D) Triangular shaped painted cards
    Answer: B) Circular shaped painted cards
  205. Who primarily prepares the canvas and applies colors in Pattachitra painting?
    A) Men
    B) Children
    C) Women
    D) Artisans
    Answer: C) Women
  206. What is the primary material used to prepare the canvas for Pattachitra paintings?
    A) Paper
    B) Cloth
    C) Wood
    D) Canvas
    Answer: B) Cloth
  207. How do artists create preliminary drawings in Pattachitra painting?
    A) Pencil sketches
    B) Charcoal sketches
    C) Brush strokes
    D) Stone etching
    Answer: C) Brush strokes
  208. Which festival is associated with the creation of Pattachitra paintings depicting Pith flowers and figures of charming women?
    A) Diwali
    B) Holi
    C) Durga Puja
    D) Jhulana
    Answer: D) Jhulana
  209. What is the traditional name for the type of pattachitra painting described in the passage?
    a) Tala Pattachitra
    b) Madhubani
    c) Warli
    d) Kalamkari
    Answer: a) Tala Pattachitra
  210. How are the images in Tala Pattachitra drawn on palm leaf?
    a) Painted with watercolors
    b) Carved into the palm leaf
    c) Traced using black or white ink to fill grooves
    d) Embroidered onto the palm leaf
    Answer: c) Traced using black or white ink to fill grooves
  211. What unique feature distinguishes Tala Pattachitra paintings from other forms of pattachitra?
    a) They are painted on cloth
    b) They are drawn on tree bark
    c) They have superimposing layers with some areas left open to show a second image
    d) They are drawn on canvas
    Answer: c) They have superimposing layers with some areas left open to show a second image
  212. Where are some examples of palm leaf manuscripts preserved?
    a) Kolkata
    b) Delhi
    c) Bhubaneswar
    d) Mumbai
    Answer: c) Bhubaneswar
  213. What material is used to create rows of equal-sized panels for Tala Pattachitra paintings?
    a) Canvas
    b) Paper
    c) Palm leaf
    d) Silk
    Answer: c) Palm leaf
  214. What is the name of the folk art form described in the passage?
    A) Pattachitra
    B) Jhoti or Chita
    C) Warli
    D) Madhubani
    Answer: B) Jhoti or Chita
  215. In which month do women folk in Odisha typically engage in decorating mud walls and floors with murals?
    A) January
    B) Margasira
    C) May
    D) September
    Answer: B) Margasira
  216. What is the primary purpose of creating Jhoti or Chita paintings?
    A) Religious worship
    B) Harvest celebrations
    C) Cultural festivals
    D) Historical documentation
    Answer: A) Religious worship
  217. Which of the following motifs are commonly used in Jhoti or Chita paintings?
    A) Mountains and rivers
    B) Cars and airplanes
    C) Lotus, flowers, and elephants
    D) Computers and smartphones
    Answer: C) Lotus, flowers, and elephants
  218. Besides mud walls and floors, where else are Jhoti paintings sometimes printed?
    A) Canvas
    B) Wood
    C) Sarees
    D) Metal plates
    Answers: C) Sarees
  219. Which of the following is the largest river in Odisha?
    A. Brahmani
    B. Subarnarekha
    C. Mahanadi
    D. Vansadhara
    Answer: C. Mahanadi
  220. Chilika Lake, one of the world’s largest brackish water lagoons, is located on which coast of Odisha?
    A. West Coast
    B. South Coast
    C. East Coast
    D. North Coast
    Answer: C. East Coast
  221. What percentage of the state of Odisha is covered by a green cover?
    A. 10%
    B. 20%
    C. 33%
    D. 50%
    Answer: C. 33%
  222. Which craton is not found in Odisha?
    A. North Odisha Craton
    B. Western Odisha Craton
    C. Eastern Odisha Craton
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C. Eastern Odisha Craton
  223. Which of the following rivers does NOT flow through Odisha?
    A. Baitarani
    B. Vansadhara
    C. Subarnarekha
    D. Godavari
    Answer: D. Godavari
  224. The coasts of Odisha are predominantly made up of which type of sediments?
    A. Igneous rocks
    B. Deltaic sediments
    C. Metamorphic rocks
    D. None of the above
    Answer: B. Deltaic sediments
  225. Which one of these is a lake in Odisha?
    A. Sambhar
    B. Kanjia
    C. Vembanad
    D. Dal
    Answer: B. Kanjia
  226. In terms of geological age, what period do the sediments found in Odisha’s cratons belong to?
    A. Jurassic
    B. Paleozoic
    C. Quaternary
    D. Cretaceous
    Answer: D. Cretaceous
  227. Which of these physiographic divisions is not a part of Odisha?
    A. Coastal plains
    B. Central plateaus
    C. Central hilly regions
    D. Western desert
    Answer: D. Western desert
  228. What is the catchment area percentage of the Mahanadi river in Odisha?
    A. 10%
    B. 20%
    C. 30%
    D. 42%
    Answer: D. 42%
  229. What body of water bounds the fertile coastal plains of Odisha to the east?
    A. Arabian Sea
    B. Indian Ocean
    C. Bay of Bengal
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C. Bay of Bengal
  230. Which part of Odisha consists of rolling uplands?
    A. Eastern and southern
    B. Western and northwestern
    C. Northern and eastern
    D. Central and southern
    Answer: B. Western and northwestern
  231. The western and northern portions of Odisha are part of which plateau?
    A. Malwa Plateau
    B. Deccan Plateau
    C. Chota Nagpur Plateau
    D. Vindhya Plateau
    Answer: C. Chota Nagpur Plateau
  232. What percentage of Odisha is covered by forests?
    A. 25%
    B. 30%
    C. 31.41%
    D. 35%
    Answer: C. 31.41%
  233. Which national park in Odisha is known for its population of tigers, elephants, and other wildlife?
    A. Nandankanan
    B. Simlipal National Park
    C. Bhitarkanika National Park
    D. Satkosia National Park
    Answer: B. Simlipal National Park
  234. What type of wildlife is protected by the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A. Tigers
    B. Estuarine crocodiles
    C. Elephants
    D. Rhinoceroses
    Answer: B. Estuarine crocodiles
  235. Which coastal lake in Odisha is the largest in India?
    A. Wular Lake
    B. Vembanad Lake
    C. Pulicat Lake
    D. Chilka Lake
    Answer: D. Chilka Lake
  236. How many migratory and resident species of birds does the Chilka Lake Bird Sanctuary harbor?
    A. Over 50 species
    B. Over 100 species
    C. Over 150 species
    D. Over 200 species
    Answer: C. Over 150 species
  237. The valleys of which rivers empty into the Bay of Bengal?
    A. Godavari and Krishna
    B. Narmada and Tapi
    C. Mahanadi, Brahmani, and Baitarani
    D. Ganges and Brahmaputra
    Answer: C. Mahanadi, Brahmani, and Baitarani
  238. Which of the following is not a major physiographic feature of Odisha?A. Fertile coastal plains
    B. Central hilly regions
    C. Desert region
    D. Mountainous highlands and plateau regions
    Answer: C. Desert region
  239. Which sanctuary in Odisha has been protecting estuarine crocodiles since 1975?
    A. Satkosia
    B. Balukhand-Konark
    C. Bhitarkanika
    D. Kuldiha
    Answer: C. Bhitarkanika
  240. What type of lake is Chilka Lake?A. Freshwater lake
    B. Brackish water lake
    C. Glacial lake
    D. Volcanic crater lake
    Answer: B. Brackish water lake
  241. Which wildlife sanctuary is known for its protection of olive ridley sea turtles?
    A. Satkosia
    B. Bhitarkanika
    C. Simlipal
    D. Gahirmatha
    Answer: D. Gahirmatha
  242. Which region of Odisha is known for having the largest expanse of lush green forests with waterfalls?
    A. Gajapati district
    B. Balasore district
    C. Cuttack district
    D. Mayurbhanj district
    Answer: D. Mayurbhanj district
  243. Which of the following rivers does not have a major floodplain in Odisha?
    A. Subarnarekha
    B. Brahmani
    C. Mahanadi
    D. Godavari
    Answer: D. Godavari
  244. What is the height of Deomali, the highest mountain peak in Odisha?
    A. 1400 m
    B. 1550 m
    C. 1672 m
    D. 1800 m
    Answer: C. 1672 m
  245. In which district of Odisha is Deomali located?
    A. Ganjam
    B. Puri
    C. Koraput
    D. Khordha
    Answer: C. Koraput
  246. Deomali is part of which mountain subsystem in Odisha?
    A. Gandhamardhan Hill
    B. Chandragiri-Pottangi
    C. Mahendragiri Hills
    D. Nilgiri Hills
    Answer: B. Chandragiri-Pottangi
  247. Deomali is one of the tallest peaks of which mountain range?
    A. Himalayas
    B. Aravalli
    C. Eastern Ghats
    D. Western Ghats
    Answer: C. Eastern Ghats
  248. Which of the following is true about Deomali?
    A. It is a volcanic peak.
    B. It is the highest mountain peak in Odisha.
    C. It is the second highest peak in India.
    D. It is located in the coastal plains of Odisha.
    Answer: B. It is the highest mountain peak in Odisha.
  249. The central mountainous and highlands region of Odisha is known for its:
    A. Coastal plains
    B. Rich mineral deposits
    C. Desert terrain
    D. Dense urban areas
    Answer: B. Rich mineral deposits
  250. The history of Odisha begins in which era, based on the discovery of Acheulian tools?
    A. Bronze Age
    B. Iron Age
    C. Lower Paleolithic era
    D. Upper Paleolithic era
    Answer: C. Lower Paleolithic era
  251. which ancient texts can the early history of Odisha be traced back to?A. Vedas and Upanishads
    B. Mahabharata and some Puranas
    C. Ramayana and Manusmriti
    D. Arthashastra and Kalidasa’s works
    Answer: B. Mahabharata and some Puranas
  252. Which East Indian region was Odisha known to due to maritime trade relations?
    A. China
    B. East Indies
    C. Persia
    D. Arabian Peninsula
    Answer: B. East Indies
  253. In which year did the armies of the Sultanate of Bengal conquer the region?
    A. 1450 CE
    B. 1505 CE
    C. 1568 CE
    D. 1650 CE
    Answer: C. 1568 CE
  254. Who led the armies of the Sultanate of Bengal during the conquest of the region?
    A. Aurangzeb
    B. Kalapahad
    C. Sher Shah Suri
    D. Shah Jahan
    Answer: B. Kalapahad
  255. By which year had Odisha completely passed to the Mughal Empire?A. 1593
    B. 1650
    C. 1700
    D. 1751
    Answer: A. 1593
  256. Which empire took control of Odisha after the Marathas?
    A. Mughal Empire
    B. Maurya Empire
    C. British Empire
    D. Gupta Empire
    Answer: C. British Empire
  257. In which year was the province of Odisha formed on the basis of populations of Odia-speaking people?A. 1920
    B. 1936
    C. 1947
    D. 1956
    Answer: B. 1936
  258. Which famous general led the conquest of Odisha under the Sultanate of Bengal?
    A. Malik Kafur
    B. Kalapahad
    C. Babur
    D. Tipu Sultan
    Answer: B. Kalapahad
  259. During which era did literature and poetry flourish in Odisha under the Marathas’ control?
    A. 15th century
    B. 16th century
    C. 17th century
    D. 18th century
    Answer: D. 18th century
  260. Which ancient kingdom did prince Kalinga found, according to some scriptures?
    A. Utkala
    B. Kalinga
    C. Vanga
    D. Pundra
    Answer: B. Kalinga
  261. What is the literal meaning of the name “Mahakantara” found in some Gupta-era inscriptions?
    A. Great River
    B. Great Plain
    C. Great Forest
    D. Great Mountain
    Answer: C. Great Forest
  262. Which ancient region might be associated with the modern-day Kalahandi and Jeypore region?
    A. Tosali
    B. Mahakantara
    C. Utkala
    D. Kongoda
    Answer: B. Mahakantara
  263. Which ethnic group might “Udra” (or Udra-desha) have originally referred to?
    A. Vaisya
    B. Brahmin
    C. Sudra
    D. Udra
    Answer: D. Udra
  264. Which name was used in Buddhist texts and might have referred to Odisha?
    A. Mahakantara
    B. Kongoda
    C. Oddiyana
    D. Kalinga
    Answer: C. Oddiyana
  265. Which ancient region is associated with the name “Kamala Mandala” in a 13th-century inscription?
    A. Ganjam
    B. Jajpur
    C. Kalahandi
    D. Koraput
    Answer: C. Kalahandi
  266. Which region is also known as Dakshina Kosala and may include parts of modern-day Chhattisgarh and Western Odisha?
    A. Chedi
    B. Utkala
    C. Kongoda
    D. South Kosala
    Answer: D. South Kosala
  267. What does “Trikalinga” refer to according to copper plate inscriptions found in Sonepur?
    A. A region in the northern part of Odisha
    B. A subdivision of Kalinga
    C. Three different Kalinga states (Kalinga, South Kosala, and Kangoda)
    D. A region in the southern part of Odisha
    Answer: C. Three different Kalinga states (Kalinga, South Kosala, and Kangoda)
  268. Which name was used in the Tabaqat-i-Nasiri and Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi to refer to Odisha?
    A. Odivissa
    B. Jajnagar
    C. Tosali
    D. Uranshin
    Answer: B. Jajnagar
  269. What was the capital of Tosala, possibly a subdivision of Kalinga in the Ashoka-era?
    A. Bhubaneswar
    B. Puri
    C. Cuttack
    D. Dhauli
    Answer: D. Dhauli
  270. What geological supercontinent did peninsular India, including Odisha, belong to 140 million years ago?
    A. Laurasia
    B. Pangaea
    C. Gondwana
    D. Rodinia
    Answer: C. Gondwana
  271. What type of rock from the Mayurbhanj granite pluton has been dated to 3.09 billion years ago (Ga)?
    A. Basalt
    B. Marble
    C. Granite
    D. Limestone
    Answer: C. Granite
  272. Where were charophytes from the Permian Period discovered in Odisha?
    A. Ib river area
    B. Mahanadi basin
    C. Talcher region
    D. Cuttack district
    Answer: C. Talcher region
  273. In which districts have Acheulian tools dating to Lower Paleolithic times been found in Odisha?
    A. Balasore and Bhadrak
    B. Khordha and Puri
    C. Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Sundargarh, and Sambalpur
    D. Ganjam and Rayagada
    Answer: C. Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Sundargarh, and Sambalpur
  274. Where are rock carvings and paintings dating to the Upper Paleolithic found in Odisha?
    A. Garjan Dongar in Sundergarh district
    B. Gudahandi hills in Kalahandi district
    C. Ushakothi in Sambalpur district
    D. Vimkramkhol in Jharsuguda district
    Answer: B. Gudahandi hills in Kalahandi district
  275. What kinds of Neolithic tools were found in Kuchai, near Baripada?
    A. Arrowheads and spear points
    B. Hoes, chisels, pounders, and pottery
    C. Flint hand axes and scrapers
    D. Bone needles and awls
    Answer: B. Hoes, chisels, pounders, and pottery
  276. Where have prehistoric paintings and inscriptions been found in Odisha?
    A. Dhankanal and Nayagarh districts
    B. Garjan Dongar in Sundergarh district
    C. Rayagada and Koraput districts
    D. Khordha and Nayagarh districts
    Answer: B. Garjan Dongar in Sundergarh district
  277. What script might the inscriptions at Ushakothi and Vimkramkhol possibly be?
    A. Sanskrit
    B. Devanagari
    C. Proto-Brahmi
    D. Tamil-Brahmi
    Answer: C. Proto-Brahmi
  278. In which district can cave paintings from the Neolithic era be found in Odisha?
    A. Cuttack district
    B. Khordha district
    C. Koraput district
    D. Nuapada district (Yogimath near Khariar)
    Answer: D. Nuapada district (Yogimath near Khariar)
  279. What kind of fossils are known to be found in the coal fields of Mahanadi and Ib river basins?
    A. Dinosaur bones
    B. Megaspores from the Upper Permian
    C. Trilobites from the Ordovician
    D. Ammonites from the Jurassic
    Answer: B. Megaspores from the Upper Permian
  280. In which city was Asia’s first dedicated command and control centre for space domain awareness inaugurated?
    A) Mumbai
    B) Delhi
    C) Bengaluru
    D) Hyderabad
    Answer: C) Bengaluru
  281. What type of facility was inaugurated in Bengaluru, making it the first of its kind in Asia?
    A) Hospital
    B) School
    C) Command and control centre for space domain awareness
    D) Research laboratory
    Answer: C) Command and control centre for space domain awareness
  282. Which company’s global headquarters houses the newly opened command and control centre for space domain awareness in Bengaluru?
    A) SpaceX
    B) NASA
    C) Digantara
    D) ISRO
    Answer: C) Digantara
  283. What is the specialization of Digantara, the company that inaugurated the command and control centre in Bengaluru?
    A) Health awareness
    B) Space situational awareness (SSA)
    C) Agricultural technology
    D) Financial services
    Answer: B) Space situational awareness (SSA)
  284. At which meeting did ISRO Chairman S. Somanath announce India’s commitment to achieving debris-free space missions by 2030?
    A) 40th IADC meeting
    B) 42nd IADC meeting
    C) 44th IADC meeting
    D) 46th IADC meeting
    Answer: B) 42nd IADC meeting
  285. What is India’s target year to achieve debris-free space missions, as announced by ISRO Chairman S. Somanath?
    A) 2025
    B) 2030
    C) 2040
    D) 2050
    Answer: B) 2030
  286. Who made the announcement regarding India’s commitment to debris-free space missions at the 42nd IADC meeting?
    A) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    B) ISRO Chairman S. Somanath
    C) DRDO Chief G. Satheesh Reddy
    D) Indian Space Minister Jitendra Singh
    Answer: B) ISRO Chairman S. Somanath
  287. Which country recently received the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles from India?
    A) Vietnam
    B) Philippines
    C) Indonesia
    D) Malaysia
    Answer: B) Philippines
  288. What is significant about the delivery of BrahMos missiles to the Philippines?
    A) It marks the first export of BrahMos missiles to any country.
    B) It signifies India’s defense cooperation with Malaysia.
    C) It represents the first-ever defense deal between India and Vietnam.
    D) It indicates India’s military alliance with Indonesia.
    Answer: A) It marks the first export of BrahMos missiles to any country.
  289. How much was the deal worth between India and the Philippines for the BrahMos missiles?
    A) $200 million
    B) $300 million
    C) $375 million
    D) $500 million
    Answer: C) $375 million
  290. When was the deal for the BrahMos missiles between India and the Philippines signed?
    A) January 2020
    B) January 2021
    C) January 2022
    D) January 2023
    Answer: C) January 2022
  291. What kind of missiles are BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles?
    A) Ballistic missiles
    B) Anti-aircraft missiles
    C) Cruise missiles
    D) Intercontinental ballistic missiles
    Answer: C) Cruise missiles
  292. Where was the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) test-fired by DRDO?
    A) Bengaluru
    B) Hyderabad
    C) Chandipur, Odisha
    D) New Delhi
    Answer: C) Chandipur, Odisha
  293. What key features of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) were demonstrated during the test?
    A) High-altitude flight and long-range accuracy
    B) Precise navigation, low-altitude sea-skimming flight, and reliability of propulsion
    C) Surface-to-air capability and anti-ship targeting
    D) Submarine-launched deployment and stealth capability
    Answer: B) Precise navigation, low-altitude sea-skimming flight, and reliability of propulsion
  294. Who conducted the successful test flight of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM)?
    A) Indian Navy
    B) Indian Army
    C) Indian Air Force
    D) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
    Answer: D) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  295. Which location in Odisha served as the testing site for the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM)?
    A) Bhubaneswar
    B) Cuttack
    C) Chandipur
    D) Puri
    Answer: C) Chandipur
  296. Which entity closely monitored the performance of the Indigenous Technology Cruise Missile (ITCM) during the test?
    A) Indian Navy
    B) Various sensors
    C) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    D) Foreign military observers
    Answer: B) Various sensors
  297. Who shared plans for the next moon mission, Chandrayaan-4, in 2040?
    A) Narendra Modi
    B) S Somanath
    C) Rakesh Sharma
    D) K Sivan
    Answer: B) S Somanath
    Which organization is spearheading India’s lunar exploration efforts?
    A) NASA
    B) ISRO
    C) ESA
    D) CNSA
    Answer: B) ISRO
  298. What is the primary objective of the upcoming phase of the Chandrayaan project?
    A) Exploring Mars
    B) Advancing lunar exploration efforts
    C) Studying asteroids
    D) Investigating exoplanets
    Answer: B) Advancing lunar exploration efforts
  299. What milestone does Chandrayaan-4 aim to achieve for India by 2040?
    A) Establishing a permanent lunar base
    B) Landing an astronaut on the moon
    C) Mapping the entire lunar surface
    D) Extracting water from lunar soil
    Answer: B) Landing an astronaut on the moon
  300. When is the expected timeline for the Chandrayaan-4 mission?
    A) 2030
    B) 2040
    C) 2050
    D) 2060
    Answer: B) 2040
  301. When did Arabica coffee reportedly develop according to genome sequencing?
    A) 6,000 years ago
    B) 60,000 years ago
    C) 600,000 years ago
    D) 6 million years ago
    Answer: C) 600,000 years ago
  302. Where did Arabica coffee develop, according to the report?
    A) Colombia
    B) Ethiopia
    C) Brazil
    D) Indonesia
    Answer: B) Ethiopia
  303. What were the two coffee species involved in the natural hybridization process?
    A) Coffea robusta and Coffea arabica
    B) Coffea arabica and Coffea liberica
    C) Coffea canephora and Coffea eugenioides
    D) Coffea arabica and Coffea excelsa
    Answer: C) Coffea canephora and Coffea eugenioides
  304. What is the aim of India’s ₹10,000 crore Artificial Intelligence Mission?
    A) Boosting the coffee industry
    B) Enhancing the country’s AI ecosystem
    C) Promoting tourism
    D) Supporting traditional farming methods
    Answer: B) Enhancing the country’s AI ecosystem
  305. Which company is India considering striking a deal with for sourcing GPUs?
    A) Intel
    B) AMD
    C) Nvidia
    D) Qualcomm
    Answer: C) Nvidia
  306. Who announced the launch of the new artificial intelligence (AI) assistant, Meta AI?
    A) Google
    B) Apple
    C) Meta Platforms
    D) Microsoft
    Answer: C) Meta Platforms
  307. What is the name of the latest AI model powering Meta AI?
    A) Tiger 5
    B) Llama 3
    C) Elephant 2
    D) Rhino 4
    Answer: B) Llama 3
  308. What is the purpose of Meta AI?
    A) Enhancing virtual reality experiences
    B) Providing users with highly intelligent AI assistance
    C) Developing self-driving cars
    D) Improving mobile gaming performance
    Answer: B) Providing users with highly intelligent AI assistance
  309. Which social media and messaging platforms will integrate Meta AI?
    A) Twitter and LinkedIn
    B) Facebook, Instagram, and WhatsApp
    C) Snapchat and TikTok
    D) Pinterest and Reddit
    Answer: B) Facebook, Instagram, and WhatsApp
  310. What is the pricing strategy for Meta AI?
    A) Premium subscription-based model
    B) Pay-per-use model
    C) Freemium model
    D) Free-to-use model
    Answer: D) Free-to-use model
  311. What is the purpose of a fathometer?
    A) Measuring earthquakes
    B) Measuring rainfall
    C) Measuring ocean depth
    D) Measuring sound intensity
    Answer: C) Measuring ocean depthExplanation: A fathometer is a depth finder that uses sound waves to determine the depth of water.
  312. What is Epsom, England, associated with?
    A) Snooker
    B) Shooting
    C) Polo
    D) Horse racingAnswer: D) Horse racingExplanation: Epsom is a town in Surrey, England, known for Epsom Downs Racecourse,
  313. where The Derby horse race is held.
    Who was the fastest shorthand writer?
    A) Dr. G. D. Bist
    B) J.R.D. Tata
    C) J.M. Tagore
    D) Khudada Khan
    Answer: A) Dr. G. D. BistExplanation: Dr. G. D. Bist, a Guinness Record Holder, achieved a speed of 250 w.p.m. in shorthand.
  314. Which country does golf player Vijay Singh belong to?
    A) USA
    B) Fiji
    C) India
    D) UK
    Answer: B) FijiExplanation: Vijay Singh, known as “The Big Fijian,” is an Indo-Fijian golfer born in Fiji.
  315. “One People, One State, One leader” was the policy of
    A) Stalin
    B) Hitler
    C) Lenin
    D) Mussolini
    Answer: B) HitlerExplanation: This policy was associated with Hitler’s regime in Germany.
  316. What is the full form of IG in the police department?
    Answer: IG stands for Inspector General of Police.
  317. What does DRDL stand for?
    A) Defence Research and Development Laboratory
    B) Department of Research and Development Laboratory
    C) Differential Research and Documentation Laboratory
    D) None of the above
    Answer: A) Defence Research and Development Laboratory
  318. Why does exposure to sunlight help improve health?
    A) The infrared light kills bacteria in the body
    B) Resistance power increases
    C) The pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan
    D) The ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D
    Answer: D) The ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D
  319. Where is the headquarters of the registered voluntary association “Transparency International” located?
    (a) Helsinki, Finland
    (b) Geneva, Switzerland
    (c) Berlin, Germany
    (d) Paris, France
    Ans: (c) Berlin, Germany
  320. Who appoints the Secretary-General of the United Nations Organization?
    (a) General Assembly
    (b) Security Council
    (c) Trusteeship Council
    (d) World Bank
    Ans: (a) General Assembly
  321. Which countries does the International Criminal Court lack jurisdiction over?
    (a) France, China, Pakistan, Afghanistan
    (b) UK, France, China, Pakistan
    (c) USA, UK, Russia, France
    (d) USA, Russia, China, Israel
    Ans: (d) USA, Russia, China, Israel
  322. Seasonal variation in Earth’s weather condition is the effect of _____ of the Earth?
    (a) Diastrophism
    (b) Erosion
    (c) Revolution
    (d) Rotation
    Ans: (c) Revolution
  323. Which planet of the Solar system experiences Sunrise on the West?
    (a) Jupiter
    (b) Venus
    (c) Mercury
    (d) Mars
    Ans: (b) Venus
  324. What is the difference between a Nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb?
    (a) No chain reaction takes place in the atomic bomb while it takes place in a nuclear reactor
    (b) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled
    (c) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
    (d) No chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor while in the atomic bomb there is a chain reaction
    Ans: (c) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled
  325. Which of the following is used for indigestion?
    (a) Baking Soda
    (b) Milk of Magnesia
    (c) Quick lime (calcium oxide)
    (d) All of the above
    Ans: (d) All of the above
  326. What is the process of drilling small-sized holes deep into the Earth’s surface for injecting water, sand, and chemicals in order to obtain shale gas and oil reserves known as?
    (a) Fracking
    (b) Chroning
    (c) Dreecking
    (d) Pulverising
    Ans: (a) Fracking
  327. In superconductivity, the conductivity of a material becomes_______
    (a) Infinite
    (b) Finite
    (c) Zero
    (d) None of the above
    Ans: (a) Infinite
  328. What is the general pitch of the voice of women?
    (a) The same as that of men
    (b) Much lower than that of men
    (c) Higher than that of men
    (d) Marginally lower than that of men
    Ans: (c) Higher than that of men
  329. What is responsible for the diffusion of light in the atmosphere?
    (a) Water vapors
    (b) Helium
    (c) Dust particles
    (d) Carbon Dioxide
    Ans: (c) Dust particles
  330. What source provides some heat to the atmosphere even after sunset?
    (a) Albedo effect
    (b) Latent heat
    (c) Invisible solar radiation
    (d) Terrestrial radiation
    Ans: (d) Terrestrial radiation
  331. The permanent hardness of water is primarily due to the presence of _______.
    (a) Bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium
    (b) Carbonates of sodium and magnesium
    (c) Sulphates of magnesium and calcium
    (d) Sulphates of sodium and potassium
    Ans: (c) Sulphates of magnesium and calcium
  332. Among the following planets, which one does not orbit the Sun from west to east?
    (a) Venus
    (b) Jupiter
    (c) Mars
    (d) Mercury
    Ans: (a) Venus
  333. Which planet(s) does not have a natural satellite?
    (a) Mercury
    (b) Venus
    (c) Both (a) and (b)
    (d) Saturn
    Ans: (c) Both (a) and (b)
  334. Which continent is known as a hollow continent due to its low population in the central areas?
    (a) Europe
    (b) South America
    (c) Australia
    (d) Africa
    Ans: (b) South America
  335. The Murray-Darling system, one of the greatest rivers in the world, is located in which country?
    (a) Germany
    (b) Australia
    (c) Russia
    (d) Canada
    Ans: (b) Australia
  336. Polar Stratospheric Clouds are associated with which environmental phenomenon?
    (a) Artificial Rain
    (b) Acid Rain
    (c) Greenhouse effect
    (d) Ozone layer depletion
    Ans: (d) Ozone layer depletion
  337. Which type of Laser is commonly used in Laser Printers?
    (a) Gas Laser
    (b) Dye Laser
    (c) Excimer Laser
    (d) Semiconductor Laser
    Ans: (d) Semiconductor Laser
  338. The ozone layer prevents the entry of which types of rays into the atmosphere?
    (a) UV-A only
    (b) UV-B only
    (c) UV-C only
    (d) Both UV-B and UV-C
    Ans: (d) Both UV-B and UV-C
  339. What happens to the value of ‘g’ as we move from the equator to the poles?
    (a) Remains the same
    (b) Increases
    (c) Decreases
    (d) None of these
    Ans: (c) Decreases
  340. Which of the following is not considered a structural reform in India?
    (a) Reduction of interest rates
    (b) Land reforms
    (c) Tax reforms
    (d) Delicensing
    Ans: (c) Tax reforms
  341. During which astronomical event can Baily’s beads be observed?
    a) Occultation of Jupiter
    b) Partial solar eclipse
    c) Lunar eclipse
    d) Total solar eclipse
    Answer: d) Total solar eclipse
  342. In the Northern Hemisphere, on which day does the Summer Solstice occur?
    a) 22nd December
    b) 21st March
    c) 23rd September
    d) 21st June
    Answer: d) 21st June
  343. What does the Japanese word “tsunami” mean?
    a) Gneiss
    b) Jishin
    c) Volcano
    d) Tsunami
    Answer: d) Tsunami
  344. Which state in India is the largest producer of mica?
    a) Madhya Pradesh
    b) Rajasthan
    c) Jharkhand
    d) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: d) Andhra Pradesh
  345. Individuals like small farmers and seasonal workers who regularly move in and out of poverty are categorized as _______?
    a) Occasionally poor
    b) Churning poor
    c) Always poor
    d) Usually poor
    Answer: b) Churning poor
  346. Which branch of Economics is also known as “Income and employment theory”?
    a) International economics
    b) Public finance
    c) Microeconomics
    d) Macroeconomics
    Answer: d) Macroeconomics
  347. ______ is a type of good for which demand increases as its price rises?
    a) Giffen Good
    b) Capital Good
    c) Consumer Good
    d) None
    Answer: a) Giffen Good
  348. What is the full form of GSTIN in relation to GST?
    a) Goods and Services Tax Identification Note
    b) Goods and Services Tax Identification Number
    c) Goods and Services Tax Information Number
    d) Goods and Services Taxation Income Number
    Answer: b) Goods and Services Tax Identification Number
  349. What is the full form of NPCI, an umbrella organization for all retail payments systems in India?
    a) National Payments Corporation of India
    b) Non-cash Payments Corporation of India
    c) Non-cash Payments Cooperative Inc
    d) Net Payments Company Inc.
    Answer: a) National Payments Corporation of India
  350. The period of the 12th Five Year Plan was?
    a) 2012-2017
    b) 2007-2012
    c) 2002-2007
    d) 1997-2002
    Answer: a) 2012-2017
  351. Which of the following entities is NOT classified as a Constitutional body?
    A) Finance Commission
    B) NITI Aayog
    C) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
    D) Election Commission
    Answer: B) NITI Aayog
  352. From which country’s constitutional framework was the concept of judicial review and the principle of an independent judiciary adopted in the Indian Constitution?
    A) Australia
    B) Germany
    C) Japan
    D) America
    Answer: D) America
  353. Which article of the Indian Constitution pertains to the establishment of a Finance Commission?
    A) Article 300
    B) Article 290
    C) Article 320
    D) Article 280
    Answer: D) Article 280
  354. In which year was the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act enacted?
    A) 1978
    B) 1975
    C) 1976
    D) 1972
    Answer: A) 1978
  355. What constitutes the Parliament of India?
    A) President, House of the People, and Council of States
    B) House of the People
    C) House of the People and Council of States
    D) Council of States
    Answer: A) President, House of the People, and Council of States
  356. Which subject matter falls under the exclusive legislative jurisdiction of the Union Legislature?
    A) Public health
    B) Police
    C) Railways
    D) Local self-government
    Answer: C) Railways
  357. In which location was the Khilafat Committee established by the Ali brothers?
    A) Bombay in 1919
    B) Madras in 1920
    C) Kolkata in 1919
    D) Bombay in 1914
    Answer: A) Bombay in 1919
  358. Which planet is known as the “Red Planet”?
    A) Mars
    B) Jupiter
    C) Venus
    D) Saturn
    Ans: A) Mars
  359. Who composed the Indian national anthem, “Jana Gana Mana”?
    A) Rabindranath Tagore
    B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
    C) Sarojini Naidu
    D) Mahatma Gandhi
    Ans: A) Rabindranath Tagore
  360. Which Indian state is the largest producer of coffee?
    A) Karnataka
    B) Kerala
    C) Tamil Nadu
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Ans: A) Karnataka
  361. Who is known as the “Father of Modern Physics”?
    A) Albert Einstein
    B) Isaac Newton
    C) Galileo Galilei
    D) Nikola Tesla
    Ans: A) Albert Einstein
  362. The “Bharat Ratna” award is given in which field?
    A) Literature, Science, and Arts
    B) Sports
    C) Social Work
    D) Journalism
    Ans: A) Literature, Science, and Arts
  363. Which country is known as the “Land of the Rising Sun”?
    A) Japan
    B) China
    C) South Korea
    D) Vietnam
    Ans: A) Japan
  364. The “Nobel Prize” was established by which country’s inventor and industrialist?
    A) Alfred Nobel (Sweden)
    B) Thomas Edison (USA)
    C) Nikola Tesla (Croatia)
    D) Alexander Graham Bell (Scotland)
    Ans: A) Alfred Nobel (Sweden)
  365. Which Indian state is known as the “Spice Garden of India”?
    A) Kerala
    B) Karnataka
    C) Tamil Nadu
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Ans: A) Kerala
  366. Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire in ancient India?
    A) Chandragupta Maurya
    B) Ashoka the Great
    C) Bindusara
    D) Bimbisara
    Ans: A) Chandragupta Maurya
  367. The “World Health Day” is observed on which date?
    A) April 7th
    B) June 5th
    C) October 2nd
    D) December 10th
    Ans: A) April 7th
  368. Who wrote the epic Indian Sanskrit poem “Ramayana”?
    A) Valmiki
    B) Ved Vyasa
    C) Tulsidas
    D) Kalidasa
    Ans: A) Valmiki
  369. Which metal is used in the filament of an electric bulb?
    A) Tungsten
    B) Copper
    C) Aluminum
    D) Silver
    Ans: A) Tungsten
  370. Who is the author of the book “The God of Small Things”?
    A) Arundhati Roy
    B) Salman Rushdie
    C) Amitav Ghosh
    D) Jhumpa Lahiri
    Ans: A) Arundhati Roy
  371. Question: What is the volume of a cylinder with a radius of 3 cm and height of 10 cm?
    Options:
    A) 282.74 cm³
    B) 282.45 cm³
    C) 282.50 cm³
    D) 283.33 cm³
    Solution:
    Volume of a cylinder = πr²h
    = π * 3² * 10
    = π * 9 * 10
    = 282.74 cm³ (approx)
    Answer: A) 282.74 cm³
  372. Question: What is the probability of rolling a sum of 7 with two six-sided dice?
    Options:
    A) 1/6
    B) 1/9
    C) 1/12
    D) 1/36
    Solution:
    Possible ways to roll a 7: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2), (6,1).
    There are 6 outcomes out of 36 total outcomes.
    Probability = 6 / 36 = 1 / 6
    Answer: A) 1/6
  373. Question: A can complete a work in 10 days, and B can complete the same work in 15 days. How many days will it take if they work together?
    Options:
    A) 6 days
    B) 5 days
    C) 7 days
    D) 8 days
    Solution:
    Work done by A in one day = 1/10
    Work done by B in one day = 1/15
    Together, their work per day = 1/10 + 1/15
    = 3/30 + 2/30 = 5/30 = 1/6
    So, together they will take 6 days to complete the work.
    Answer: A) 6 days
  374. Question: If 3 parts of a mixture contains 2 parts of salt, how much salt would be there in a mixture of 15 parts?
    Options:
    A) 5 parts
    B) 6 parts
    C) 7 parts
    D) 10 parts
    Solution:
    Ratio of salt to mixture = 2/3
    Therefore, salt in 15 parts = (2/3) * 15 = 10 parts
    Answer: D) 10 parts
  375. Question: A boat can travel at 12 km/h in still water. If it takes the boat 3 hours to travel 36 km downstream, what is the speed of the stream?
    Options:
    A) 3 km/h
    B) 4 km/h
    C) 5 km/h
    D) 6 km/h
    Solution:
    Speed downstream = Distance / Time
    = 36 km / 3 hours = 12 km/h
    Boat speed in still water = 12 km/h
    Therefore, stream speed = (downstream speed) – (still water speed)
    = 12 km/h – 12 km/h
    = 0 km/h
    Answer: A) 3 km/h
  376. Question: What is the simple interest on a principal amount of $800 at an interest rate of 4% per year for 3 years?
    Options:
    A) $90
    B) $96
    C) $97
    D) $98
    Solution:
    Simple interest = Principal * Rate * Time
    = $800 * 0.04 * 3
    = $96
    Answer: B) $96
  377. Question: A car travels a distance of 120 km in 2 hours. What is the speed of the car in km/h?
    Options:
    A) 50 km/h
    B) 60 km/h
    C) 70 km/h
    D) 80 km/h
    Solution:
    Speed = Distance / Time
    = 120 km / 2 hours
    = 60 km/h
    Answer: B) 60 km/h
  378. Question: A train 150 meters long is running at a speed of 60 km/h. How long will it take to pass a 180-meter-long platform?
    Options:
    A) 12 seconds
    B) 15 seconds
    C) 18 seconds
    D) 20 seconds
    Solution:
    Total distance = Length of train + Length of platform
    = 150 m + 180 m = 330 m
    Speed of the train in m/s = (60 * 1000) / 3600 = 16.67 m/s
    Time = Distance / Speed
    = 330 m / 16.67 m/s
    = 19.8 seconds
    Answer: C) 18 seconds
  379. Question: In 5 years, John’s age will be twice his age 3 years ago. How old is he now?
    Options:
    A) 8 years
    B) 10 years
    C) 12 years
    D) 15 years
    Answer: B) 11 years
    Solution:
    Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10_3.1
  380. Question: A 20-liter mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 3:2. How much water must be added to the mixture to make the ratio 1:1?
    Options:
    A) 5 liters
    B) 8 liters
    C) 4 liters
    D) 6 liters
    Answer: C) 4 liters
  381. Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10_4.1
  382. Question: What is the total surface area of a cube with side length 5 cm?
    Options:
    A) 150 sq. cm
    B) 125 sq. cm
    C) 100 sq. cm
    D) 75 sq. cm
    Solution:
    Total surface area of a cube = 6 * side²
    = 6 * 5²
    = 6 * 25
    = 150 sq. cm
    Answer: A) 150 sq. cm
  383. Question: How many ways can the letters of the word “CAT” be arranged?
    Options:
    A) 6 ways
    B) 4 ways
    C) 3 ways
    D) 2 ways
    Solution:
    The word “CAT” has 3 distinct letters.
    Therefore, the number of permutations is 3! = 3 * 2 * 1 = 6 ways.
    Answer: A) 6 ways
  384. Question: The LCM of two numbers is 84, and their HCF is 6. If one number is 42, what is the other number?
    Options:
    A) 12
    B) 14
    C) 28
    D) 21
    Solution:
    Let the other number be x.
    We know the relation: LCM * HCF = a * b.
    Therefore, 84 * 6 = 42 * x.
    Simplify:
    x=(84*6)/42=12
    Answer: C) 12
  385. Question: Pipe A can fill a tank in 12 hours, and pipe B can fill it in 8 hours. How long will it take to fill the tank if both pipes are used together?
    Options:
    A) 4.8 hours
    B) 5 hours
    C) 6 hours
    D) 6.4 hours
    Solution:
    Rate of pipe A = 1/12
    Rate of pipe B = 1/8
    Combined rate =
    1/12+1/8=(2+3)/24=5/24
    Time taken to fill the tank = 5/24=4.8 hours
    Answer: A) 4.8 hours
  386. Question: If a product originally costs $120 and it is on sale for a 25% discount, what is the sale price?
    Options:
    A) $100
    B) $90
    C) $100.50
    D) $94
    Solution:
    Discount = 25% of $120
    = 0.25 * $120
    = $30
    Sale price = $120 – $30
    = $90
    Answer: B) $90
  387. Question: Solve the equation: 3x−4=8.
    Options:
    A) x = 4
    B) x = 5
    C) x = 3
    D) x = 2
    Answer: A) x = 4
    Solution:
    3x−4=8
    Add 4 to both sides:
    3x=12
    Divide by 3:
    x=4
  388. Question: If the sum of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 15, what is the larger number?
    Options:
    A) 30
    B) 20
    C) 15
    D) 25
    Solution:
    Let the numbers be x and y
    then x+y=45 and x-y=15
    Add the equations:
    2x=60
    Solve for x=30
    Therefore, the larger number is 30.
    Answer: A) 30
  389. Question: The average of five numbers is 20. If one number is removed, the average becomes 23. What was the number removed?
    Options:
    A) 5
    B) 7
    C) 15
    D) 25
    Solution:
    Average of 5 numbers = 20
    Sum of 5 numbers =
    20×5=100
    New average after removing one number = 23
    Sum of 4 numbers = 23×4=92
    Therefore, the number removed = 100−92=8.
    Answer: D) 8
  390. Question: A shopkeeper buys 20 items for $10 each and sells them for $15 each. What is the total profit?
    Options:
    A) $75
    B) $100
    C) $50
    D) $25
    Solution:
    Cost price = 20 items * $10 each = $200
    Selling price = 20 items * $15 each = $300
    Profit = Selling price – Cost price = $300 – $200 = $100
    Answer: B) $100
  391. Question: Find the missing number in the sequence: 2, 3, 6, 4, 5, 20, ?, 3, 18.Options:
    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 3
    D) 9
    Answer: B) 6
    Solution: The pattern in the series involves multiplication of consecutive numbers.
  392. Question: Find the missing number in the sequence: 1, 3, 9, 15, 25, ?, 49.Options:
    A) 29
    B) 35
    C) 33
    D) 31
    Answer: B) 35
    Solution: The sequence consists of squares and (squares – 1) alternatively.
  393. Question: Find the missing number in the sequence: 5, 7, 11, ?, 17, 19.Options:
    A) 15
    B) 14
    C) 13
    D) 12
    Answer: C) 13
    Solution: The sequence consists of consecutive prime numbers: 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19. Therefore, the missing number in the sequence is 13.
  394. Question: Find the missing number in the sequence: 4, 8, 12, 20, ?, 40.Options:
    A) 24
    B) 28
    C) 32
    D) 36
    Answer: C) 32
    Solution: The sequence follows the pattern of multiplying the first number by an increasing multiplier
  395. Question: Find the missing number in the sequence: 5, 10, 20, ?, 80, 160.Options:
    A) 40
    B) 25
    C) 30
    D) 50
    Answer: A) 40
    Solution: The sequence doubles each term:
    5×2=10,
    10×2=20, and so on. Therefore,
    20×2=40. So, the missing number is 40.
  396. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% of the apples and still has 420 apples. What is the total number of apples he had originally?Options:
    A) 700 apples
    B) 720 apples
    C) 600 apples
    D) 650 apples
    Answer: A) 700 apples
  397. A person multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation?Options:
    A) 48%
    B) 56%
    C) 64%
    D) 72%
    Answer: C) 64%
  398. Simplify: 5^2-3^2=?
    • Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10_5.1
  399. Simplify: 3^4/3^2=?
    • Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10_6.1
  400. Solve the Quadratic Equation: x^2-3x+2=0
    • Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-10_7.1

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