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Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-3

Aspirants preparing for the OSSSC RI (Revenue Inspector), ARI (Assistant Revenue Inspector), and Amin examinations are gearing up for the challenges ahead. These roles are pivotal in the administration of revenue and land records, requiring a deep understanding of legal procedures, administrative responsibilities, and practical applications of revenue laws. To assist candidates in their preparation journey, we have curated a comprehensive weekly practice quiz focusing on key areas essential for these roles. The quiz for June-1 covers a range of topics designed to test your knowledge, analytical skills, and ability to apply concepts to practical scenarios. Let’s delve into the details of what this week’s quiz entails:

Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-3 PDF Download

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-3

  1. In which state of India is the harvest festival of ‘Kailpodh’ celebrated by an indigenous community?
    A) Odisha
    B) Madhya Pradesh
    C) Jharkhand
    D) Karnataka
    Answer: D) Karnataka
    Explanation: Kailpodh is an indigenous harvest festival celebrated in Kodagu (Coorg), Karnataka.
  2. The _____ festival is celebrated by the Ahom people of Assam on 31st January every year in memory of the departed.
    A) Me-Dam-Me-Phi
    B) TirthaMukh
    C) Lampra Puja
    D) Ashokastami
    Answer: A) Me-Dam-Me-Phi
    Explanation: Me-Dam-Me-Phi is the most important ancestor worship festival in the Ahom religion, celebrated by the Ahom people on 31 January every year in memory of the departed.
  3. ‘Bathukamma’ and ‘Bonalu’ are state festivals of:
    A) Karnataka
    B) Tamil Nadu
    C) Kerala
    D) Telangana
    Answer: D) Telangana
    Explanation: Bathukamma and Bonalu are state festivals of Telangana. Telangana was declared a full-fledged state on 2 June 2014 after separating from Andhra Pradesh.
  4. _____ is a festival of Zoroastrian origin which marks the day of the vernal equinox in March every year and is celebrated by Parsis in India.
    A) Frawardigan
    B) Khordad Sal
    C) Jamshedi Navroz
    D) Pateti
    Answer: C) Jamshedi Navroz
    Explanation: Jamshedi Navroz is a festival of Zoroastrian origin, marking the day of the vernal equinox in March and celebrated by Parsis in India as their New Year.
  5. Ravindra Sangeet is a collection of folk songs which are sung during the festivals and rituals of which state?
    A) Himachal Pradesh
    B) Maharashtra
    C) West Bengal
    D) Bihar
    Answer: C) West Bengal
    Explanation: Also known as Tagore Songs, Rabindra Sangeet consists of songs written and composed by Rabindranath Tagore, sung during festivals and rituals in West Bengal.
  6. In which of the following festivals does the meaning translate to ‘merry making of the gods’?
    A) Diwali
    B) Pongal
    C) Lai Haraoba
    D) Makar Sankranti
    Answer: C) Lai Haraoba
    Explanation: Lai Haraoba is a ritualistic festival of Manipur that is believed to be the re-enactment of the creation of the universe by the gods and goddesses.
  7. Saga Dawa is a festival of which state?
    A) Sikkim
    B) Tripura
    C) Manipur
    D) Assam
    Answer: A) Sikkim
    Explanation: Saga Dawa is a month-long festival celebrated in Sikkim, honoring Buddha Sakyamuni, whose birth, enlightenment, and nirvana all took place in the same month.
  8. The Hornbill Festival is celebrated in which state?
    A) Assam
    B) Meghalaya
    C) Nagaland
    D) Arunachal Pradesh
    Answer: C) Nagaland
    Explanation: The Hornbill Festival, known as the ‘Festival of Festivals’, is held annually from 1 to 10 December in Nagaland to revive and promote the Naga heritage and traditions.
  9. Sakewa is a religious festival celebrated by the Kirat Khambu Rai community of ______.
    A) Arunachal Pradesh
    B) Sikkim
    C) Meghalaya
    D) Nagaland
    Answer: B) Sikkim
    Explanation: Sakewa is a religious festival celebrated by the Kirat Khambu Rai community of Sikkim, also known as Bhoomi Pooja or Chandi Puja, which means worship of Mother Earth.
  10. In which of the following Indian states is the Lai Haraoba festival celebrated?
    A) Goa
    B) Karnataka
    C) Manipur
    D) Kerala
    Answer: C) Manipur
    Explanation: Lai Haraoba is a ritualistic festival of the Meiteis, observing the creation of the universe, reflecting the cultural heritage of Manipur.
  11. One of the most important music forms of Uttarakhand, ____ was originally performed in royal courts.
    A. Maand
    B. Somar
    C. Thadya
    D. Baryi
    Answer: C. Thadya
    Explanation: One of the most important music forms of Uttarakhand is ‘Thadya’. It was originally performed in royal courts. This is a form of folk music that is sung by a group of singers, comprising both men and women.
  12. What is Parsi New Year known as?
    A. Ugadi
    B. Navroz
    C. Pateti
    D. Puthandu
    Answer: B. Navroz
    Explanation: The Parsi New Year, also known as Navroz, is celebrated to mark the beginning of the Iranian calendar. The tradition began some 3000 years ago and is observed by the Parsi community around the world. The day is also known as Jamshed-i-Nowruz after the Persian King Jamshed, who introduced the Parsi calendar.
  13. Vesak commemorates the birth of ______.
    A. Christ
    B. Mahavir
    C. Judas
    D. Buddha
    Answer: D. Buddha
    Explanation: Vesak, also known as Waisak Day, is celebrated annually in Indonesia on the full moon of May and commemorates the birth, enlightenment, and death of the Buddha.
  14. Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal, which falls in the ____ month of the Islamic calendar.
    A. eighth
    B. sixth
    C. tenth
    D. twelfth
    Answer: C. tenth
    Explanation: Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal, the tenth month of the Islamic calendar. It marks the end of Ramadan. Muslims use a lunar calendar which differs in length from the Gregorian calendar used worldwide.
  15. The festival of _____ is dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine avatars.
    A. Holi
    B. Navratri
    C. Diwali
    D. Sankranti
    Answer: B. Navratri
    Explanation: The festival of Navratri is dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine avatars. It is a major festival held in honor of the divine feminine. Navratri occurs over 9 days during the month of Ashvin, with each day dedicated to the worship of 9 forms of the Goddess – Shailaputri, Brahmacharini, Chandraghanta, Kushmanda, Skandamata, Katyayani, Kaalratri, Mahagauri, and Durga.
  16. The famous festival of ‘Tsokum Samai’ is celebrated by the people of which state to invoke blessings for a rich harvest?
    A. Mizoram
    B. Assam
    C. Meghalaya
    D. Nagaland
    Answer: D. Nagaland
    Explanation: The famous festival of ‘Tsokum Samai’ is celebrated by the people of Nagaland to invoke blessings for a rich harvest. The Tsokum Festival is a week-long festival celebrated in October, especially by the Khiamniungan Tribe in the Tuensang district of Nagaland. This pre-harvesting festival is marked by thanking God for good crops.
  17. Paryushan is an important festival for the _____ community.
    A. Buddhist
    B. Jew
    C. Jain
    D. Zoroastrian
    Answer: C. Jain
    Explanation: Paryushan Parva is celebrated every year by the Jain community for spiritual upliftment and self-purification. It is an annual holy event usually celebrated in August or September.
  18. Kanthuri Utsav is celebrated in which state of India?
    A. Telangana
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Karnataka
    D. Kerala
    Answer: B. Tamil Nadu
    Explanation: The Kanthuri Festival is held in commemoration of Saint Quadirwali in Tamil Nadu.
  19. In which state is the Sarhul festival celebrated?
    A. Gujarat
    B. Chhattisgarh
    C. Assam
    D. Jharkhand
    Answer: D. Jharkhand
    Explanation: Sarhul is one of the most popular festivals celebrated across Jharkhand. ‘Sar’ refers to the year and ‘Hul’ means to set to begin.
  20. In which state is the festival of Uttarayan uniquely celebrated?
    A. Jharkhand
    B. Uttar Pradesh
    C. Kerala
    D. Gujarat
    Answer: D. Gujarat
    Explanation: Uttarayan, known as Makar Sankranti in Gujarati, is a major festival in the state of Gujarat. It is celebrated over two days: 14 January as Uttarayan and 15 January as Vasi-Uttarayan (Stale Uttarayan).
  21. One of the most important music forms of Uttarakhand, ____ was originally performed in royal courts.
    A. Maand
    B. Somar
    C. Thadya
    D. Baryi
    Answer: C. Thadya
    Explanation: One of the most important music forms of Uttarakhand is ‘Thadya’. It was originally performed in royal courts. This is a form of folk music that is sung by a group of singers, comprising both men and women.
  22. What is Parsi New Year known as?
    A. Ugadi
    B. Navroz
    C. Pateti
    D. Puthandu
    Answer: B. Navroz
    Explanation: The Parsi New Year, also known as Navroz, is celebrated to mark the beginning of the Iranian calendar. The tradition began some 3000 years ago and is observed by the Parsi community around the world. The day is also known as Jamshed-i-Nowruz after the Persian King Jamshed, who introduced the Parsi calendar.
  23. Vesak commemorates the birth of ______.
    A. Christ
    B. Mahavir
    C. Judas
    D. Buddha
    Answer: D. Buddha
    Explanation: Vesak, also known as Waisak Day, is celebrated annually in Indonesia on the full moon of May and commemorates the birth, enlightenment, and death of the Buddha.
  24. Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal, which falls in the ____ month of the Islamic calendar.
    A. eighth
    B. sixth
    C. tenth
    D. twelfth
    Answer: C. tenth
    Explanation: Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated on the first day of Shawwal, the tenth month of the Islamic calendar. It marks the end of Ramadan. Muslims use a lunar calendar which differs in length from the Gregorian calendar used worldwide.
  25. The festival of _____ is dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine avatars.
    A. Holi
    B. Navratri
    C. Diwali
    D. Sankranti
    Answer: B. Navratri
    Explanation: The festival of Navratri is dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine avatars. It is a major festival held in honor of the divine feminine. Navratri occurs over 9 days during the month of Ashvin, with each day dedicated to the worship of 9 forms of the Goddess – Shailaputri, Brahmacharini, Chandraghanta, Kushmanda, Skandamata, Katyayani, Kaalratri, Mahagauri, and Durga.
  26. The famous festival of ‘Tsokum Samai’ is celebrated by the people of which state to invoke blessings for a rich harvest?
    A. Mizoram
    B. Assam
    C. Meghalaya
    D. Nagaland
    Answer: D. Nagaland
    Explanation: The famous festival of ‘Tsokum Samai’ is celebrated by the people of Nagaland to invoke blessings for a rich harvest. The Tsokum Festival is a week-long festival celebrated in October, especially by the Khiamniungan Tribe in the Tuensang district of Nagaland. This pre-harvesting festival is marked by thanking God for good crops.
  27. Paryushan is an important festival for the _____ community.
    A. Buddhist
    B. Jew
    C. Jain
    D. Zoroastrian
    Answer: C. Jain
    Explanation: Paryushan Parva is celebrated every year by the Jain community for spiritual upliftment and self-purification. It is an annual holy event usually celebrated in August or September.
  28. Kanthuri Utsav is celebrated in which state of India?
    A. Telangana
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Karnataka
    D. Kerala
    Answer: B. Tamil Nadu
    Explanation: The Kanthuri Festival is held in commemoration of Saint Quadirwali in Tamil Nadu.
  29. In which state is the Sarhul festival celebrated?
    A. Gujarat
    B. Chhattisgarh
    C. Assam
    D. Jharkhand
    Answer: D. Jharkhand
    Explanation: Sarhul is one of the most popular festivals celebrated across Jharkhand. ‘Sar’ refers to the year and ‘Hul’ means to set to begin.
  30. In which state is the festival of Uttarayan uniquely celebrated?
    A. Jharkhand
    B. Uttar Pradesh
    C. Kerala
    D. Gujarat
    Answer: D. Gujarat
    Explanation: Uttarayan, known as Makar Sankranti in Gujarati, is a major festival in the state of Gujarat. It is celebrated over two days: 14 January as Uttarayan and 15 January as Vasi-Uttarayan (Stale Uttarayan).
  31. There are two circles of different radii. The area of a square is 196 sq.cm, whose side is half the radius of the larger circle. The radius of the smaller circle is three-seventh that of the larger circle. What is the circumference of the smaller circle?
    A. 12π cm
    B. 16π cm
    C. 24π cm
    D. 32π cm
    Answer: C. 24π cm
    Sol: Side of the square = √196 = 14 cm
    Radius of the larger circle = 2 * 14 = 28 cm
    Radius of the smaller circle = (3/7) * 28 = 12 cm
    Circumference of the smaller circle = 2π * 12 = 24π cm
  32. The perimeter of a square is equal to the perimeter of a rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 14 cm. Find the circumference of a semicircle whose diameter is equal to the side of the square. (Round off your answer to two decimal places).
    A. 23.57 cm
    B. 47.14 cm
    C. 84.92 cm
    D. 94.94 cm
    Answer: A. 23.57 cm
    Solution:
    Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(16 + 14) = 60 cm
    Perimeter of the square = 60 cm
    Side of the square = 60 / 4 = 15 cm
    Diameter of the semicircle = 15 cm
    Circumference of the semicircle = (1/2)π * 15 + 15 = (1/2)(22/7) * 15 = 23.57 cm
  33. A 25 cm wide path is to be made around a circular garden having a diameter of 4 meters. Approximate area of the path in square meters is:
    A. 3.34
    B. 2
    C. 4.5
    D. 5.5
    Answer: A. 3.34
    Solution:
    Radius of the inner circle = 4/2 = 2 meters
    Radius of the outer circle = 2 + 0.25 = 2.25 meters
    Area of the path = π(2.25² – 2²) = π(5.0625 – 4) = π(1.0625) = 3.34 sq meters
  34. A cuboidal block of 6 cm X 9 cm X 12 cm is cut up into an exact number of equal cubes. The least possible number of cubes will be:
    A. 6
    B. 9
    C. 24
    D. 30
    Answer: C. 24
    Solution:
    Volume of the block = 6 * 9 * 12 = 648 cm³
    Side of the largest cube = H.C.F. of 6, 9, and 12 = 3 cm
    Volume of one cube = 3³ = 27 cm³
    Number of cubes = 648 / 27 = 24
  35. I. 9a2 + 18a + 5 = 0,
    II. 2b2 + 13b + 20 = 0 to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b?
    A. If a > b
    B. If a ≥ b
    C. If a < b
    D. If a ≤ b
    Ans: A. If a > b
    Explanation:
    I. 9a2 + 3a + 15a + 5 = 0
    =>(3a + 5)(3a + 1) = 0 => a = -5/3, -1/3
    II. 2b2 + 8b + 5b + 20 = 0
    =>(2b + 5)(b + 4) = 0 => b = -5/2, -4
    a is always more than b.
    a > b.
  36. I. x2 + 9x + 20 = 0,
    II. y2 + 5y + 6 = 0 to solve both the equations to find the values of x and y?
    A. If x < y
    B. If x > y
    C. If x ≤ y
    D. If x ≥ y
    Ans: A. If x < y
    I. x2 + 4x + 5x + 20 = 0
    =>(x + 4)(x + 5) = 0 => x = -4, -5
    II. y2 + 3y + 2y + 6 = 0
    =>(y + 3)(y + 2) = 0 => y = -3, -2
    = x < y.
  37. 9000 + 16 2/3 % of ? = 10500
    A. 1500
    B. 1750
    C. 9000
    D. 7500
    Ans: C. 9000
    Explanation:
    9000 + 16 2/3 % of ? = 10500 => 9000 + 50/3 % of ? = 10500
    50/(3 * 100) of ? = 1500 => ? = 1500 * 6
    ? = 9000
  38. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 1/2 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the pipe B is turned off after?
    A. 5 min
    B. 9 min
    C. 10 min
    D. 15 min
    Ans: B. 9 min
    Explanation:
    Let B be turned off after x minutes. Then, part filled by (A + B) in x min + part filled by A in (30 – x) min = 1.
    x(2/75 + 1/45) + (30- x) 2/75 = 1
    11x + 180 – 6x = 225 => x = 9
  39. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15 minutes. The capacity of the tank is?
    A. 60 gallons
    B. 100 gallons
    C. 120 gallons
    D. 180 gallons
    Ans: C. 120 gallons
    Explanation:
    Work done by the waste pipe in 1 minute = 1/15 – (1/20 + 1/24) = – 1/40
    Volume of 1/40 part = 3 gallons\
    Volume of whole = 3 * 40 = 120 gallons.
  40. I. a3 – 988 = 343,
    II. b2 – 72 = 49 to solve both the equations to find the values of a and b?
    A. If a > b
    B. If a ≥ b
    C. If a < b
    D. If a ≤ b
    Ans: B. If a ≥ b
    Explanation:
    a3 = 1331 => a = 11
    b2 = 121 => b = ± 11
    a ≥ b
  41. Which of the equations below doesn’t qualify the criteria of a quadratic equation?
    A. (x + 2)2 = 2(x + 3)
    B. x2 + 3x = (–1) (1 – 3x)2
    C. (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3
    D. x3 – x2 + 2x + 1 = (x + 1)3
    Ans. (c) (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3
    Explanation: We know that a quadratic equation has a degree of two.
    By double-checking the selections,
    (a) (x + 2)2 = 2(x + 3)
    x2 + 4x + 4 = 2x + 6
    x2 + 2x – 2 = 0
    Thus, This is an example of a quadratic equation.
    (b) x2 + 3x = (–1) (1 – 3x)2
    x2 + 3x = -1(1 + 9×2 – 6x)
    x2 + 3x + 1 + 9×2 – 6x = 0
    10×2 – 3x + 1 = 0
    Thus, This is an example of a quadratic equation.
    (c) (x + 2) (x – 1) = x2 – 2x – 3
    x2 + x – 2 = x2 – 2x – 3
    x2 + x – 2 – x2 + 2x + 3 = 0
    3x + 1 = 0
    This is not an example of a quadratic equation.
  42. 11th term of the A.P. -3, -1/2, 2 …. is
    A. 28
    B. 22
    C. -38
    D. -48
    Ans. (b) 22
    Explanation: A.P. = -3, -1/2, 2 …
    First-term a = – 3
    Common difference, d = a2 − a1 = (-1/2) -(-3)
    ⇒(-1/2) + 3 = 5/2
    Nth term;
    an = a+(n−1)d
    a11 = 3+(11-1)(5/2)
    a11 = 3+(10)(5/2)
    a11 = -3+25
    a11 = 22
  43. The following words are missing from AP: __, 13, __, 3:
    A. 11 and 9
    B. 17 and 9
    C. 18 and 8
    D. 18 and 9
    Ans. (c) 18 and 8
    Explanation: a2 = 13 and
    a4 = 3
    The nth term of an AP;
    an = a+(n−1) d
    a2 = a +(2-1)d
    13 = a+d ………………. (i)
    a4 = a+(4-1)d
    3 = a+3d ………….. (ii)
    When we subtract equation I from equation (ii), we obtain
    – 10 = 2d
    d = – 5
    Fill in the value of d in equation 1 now.
    13 = a+(-5)
    a = 18 (first term)
    a3 = 18+(3-1)(-5)
    = 18+2(-5) = 18-10 = 8 (third term).
  44. ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE in triangles ABC and DEF. The two triangles are
    A. congruent but not similar
    B. similar but not congruent
    C. neither similar nor congruent
    D. similar as well as congruent
    Ans. (b) similar but not congruent
    Explanation: In ΔABC and ΔDEF,
    ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE
    By AA similarity criterion,
    ΔABC ~ ΔDEF
    AB = 3DE
    ⇒ AB/DE = 3
    ⇒ AB/DE = BC/EF = AC/DF = 3
    Triangles must have a side ratio of 1 to be congruent.
    Therefore, triangles are similar but not congruent.
  45. ΔABC ~ ΔDFE, ∠A = 30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF = 7.5 cm are provided. If that’s the case, then the following is correct:
    A. DE = 12 cm, ∠ F = 50 degrees
    B. DE = 12 cm, ∠ F = 100 degrees
    C. ∠D = 100°, EF = 12 cm
    D. ∠D = 30°, EF = 12 cm
    Ans. (b) DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°
    Explanation: Given,
    ΔABC ~ ΔDFE, ∠A =30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF= 7.5 cm
    In triangle ABC,
    ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
    ∠B = 180° – 30° – 50° = 100°
    The corresponding angles are equivalent because ΔABC ~ ΔDFE,
    Thus, ∠D = ∠A = 30°
    ∠F = ∠B = 100°
    ∠E = ∠C = 50°
    And
    AB/DF = AC/DE
    5/7.5 = 8/DE
    DE = (8 × 7.5)/5 = 12 cm
  46. A triangle with vertices (a, b + c), (b, c + a), and (c, a + b) has an area of :
    A. (a + b + c)2
    B. 0
    C. a + b + c
    D. ab
    Ans. (b) 0
    Explanation: Let the triangle’s vertices be:
    A = (x1, y1) = (a, b + c)
    B = (x2, y2) = (b, c + a)
    C = (x3, y3) = (c, a + b)
    Area of triangle ABC = (1/2)[x1(y2 – y3) + x2(y3 – y1) + x3(y1 – y2)]
    = (1/2)[a(c + a – a – b) + b(a + b – b – c) + c(b + c – c – a)]
    = (1/2)[a(c – b) + b(a – c) + c(b – a)]
    = (1/2)[ac – ab + ab – bc + bc – ac]
    = (1/2)(0)
    = 0
  47. The expression sin6θ + cos6θ + 3 sin2θ cos2θ has a value of:-
    A. 0
    B. 3
    C. 2
    D. 1
    Ans. (d) 1
    Explanation: We know that, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
    Taking cube on both sides,
    (sin2θ + cos2θ)3 = 1
    (sin2θ)3 + (cos2θ)3 + 3 sin2θ cos2θ (sin2θ + cos2θ) = 1
    sin6θ + cos6θ + 3 sin2θ cos2θ = 1 
  48. The bucket’s two-round ends have sizes of 44 cm and 24 cm. The bucket stands 35 centimetres tall. The bucket has a capacity of
    A. 32.7 litres
    B. 33.7 litres
    C. 34.7 litres
    D. 31.7 litres
    Ans. (a) 32.7 litres
    Explanation: Given,
    The bucket’s height is h = 35 cm.
    One bucket’s circular end has a diameter of 44 cm.
    The radius R = 22 cm is then calculated.
    Another end’s diameter is 24 cm.
    The radius r = 12 cm is then calculated.
    We know that Volume of the bucket = (1/3)πh[R2 + r2 + Rr]
    = (1/3) × (22/7) × 35 × [(22)2 + (12)2 + 22 × 12]
    = (35/3) × (22/7) × (484 + 144 + 264)
    = (5 × 22 × 892)/3
    = 32706.6 cm3
    = 32.7 litres.
  49. The probability of a non-leap year with 53 Sundays being chosen at random is
    A. 1/7
    B. 2/7
    C. 3/7
    D. 5/7
    Ans. (a) 1/7
    Explanation: Non-leap year = 365 days
    52 weeks Plus 1 day Equals 365 days
    The number of Sundays in a 52-week period equals 52.
    Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday are all possible options for the last day.
    The total number of possible outcomes: 7.
    1 is the number of positive results.
    As a result, the chance of receiving 53 Sundays is 1/7.
  50. At what point does the perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining the points A(1,5) and B(4,6) cut the y-axis?
    A. (0, 13)
    B. (0, –13)
    C. (0, 12)
    D. (13, 0)
    Ans. (a) (0, 13)
    Explanation: The perpendicular bisector of line segment AB, as we know, is perpendicular at AB and goes across AB’s midpoint.
    Let P be the AB’s midpoint.
    Mid – point of AB = [(1 + 4)/2, (5 + 6)/2]
    P = (5/2, 11/2)
    The line AB’s slope = (6 – 5)/(4 – 1) = 1/3 is now calculated.
    As a result, the bisector’s slope = -1/slope of line AB = -1/(1/3) = -3.
    Using the point-slope form, the equation for the line passing through the point P(5/2, 11/2) with slope -3 is:
    y – (11/2) = -3[x – (5/2)]
    (2y – 11)/2 = -3[(2x – 5)/2]
    2y – 11 = -6x + 15
    2y = -6x + 15 + 11
    2y = -6x + 26
    y = -3x + 13
    The formula is y = mx + c.
    The y-intercept is c = 13 in this case.
    As a result, the y-axis is cut at A(1, 5) by the perpendicular bisector of the line segment linking the points A(1, 5) and B(4, 6). (0, 13).
  51. The expression sin6θ + cos6θ + 3 sin2θ cos2θ has a value of:-
    A. 0
    B. 3
    C. 2
    D. 1
    Ans. (d) 1
    Explanation: We know that, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
    Taking cube on both sides,
    (sin2θ + cos2θ)3 = 1
    (sin2θ)3 + (cos2θ)3 + 3 sin2θ cos2θ (sin2θ + cos2θ) = 1
    sin6θ + cos6θ + 3 sin2θ cos2θ = 1
  52. In a given location, it is recommended to construct a single circle park with an area equal to the total of the areas of two circular parks with diameters of 16 m and 12 m. The new park’s radius would be
    A. 10 m
    B. 15 m
    C. 20 m
    D. 24 m
    Ans. (a) 10 m
    Explanation: Radii of two circular parks will be:
    R1 = 16/2 = 8 m
    R2 = 12/2 = 6 m
    Let R be the new circular park’s radius.
    If the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 are identical, then the area of a circle with radius R is also equal.
    R2 = R12 + R22
    = (8)2 + (6)2
    = 64 + 36
    = 100
    R = 10 m
  53. The value of c for which the equations cx–y = 2 and 6x–2y = 3 have an unlimited number of solutions is
    A. 3
    B. -3
    C. -12
    D. no value
    Ans. (d) no value
    Explanation: cx – y = 2 and 6x – 2y = 3 are the given equations.
    When compared to the conventional form,
    a1 = c, b1 = -1, c1 = -2
    c2= -3, a2 = 6, b2 = -2
    a1/a2 = c/6
    b1/b2 = -1/-2 = 1/2
    c1/c2 = -2/-3 = 2/3
    There must be a condition for there to be an infinite number of solutions.
    a1/a2 = b1/b2 = c1/c2
    c/6 = 1/2 = 2/3
    Therefore,
    c = 3 and c = 4
    Here, c has different values.
    As a result, the pair of equations will have an endless number of solutions for any value of c.
  54. If one of the cubic polynomial’s zeroes is x3 + ax2 + bx + c, then the product of the other two zeroes is:
    A. b-a-1
    B. b-a+1
    C. a-b+1
    D. a-b-1
    Ans. (b) b-a+1
    Explanation: Since one zero equals -1,
    P(x) = x3+ax2+bx+c
    P(-1) = (-1)3+a(-1)2+b(-1)+c
    0 = -1+a-b+c
    c=1-a+b
    -constant term/coefficient of x3= Product of zeroes, αβγ
    (-1)βγ = -c/1
    c=βγ
    βγ = b-a+1
  55. MAMA can row 20 kilometres downstream in 2 hours and 4 kilometres upstream in 2 hours. Her rowing speed on calm water and the current speed is:
    A. 6 km/hr and 3kph
    B. 7 kph and 4 kph
    C. 6 kph and 4 kph
    D. 10 kph and 6 kph
    Ans. (c) 6km/hr and 4km/hr
    Explanation: Let’s say Mama’s speed in calm water is x km/hr.
    Stream Speed = y km/hr
    Now, Mama’s pace during,
    Downstream = x + y km/h
    Upstream = x – y km/h
    As per the question given,
    2(x+y) = 20
    Or x + y = 10……………………….(1)
    And, 2(x-y) = 4
    Or x – y = 2………………………(2)
    When both equations are added together, we obtain
    2x=12
    x = 6
    When we plug in the value of x into eq.1, we obtain
    y = 4
    Therefore,
    Mama’s speed in calm water is 6 km/hr.
    Stream speed = 4 km/hr
  56. 0.004 × 0.02 = ?
    (A) 0.08
    (B) 0.008
    (C) 0.0008
    (D) 0.00008
    Ans: (D) 0.000080.004 × 0.02=
    (1) 4*2= 8,
    (2) 0.003 Three digits after Decimal,
    0.02 Two digits after Decimal
    (3) So, Five Digits After Decimal Therefore,
    0.004*0.02= 0.00008
  57. What is the average of the numbers: 0, 0, 4, 10, 5, and 5 ?
    (A) 2
    (B) 3
    (C) 4
    (D) 5
    Ans: (C) 4
     
  58. What is the rate of discount if a car which price was $4,000 was sold for $3,200 ?
    (A) 14%
    (B) 16%
    (C) 18%
    (D) 20%
    Ans: (D) 20%
  59. |–2| + |2| – 2 + 2 = ?
    (A) 0
    (B) 2
    (C) 4
    (D) 8
    Ans: (C) 4|–2| + |2| – 2 + 2 = ?
    2+2-2+2= 4
  60. What is the value of x in the equation 4x – 12 – 4 =0 ?
    (A) 4
    (B) 8
    (C) 9
    (D) –9
    Ans: (A) 7    4x – 12 – 4 =0
    4x-16=0
    4x=16
    x= 16/4
    = 4
  61. What is the defining characteristic of a grassland in its narrow sense?
    A) Presence of numerous trees
    B) Dominated by grasses with little or no tree cover
    C) Covered by shrubs and herbs
    D) Covered by dense forest
    Answer: B) Dominated by grasses with little or no tree cover
  62. According to UNESCO, what percentage of tree and shrub cover classifies land as grassland?
    A) Less than 10%
    B) 10-40%
    C) More than 40%
    D) Less than 20%
    Answer: A) Less than 10%
  63. Which of the following describes a wooded grassland?
    A) Less than 10% tree and shrub cover
    B) 10-40% tree and shrub cover
    C) More than 40% tree and shrub cover
    D) 5-15% tree and shrub cover
    Answer: B) 10-40% tree and shrub cover
  64. Grasslands are typically found in areas with:
    A) High rainfall like forests
    B) Very low rainfall like deserts
    C) Intermediate rainfall between deserts and forests
    D) Extremely high temperatures
    Answer: C) Intermediate rainfall between deserts and forests
  65. What is a plagioclimax?
    A) A climax ecosystem unaffected by human activities
    B) An ecosystem maintained by human activities like grazing or fire
    C) A natural climax ecosystem
    D) An ecosystem with excessive tree growth
    Answer: B) An ecosystem maintained by human activities like grazing or fire
  66. Why do grasslands typically have short plants?
    A) Because of excessive rainfall
    B) Due to dry climate and poor soil
    C) Due to high altitude
    D) Because of abundant tree cover
    Answer: B) Due to dry climate and poor soil
  67. Which of the following is a characteristic of grasses in grasslands?
    A) Slow to regrow after grazing
    B) Quickly regrow after grazing or fire
    C) Cannot grow back after being burned
    D) Only grow in winter
    Answer: B) Quickly regrow after grazing or fire
  68. Which of the following statements is true about large grasslands?
    A) They are generally cold throughout the year
    B) They are mostly hot and dry, especially in summer
    C) They have a lot of tree cover
    D) They are mostly found in polar regions
    Answer: B) They are mostly hot and dry, especially in summer
  69. Tropical Grasslands are also known as:
    A) Prairies
    B) Pampas
    C) Savannahs
    D) Veld
    Answer: C) Savannahs
  70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tropical grasslands?
    A) Located near the equator
    B) Have a tropical continental climate
    C) Are covered by dense forests
    D) Have alternating wet and dry seasons
    Answer: C) Are covered by dense forests
  71. Which grassland is found in East Africa?
    A) Pampas
    B) Prairie
    C) Savanna
    D) Steppe
    Answer: C) Savanna
  72. Where are temperate grasslands typically located?
    A) Near the equator
    B) In polar regions
    C) In temperate zones
    D) In tropical zones
    Answer: C) In temperate zones
  73. What is a unique feature of temperate grasslands compared to tropical grasslands?
    A) They have a tropical climate
    B) They suffer from extreme climates
    C) They have dense tree cover
    D) They receive high annual rainfall
    Answer: B) They suffer from extreme climates
  74. Which grassland is known for having fertile soil rich in nutrients and minerals?
    A) Tropical Rainforest
    B) Temperate Grasslands
    C) Desert
    D) Tundra
    Answer: B) Temperate Grasslands
  75. What is the main form of precipitation in temperate grasslands?
    A) Heavy rainfall
    B) Dew and snow
    C) Continuous rainfall throughout the year
    D) None of the above
    Answer: B) Dew and snow
  76. Which grassland is found in Argentina?
    A) Veld
    B) Pampas
    C) Steppe
    D) Prairie
    Answer: B) Pampas
  77. In which continent is the ‘Prairie’ grassland found?
    A) South America
    B) Africa
    C) North America
    D) Australia
    Answer: C) North America
  78. Which grassland is found in South Africa?
    A) Campos
    B) Llanos
    C) Veld
    D) Down
    Answer: C) Veld
  79. Which of the following is a grassland in Australia?
    A) Steppe
    B) Prairie
    C) Down
    D) Llanos
    Answer: C) Down
  80. Which grassland is known as ‘Campos’?
    A) Found in Venezuela
    B) Found in Brazil
    C) Found in East Africa
    D) Found in North America
    Answer: B) Found in Brazil
  81. Where is the Steppe region primarily located?
    A) Europe and North Asia
    B) South America
    C) Africa
    D) Australia
    Answer: A) Europe and North Asia
  82. Which country is predominantly associated with the Puszta grassland?
    A) Hungary
    B) Argentina
    C) USA
    D) South Africa
    Answer: A) Hungary
  83. The Prairies are a significant grassland region in which country?
    A) USA
    B) Argentina
    C) South Africa
    D) Australia
    Answer: A) USA
  84. The Pampas grassland is prominent in which South American country?
    A) Argentina
    B) Brazil
    C) Chile
    D) Peru
    Answer: A) Argentina
  85. What nation is famous for its Veld grasslands?
    A) South Africa
    B) Australia
    C) New Zealand
    D) Canada
    Answer: A) South Africa
  86. Downs is a term used for grasslands primarily found in which country?
    A) Australia
    B) South Africa
    C) USA
    D) New Zealand
    Answer: A) Australia
  87. Canterbury is associated with grasslands in which country?
    A) New Zealand
    B) USA
    C) Argentina
    D) Canada
    Answer: A) New Zealand
  88. Savannah is a grassland biome primarily found in which continents?
    A) Africa and Australia
    B) South America and Europe
    C) Asia and North America
    D) Africa and South America
    Answer: A) Africa and Australia
  89. Taiga, while not a grassland, is a biome found adjacent to grasslands and primarily extends through which continents?
    A) Europe and Asia
    B) North America and Africa
    C) South America and Australia
    D) Antarctica and Asia
    Answer: A) Europe and Asia
  90. Which of the following grasslands is not correctly matched with its region?
    A) Pampas – Argentina
    B) Veld – South Africa
    C) Puszta – Australia
    D) Steppe – Europe and North Asia
    Answer: C) Puszta – Australia
  91. Who was the first All India Radio station established in Odisha?
    a) Akashvani Cuttack
    b) Akashvani Bhubaneswar
    c) Akashvani Berhampur
    d) Akashvani Puri
    Answer: a) Akashvani Cuttack
  92. Who was the first Advocate of Odisha?
    a) Sri Madhusudan Das
    b) Fakir Mohan Senapati
    c) Gopinath Mohanty
    d) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
    Answer: a) Sri Madhusudan Das
  93. Who was the first Air Marshal from Odisha?
    a) Saroj Jena
    b) Lalitendu Mansingh
    c) Nilamani Senapati
    d) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
    Answer: a) Saroj Jena
  94. Who was the first Ambassador from Odisha?
    a) Lalitendu Mansingh
    b) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
    c) Nilamani Senapati
    d) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
    Answer: a) Lalitendu Mansingh
  95. Who was the first Autobiography Writer from Odisha?
    a) Fakir Mohan Senapati
    b) Gopinath Mohanty
    c) Biswanath Mishra
    d) RamShankar Ray
    Answer: a) Fakir Mohan Senapati
  96. Who was the first person to be awarded the Gyanapitha from Odisha?
    a) Gopinath Mohanty
    b) Ramadevi Choudhury
    c) Mahakabi Sarala Das
    d) Pranakushna Parija
    Answer: a) Gopinath Mohanty
  97. Who was the first Central Minister from Odisha?
    a) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
    b) Rabi Ray
    c) Nandini Satapathy
    d) Amiya Kumari Padhi
    Answer: a) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
  98. Who was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court from Odisha?
    a) Ranganath Mishra
    b) Rabi Ray
    c) Nandini Satapathy
    d) Amiya Kumari Padhi
    Answer: a) Ranganath Mishra
  99. What was the first cinema hall established in Odisha?
    a) Sitaram Vilas Talkies (Berhampur)
    b) Kalinga Studio (Bhubaneswar)
    c) Konark Jute Mill
    d) University College of Engineering, Burla
    Answer: a) Sitaram Vilas Talkies (Berhampur)
  100. What was the first Cinemascope Odia Film?
    a) Hisab Nikas (1982)
    b) Gapa Helebi Sata (1976)
    c) Jai Jagannath (2007)
    d) Sita Bibaha (1936)
    Answer: a) Hisab Nikas (1982)
  101. What was the first College established in Odisha?
    a) Ravenshaw College, Cuttack (1868)
    b) University College of Engineering, Burla (1956)
    c) Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack (1923)
    d) Bhubanananda Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack (1923)
    Answer: a) Ravenshaw College, Cuttack (1868)
  102. What was the first Color Odia Film?
    a) Hisab Nikas (1982)
    b) Gapa Helebi Sata (1976)
    c) Jai Jagannath (2007)
    d) Sita Bibaha (1936)
    Answer: b) Gapa Helebi Sata (1976)
  103. What was the first Daily Newspaper of Odisha?
    a) Dainika Asha
    b) Utkal Deepika
    c) Gyanaruna
    d) Bibeki
    Answer: a) Dainika Asha
  104. Who was the first District Collector of Odisha?
    a) Jatindra Nath Mohanty
    b) Srikrushna Mohapatra
    c) Rajakrushna Bose
    d) Pranakushna Parija
    Answer: a) Jatindra Nath Mohanty
  105. What was the first Engineering College established in Odisha?
    a) Ravenshaw College, Cuttack (1868)
    b) University College of Engineering, Burla (1956)
    c) Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack (1923)
    d) Bhubanananda Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack (1923)
    Answer: b) University College of Engineering, Burla (1956)
  106. Who was the first Engineering Graduate of Odisha?
    a) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
    b) Nilamani Senapati
    c) Pranakushna Parija
    d) Choudhury Jagannatha Das
    Answer: a) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
  107. What was the first Essay written in Odia?
    a) Bibeki (Late Radhanath Ray)
    b) Gyanaruna
    c) Mahakabi Sarala Das
    d) RamShankar Ray
    Answer: a) Bibeki (Late Radhanath Ray)
  108. What was the first Film studio established in Odisha?
    a) Kalinga Studio, Bhubaneswar
    b) Sitaram Vilas Talkies (Berhampur)
    c) Konark Jute Mill
    d) University College of Engineering, Burla
    Answer: a) Kalinga Studio, Bhubaneswar
  109. Who was the first Governor of Odisha?
    a) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
    b) Rabi Ray
    c) Nandini Satapathy
    d) Amiya Kumari Padhi
    Answer: a) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
  110. Who was the first Graduate of Odisha?
    a) Sri Madhusudan Das
    b) Ramadevi Choudhury
    c) Mahakabi Sarala Das
    d) Pranakushna Parija
    Answer: a) Sri Madhusudan Das
  111. What was the first High School established in Odisha?
    a) Cuttack Collegiate School
    b) Ravenshaw College, Cuttack
    c) Bhubanananda Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack
    d) University College of Engineering, Burla
    Answer: a) Cuttack Collegiate School
  112. What was the first Hindi Film Produced in Odisha?
    a) Hodh- 1979 (Sitakanta Mishra)
    b) Puja
    c) Basanta Rasa
    d) Hisab Nikas
    Answer: a) Hodh- 1979 (Sitakanta Mishra)
  113. Who was the first Jamunalal Bajaj Awardee from Odisha?
    a) Ramadevi Choudhury
    b) Minati Mohapatra
    c) Mahakabi Sarala Das
    d) Biswanath Mishra
    Answer: a) Ramadevi Choudhury
  114. What was the first Jute Mill established in Odisha?
    a) Konark Jute Mill
    b) Ravenshaw College, Cuttack
    c) Bhubanananda Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack
    d) University College of Engineering, Burla
    Answer: a) Konark Jute Mill
  115. Who was the first Lecturer in Odisha?
    a) Kashinath Das (Dept. of Sanskrit, Ravenshaw College)
    b) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
    c) Samanta Chandrasekhar
    d) Choudhury Jagannatha Das
    Answer: a) Kashinath Das (Dept. of Sanskrit, Ravenshaw College)
  116. What was the first Medical College established in Odisha?
    a) Sreeram Chandra Bhanja Medical College, Cuttack (1944)
    b) Ravenshaw College, Cuttack (1868)
    c) University College of Engineering, Burla (1956)
    d) Orissa School of Engineering, Cuttack (1923)
    Answer: a) Sreeram Chandra Bhanja Medical College, Cuttack (1944)
  117. Who was the first Medical Graduate of Odisha?
    a) Dr. Surendra Narayan Acharya
    b) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
    c) Dr. Saroj Jena
    d) Dr. Nilamani Senapati
    Answer: a) Dr. Surendra Narayan Acharya
  118. What was the first Newspaper established in Odisha?
    a) Utkal Deepika
    b) Gyanaruna
    c) Dainika Asha
    d) Bibeki
    Answer: a) Utkal Deepika
  119. Who was the first Odia Air Marshal?
    a) Sri Saroj Jena
    b) Lalitendu Maansingh
    c) Choudhury Jagannatha Das
    d) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
    Answer: a) Sri Saroj Jena
  120. Who was the first Odia American Ambassador?
    a) Lalitendu Maansingh
    b) Samanta Chandrasekhar
    c) Ramadevi Choudhury
    d) Basanta Manjari Devi
    Answer: a) Lalitendu Maansingh
  121. Directions(1-12) In each of the questions, These parts are not given in proper order. Make these combinations is correct form.
    I came to know that
    P: to the point of boring his friends
    Q: he was extremely talkative
    R: who were all very reserved
    S: compared to his brothers
    a) QPRS
    b) QPSR
    c) SPRQ
    d) SRQP
    Answer: b) QPSR
  122. The fact is that
    P: the hunters
    Q: the lion
    R: hesitated to go out again for shooting
    S: having been wounded once
    a) SQRP
    b) QSRP
    c) SPRQ
    d) PRSQ
    Answer: c) SPRQ
  123. I told him that
    P: in my opinion people
    Q: defied police orders
    R: rioting on the road,
    S: thus posing threat to the peace of the city.
    a) PRQS
    b) RSPQ
    c) PQSR
    d) RPQS
    Answer: a) PRQS
  124. When I entered her drawing-room
    P: showed me
    Q: the old lady
    R: with gold plated legs
    S: her beautiful marble table
    a) QPRS
    b) SQPR
    c) SRQP
    d) QPSR
    Answer: d) QPSR
  125. The film ends
    P: carrying the heroine
    Q: about half way through the tunnel
    R: with the train Read these parts and find out which of the five
    S: suddenly coming to a halt
    a) RPSQ
    b) PQSR
    c) SRQP
    d) QPRS
    Answer: a) RPSQ
  126. In many countries,
    P: it is necessary to boil water
    Q: in order to kill any infectious bacteria
    R: it may contain
    S: especially those in tropical and sub-tropical regions
    a) SRQP
    b) SPQR
    c) PQSR
    d) RPQS
    Answer: b) SPQR
  127. Psychologists say
    P: an innate drive
    Q: to finish
    R: that humans have
    S: what they start
    a) RPQS
    b) PQSR
    c) RPSQ
    d) PSQR
    Answer: a) RPQS
  128. The use of language
    P: primarily and predominantly involves
    Q: and receiving other people’s speech noises
    R: making noises without speech organs
    S: through our ears
    a) QSPR
    b) PRQS
    c) QSRP
    d) RPQS
    Answer: b) PRQS
  129. Nations of the world
    P: as they are fully aware
    Q: are making efforts in developing
    R: of the danger of their not coming together
    S: peaceful international relations
    a) PRSQ
    b) PSRQ
    c) QSPR
    d) PSQR
    Answer: b) PSRQ
  130. George Bernard Shaw considered
    P: a considerable portion of his wealth
    Q: and in his will left behind
    R: current English spelling
    S: for reforms in spelling
    a) RSPQ
    b) RQPS
    c) QRPS
    d) QRSP
    Answer: b) RQPS
  131. In favor of English,
    P: has chances of securing employment
    Q: we may say that
    R: in all parts of India and in foreign countries
    S: an English knowing Indian
    a) QSPR
    b) SPQR
    c) SRQP
    d) QRPS
    Answer: a) QSPR
  132. The hungry man
    P: and said
    Q: replied in the negative
    R: that he only wanted a meal
    S: to his question
    a) SQPR
    b) QSPR
    c) SPRQ
    d) QPRS
    Answer: b) QSPR
  133. What is a synonym for “expunge”?
    a) Ineffable
    b) Protean
    c) Mire
    d) Obliterate
    Answer: d) Obliterate
  134. What is the antonym for “deterrent”?
    a) Innocuous
    b) Preponderance
    c) Shrewd
    d) Protean
    Answer: a) Innocuous
    Which word means “too great or extreme to be expressed or described in words”?
    a) Seminal
    b) Furtive
    c) Trepidation
    d) Ineffable
    Answer: d) Ineffable
  135. What is a synonym for “seminal”?
    a) Laureate
    b) Obstreperous
    c) Protean
    d) Paucity
    Answer: c) Protean
  136. What does “preponderance” mean?
    a) A fearful state
    b) Sharp powers of judgment
    c) Greater in number or importance
    d) Childishly irritable
    Answer: c) Greater in number or importance
  137. Which word means “tending or able to change frequently or easily”?
    a) Distrait
    b) Petulant
    c) Innocuous
    d) Protean
    Answer: d) Protean
  138. What is the antonym for “mire”?
    a) Laureate
    b) Obstreperous
    c) Innocuous
    d) Extricate
    Answer: d) Extricate
  139. Which word means “not harmful or offensive”?
    a) Trepidation
    b) Vacillate
    c) Innocuous
    d) Deterrent
    Answer: c) Innocuous
  140. What is a synonym for “paucity”?
    a) Ineffable
    b) Laureate
    c) Protean
    d) Scarcity
    Answer: d) Scarcity
  141. What is the antonym for “shrewd”?
    a) Petulant
    b) Distrait
    c) Furtive
    d) Obstinate
    Answer: d) Obstinate
  142. Active Voice: Choose the correct passive voice for the sentence: “The chef cooked a delicious meal.”
    a) A delicious meal was cooked by the chef.
    b) A delicious meal is being cooked by the chef.
    c) A delicious meal had been cooked by the chef.
    d) A delicious meal has been cooked by the chef.
    Answer: a) A delicious meal was cooked by the chef.
  143. Passive Voice: Which option correctly transforms the sentence “They built a new bridge across the river” into the passive voice?
    a) A new bridge was being built across the river by them.
    b) A new bridge across the river is built by them.
    c) A new bridge was built across the river by them.
    d) A new bridge has been built by them across the river.
    Answer: c) A new bridge was built across the river by them.
  144. Direct Speech: Convert the following sentence to direct speech: She said that she would arrive late.
    a) “She says, ‘I will arrive late.'”
    b) “She says that she will arrive late.”
    c) “She said, ‘I will arrive late.'”
    d) “She said that she would arrive late.”
    Answer: c) “She said, ‘I will arrive late.'”
  145. Indirect Speech: Choose the correct indirect speech for the sentence: “He said, ‘I am going to the market.'”
    a) He said that he will go to the market.
    b) He said that he goes to the market.
    c) He said that he is going to the market.
    d) He said that he was going to the market.
    Answer: d) He said that he was going to the market.
  146. Select the active voice form of the sentence: “The book was read by him in one sitting.”
    a) He read the book in one sitting.
    b) He had read the book in one sitting.
    c) He reads the book in one sitting.
    d) He has read the book in one sitting.
    Answer: a) He read the book in one sitting.
  147. Passive Voice: Which option correctly transforms the sentence “They are preparing dinner in the kitchen” into the passive voice?
    a) Dinner is being prepared in the kitchen by them.
    b) Dinner in the kitchen is prepared by them.
    c) Dinner in the kitchen has been prepared by them.
    d) Dinner is prepared in the kitchen by them.
    Answer: a) Dinner is being prepared in the kitchen by them.
  148. Direct Speech: Change the sentence into direct speech: “She told him to stop shouting.”
    a) “She says, ‘Stop shouting,’ to him.”
    b) “She says to him, ‘Stop shouting.'”
    c) “She says, ‘Stop shouting.'”
    d) “She said, ‘Stop shouting.'”
    Answer: d) “She said, ‘Stop shouting.'”
  149. Indirect Speech: Which option correctly reports the sentence “The teacher said, ‘The exam will be next week'”?
    a) The teacher says that the exam will be next week.
    b) The teacher says that the exam was next week.
    c) The teacher said that the exam will be next week.
    d) The teacher said that the exam would be next week.
    Answer: d) The teacher said that the exam would be next wee
  150. “ଉତ୍କଳ ମଣି” ଭାବରେ କିଏ ଜଣାଶୁଣା ?
    a) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ଦାସ
    b) ଗୋପବନ୍ଧୁ ଦାସ
    c) ସୁଭାଷ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ବୋଷ
    d) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ଦାସ
    Answer: b) ଗୋପବନ୍ଧୁ ଦାସ
  151. କାହାକୁ “ଉତ୍କଳ ଗୌରବ” ବୋଲି କୁହାଯାଏ?
    a) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    b) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ଦାସ
    c) ହରେକୃଷ୍ଣ ମହତାବ
    d) ଉପେନ୍ଦ୍ର ଭଞ୍ଜ
    Answer: b) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ଦାସ
  152. “ନେତାଜୀ” କେଉଁ ପ୍ରସିଦ୍ଧ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିତ୍ୱର ଆଖ୍ୟା ଦିଆଯାଇଛି?
    a) ଗୋପବନ୍ଧୁ ଦାସ
    b) ସାରଳା ଦାସ
    c) ସୁଭାଷ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ବୋଷ
    d) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
    Answer: c) ସୁଭାଷ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ବୋଷ
  153. “ଅତି ବଡ଼ି” ଭାବରେ କିଏ ଜଣାଶୁଣା?
    a) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    b) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ଦାସ
    c) ରାଧାନାଥ ରାୟ
    d) କୁନ୍ତଳା କୁମାରୀ ସାବତ
    Answer: b) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ଦାସ
  154. “ଆଦି କବି / ସୁଦ୍ର ମୁନି” କେଉଁ କବିଙ୍କୁ ବୁଝାଏ?
    a) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    b) ସାରଳା ଦାସ
    c) ଗଙ୍ଗାଧର ମେହେର
    d) ଚିନ୍ତାମଣି ମହାନ୍ତି
    Answer: b) ସାରଳା ଦାସ
  155. “ଉତ୍କଳ କେଶରୀ” କାହାକୁ କୁହାଯାଏ?
    a) ଗୋପବନ୍ଧୁ ଦାସ
    b) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
    c) ହରେକୃଷ୍ଣ ମହତାବ
    d) କୃଷ୍ଣ ପ୍ରସାଦ ବସୁ
    Answer: c) ହରେକୃଷ୍ଣ ମହତାବ
  156. “କବି ସମ୍ରାଟ” କେଉଁ କବିଙ୍କ ଆଖ୍ୟା?
    a) ଉପେନ୍ଦ୍ର ଭଞ୍ଜ
    b) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    c) ବଳଦେବ ରଥ
    d) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
    Answer: a) ଉପେନ୍ଦ୍ର ଭଞ୍ଜ
  157. “କବି ସୂର୍ଯ୍ୟ” ଭାବରେ କିଏ ଜଣାଶୁଣା?
    a) ରାଧାନାଥ ରାୟ
    b) ବଳଦେବ ରଥ
    c) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
    d) କାଳି ଚରଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    Answer: b) ବଳଦେବ ରଥ
  158. କେଉଁ ସାହିତ୍ୟିକଙ୍କୁ “ବ୍ୟାସ କବି” ଏକ ଆଖ୍ୟା ଦିଆଯାଇଛି?
    a) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    b) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
    c) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
    d) ଲକ୍ଷ୍ମୀକାନ୍ତ ମହାପାତ୍ର
    Answer: c) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
  159. “ସନ୍ଥ କବି” କାହାକୁ କୁହାଯାଏ?
    a) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
    b) ଗଙ୍ଗାଧର ମେହେର
    c) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    d) ନିମାଇଁ ହରିଚନ୍ଦନ
    Answer: c) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
  160. “ସ୍ୱଭାବ କବି” କେଉଁ କବିଙ୍କୁ ବୁଝାଏ?
    a) ଗଙ୍ଗାଧର ମେହେର
    b) ରାଧାନାଥ ରାୟ
    c) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    d) କୃଷ୍ଣ ପ୍ରସାଦ ବସୁ
    Answer: a) ଗଙ୍ଗାଧର ମେହେର
  161. “କବି ବର” କାହାକୁ କୁହାଯାଏ?
    a) ଗୋପବନ୍ଧୁ ଦାସ
    b) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
    c) ରାଧାନାଥ ରାୟ
    d) ବଳଦେବ ରଥ
    Answer: c) ରାଧାନାଥ ରାୟ
  162. “ନାରୀ କବି / ଉତ୍କଳ ଭାରତୀ” କେଉଁ କବିଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ ଆଖ୍ୟା ଅଛି?
    a) କୁନ୍ତଳା କୁମାରୀ ସାବତ
    b) କୃଷ୍ଣ ପ୍ରସାଦ ବସୁ
    c) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
    d) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ଦାସ
    Answer: a) କୁନ୍ତଳା କୁମାରୀ ସାବତ
  163. “କର୍ମ ବୀର” ଭାବରେ କିଏ ଜଣାଶୁଣା?
    a) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
    b) ଫକିର ମୋହନ ସେନାପତି
    c) ଗୌରୀ ଶଙ୍କର ରାୟ
    d) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ଦାସ
    Answer: c) ଗୌରୀ ଶଙ୍କର ରାୟ
  164. “ଭକ୍ତ କବି” କେଉଁ କବିଙ୍କୁ ଏକ ଆଖ୍ୟା ଦିଆଯାଇଛି?
    a) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
    b) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ଦାସ
    c) କୃଷ୍ଣ ପ୍ରସାଦ ବସୁ
    d) ଭୀମ ଭୋଇ
    Answer: a) ମଧୁସୂଦନ ରାଓ
  165. କର୍ମ ବୀର କିଏ?
    a) ଗୋପାଳ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ପ୍ରହରାଜ
    b) ବିଜୁ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    c) ଗୌରୀ ଶଙ୍କର ରାୟ
    d) ରଘୁନାଥ ପାଣିଗ୍ରାହୀ
    Answer: c) ଗୌରୀ ଶଙ୍କର ରାୟ
  166. ସୁର ମଣି କିଏ?
    a) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ବେହେରା
    b) ଭିକାରି ବଳ
    c) ରଘୁନାଥ ପାଣିଗ୍ରାହୀ
    d) ମାୟାଧର ମାନସିଂହ
    Answer: c) ରଘୁନାଥ ପାଣିଗ୍ରାହୀ
  167. ଭଜନ ସମ୍ରାଟ କିଏ?
    a) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ବେହେରା
    b) ଭିକାରି ବଳ
    c) ଅଭିମନ୍ୟୁ ସାମନ୍ତସିଂହାର
    d) ଗୋପାଳ କୃଷ୍ଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    Answer: b) ଭିକାରି ବଳ
  168. ଗାୟକ ଭାସ୍କର କିଏ?
    a) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ବେହେରା
    b) ଭିକାରି ବଳ
    c) ନିରଞ୍ଜନ କର
    d) ବାଳକୃଷ୍ଣ ଦାସ
    Answer: a) ଜଗନ୍ନାଥ ବେହେରା
  169. ପ୍ରେମିକ କବି କିଏ?
    a) ଗୋପୀନାଥ ପାତ୍ର
    b) ମାୟାଧର ମାନସିଂହ
    c) ଭଗବାନ ପତି
    d) ଗୋଦାବରୀଶ ମିଶ୍ର
    Answer: b) ମାୟାଧର ମାନସିଂହ
  170. ଭାଷା କୋଷ ପ୍ରଣେତା କିଏ?
    a) ଗୋପାଳ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ପ୍ରହରାଜ
    b) ବୀର କିଶୋର ଦାସ
    c) ରବି ସିଂହ
    d) ହରି ଦାସ
    Answer: a) ଗୋପାଳ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ପ୍ରହରାଜ
  171. ଉତ୍କଳ ଷଣ୍ଢ କିଏ?
    a) ବିଜୁ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    b) ପଦ୍ମ ଚରଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    c) ରଘୁନାଥ ପଣ୍ଡା
    d) ହରିକୃଷ୍ଣ ପୁରୋହିତ
    Answer: a) ବିଜୁ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
  172. ଜାତୀୟ କବି କିଏ?
    a) ଅଶ୍ବିନୀ କୁମାର ଘୋଷ
    b) ନିରଞ୍ଜନ କର
    c) ବୀର କିଶୋର ଦାସ
    d) ଗୋଦାବରୀଶ ମିଶ୍ର
    Answer: c) ବୀର କିଶୋର ଦାସ
  173. ଭାଷା କୋଷ ପ୍ରଣେତା କିଏ?
    a) ଗୋପାଳ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ପ୍ରହରାଜ
    b) ବୀର କିଶୋର ଦାସ
    c) ରବି ସିଂହ
    d) ହରି ଦାସ
    Answer: a) ଗୋପାଳ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ପ୍ରହରାଜ
  174. ଗୀତ କବି କିଏ?
    a) ଭଗବାନ ପତି
    b) ଗୋପାଳ କୃଷ୍ଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    c) ଗୋପୀନାଥ ପାତ୍ର
    d) ଅଭିମନ୍ୟୁ ସାମନ୍ତସିଂହାର
    Answer: b) ଗୋପାଳ କୃଷ୍ଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
  175. ଗାୟକ ଶିରୋମଣି କିଏ?
    a) ନିରଞ୍ଜନ କର
    b) ରଘୁନାଥ ପାଣିଗ୍ରାହୀ
    c) ବାଳକୃଷ୍ଣ ଦାସ
    d) କାଁହୁ ଚରଣ ପତିଶର୍ମା
    Answer: a) ନିରଞ୍ଜନ କର
  176. ନୃତ୍ୟ ପ୍ରବୀଣା କିଏ?
    a) ରଘୁନାଥ ପଣ୍ଡା
    b) ସଂଯୁକ୍ତା ପାଣିଗ୍ରାହୀ
    c) ରବି ସିଂହ
    d) ଗୋପାଳ କୃଷ୍ଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    Answer: b) ସଂଯୁକ୍ତା ପାଣିଗ୍ରାହୀ
  177. ଉତ୍କଳ ଘଣ୍ଟ କିଏ?
    a) ଯଦୁମଣି ମହାପାତ୍ର
    b) ରଘୁନାଥ ପଣ୍ଡା
    c) ବିଜୁ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    d) ପଦ୍ମ ଚରଣ ପଟ୍ଟନାୟକ
    Answer: a) ଯଦୁମଣି ମହାପାତ୍ର
  178. ନାଟ୍ୟାଚାର୍ୟ୍ୟ କିଏ?
    a) ଗୋପୀନାଥ ପାତ୍ର
    b) ଗୋପାଳ ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର ପ୍ରହରାଜ
    c) ରଘୁନାଥ ପଣ୍ଡା
    d) ଅଶ୍ବିନୀ କୁମାର ଘୋଷ
    Answer: c) ରଘୁନାଥ ପଣ୍ଡା
  179. କୋକିଳ କବି କିଏ?
    a) ଗୋଦାବରୀଶ ମିଶ୍ର
    b) ଭଗବାନ ପତି
    c) ହରିକୃଷ୍ଣ ପୁରୋହିତ
    d) ରବି ସିଂହ
    Answer: b) ଭଗବାନ ପତି
  180. What initiative has the Odisha Chief Minister launched to extend banking services to unbanked panchayats?
    A) Ama Yojana
    B) CSP Plus Scheme
    C) Gramin Bank Initiative
    D) Rural Banking Expansion
    Answer: B) CSP Plus Scheme
  181. How many CSP Plus outlets were launched under the ‘Ama Bank’ initiative?
    A) 1000
    B) 1500
    C) 2000
    D) 2500
    Answer: C) 2000
  182. Which political party in Odisha became the wealthiest regional party in India between 2016-17 and 2022-23?
    A) BJP
    B) Congress
    C) Biju Janata Dal (BJD)
    D) TMC
    Answer: C) Biju Janata Dal (BJD)
  183. What is the goal set by Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik for Odisha by 2036?
    A) To be the most populous state in India
    B) To become a fully industrialized state
    C) To be the leading state in India
    D) To have the highest literacy rate in India
    Answer: C) To be the leading state in India
  184. How many voters are expected to participate in the upcoming Assembly and Lok Sabha elections in Odisha?
    A) 2.69 crore
    B) 3.34 crore
    C) 4.65 crore
    D) 5.00 crore
    Answer: B) 3.34 crore
  185. When is Odisha Day or Utkal Divas celebrated?
    A) March 1st
    B) April 1st
    C) May 1st
    D) June 1st
    Answer: B) April 1st
  186. Which principles have guided the last five years of development in Odisha?
    A) 4P (People, Progress, Prosperity, Peace)
    B) 3R (Reform, Rebuild, Rejuvenate)
    C) 5T (Teamwork, Transparency, Technology, Time, Transformation)
    D) 6S (Sustainability, Stability, Strength, Success, Service, Synergy)
    Answer: C) 5T (Teamwork, Transparency, Technology, Time, Transformation)
  187. What significant resources does Odisha possess, according to World Bank reports?
    A) Oil and Natural Gas
    B) Uranium and Thorium
    C) Precious Metals like Gold and Silver
    D) Minerals like Iron Ore, Chromite, Coal, Bauxite, Nickel, and Manganese
    Answer: D) Minerals like Iron Ore, Chromite, Coal, Bauxite, Nickel, and Manganese
  188. Which sector of the population does Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik particularly aim to benefit in his vision for Odisha?
    A) Senior Citizens
    B) Urban Dwellers
    C) Youth, Women, Children, Entrepreneurs, Farmers, and Tribals
    D) Industrialists
    Answer: C) Youth, Women, Children, Entrepreneurs, Farmers, and Tribals
  189. How many Lok Sabha seats are there in Odisha?
    A) 14
    B) 21
    C) 28
    D) 35
    Answer: B) 21
  190. Which scheme awarded habitat rights to 32 villages of the Paudi Bhuyan Community in Deogarh district?
    A) Habitat Protection Scheme (HPS)
    B) Mo Jungle Jami Yojana (MJJM)
    C) Tribal Development Initiative (TDI)
    D) Indigenous Habitat Rights Program (IHRP)
    Answer: B) Mo Jungle Jami Yojana (MJJM)
  191. Which indigenous community from Odisha became the first to receive habitat rights under the Mo Jungle Jami Yojana (MJJM)?
    A) Kamar
    B) Baiga
    C) Bharia
    D) Paudi Bhuyan
    Answer: D) Paudi Bhuyan
  192. How many centrally recognized Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are there in India?
    A) 50
    B) 75
    C) 100
    D) 125
    Answer: B) 75
  193. Which village in Odisha was the Gupta-era stone sculpture discovered during road work near?
    A) Asurgarh
    B) Bhimkela
    C) Konarka
    D) Deogarh
    Answer: B) Bhimkela
  194. Where was the discovered Gupta-era stone sculpture placed?
    A) Odisha State Museum
    B) Konark Sun Temple
    C) Bishnu temple in Bhimkela
    D) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) museum
    Answer: C) Bishnu temple in Bhimkela
  195. What was the focus of the symposium ‘Konarka Manthan’ organized by IIT Bhubaneswar?
    A) Agricultural innovation
    B) Architectural brilliance of the Sun temple at Konark
    C) Maritime history of Odisha
    D) Folk music and dance of Odisha
    Answer: B) Architectural brilliance of the Sun temple at Konark
  196. What is IIT Bhubaneswar conducting research on related to the Sun temple at Konark?
    A) Manufacturing of stone sculptures
    B) Socio-economic impact of tourism
    C) Analysis of iron beams used in the temple
    D) Preservation of ancient manuscripts
    Answer: C) Analysis of iron beams used in the temple
  197. What is the objective of the ‘AMA BHOOMI’ initiative launched by Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik?
    A) Improving healthcare facilities in rural areas
    B) Creating and maintaining open spaces in Bhubaneswar
    C) Promoting digital literacy among youth
    D) Enhancing transportation infrastructure in urban areas
    Answer: B) Creating and maintaining open spaces in Bhubaneswar
  198. What is the eligibility criterion for the Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana (BSKY) Nabin Card?
    A) All government employees
    B) All income taxpayers
    C) All villagers, except government employees and income taxpayers
    D) Only urban residents
    Answer: C) All villagers, except government employees and income taxpayers
  199. What benefits does the BSKY Nabin Card offer to beneficiaries?
    A) Cashless treatment for critical diseases
    B) Free transportation services
    C) Subsidized education fees
    D) Housing assistance
    Answer: A) Cashless treatment for critical diseases
  200. What is the purpose of the Nabin Odisha Magic Card?
    A) Providing financial assistance to farmers
    B) Enhancing access to higher education and empowering youth
    C) Promoting traditional art and culture
    D) Supporting small-scale businesses
    Answer: B) Enhancing access to higher education and empowering youth
  201. What is the objective of the Nano Unicorn Scheme launched by the Odisha government?
    A) Promoting space exploration
    B) Fostering entrepreneurship and reducing unemployment in rural areas
    C) Supporting wildlife conservation projects
    D) Encouraging international trade
    Answer: B) Fostering entrepreneurship and reducing unemployment in rural areas
  202. Under the Nano Unicorn Scheme, who is the target group for support?
    A) Government employees
    B) Skilled-in-Odisha youth aged 18-35 years
    C) Senior citizens
    D) Foreign investors
    Answer: B) Skilled-in-Odisha youth aged 18-35 years
  203. What is the repayment term for entrepreneurs under the Nano Unicorn Scheme?
    A) No repayment required
    B) Repayment starts after five years
    C) Repayment starts from the second year in twenty installments
    D) Repayment starts after one year
    Answer: C) Repayment starts from the second year in twenty installments
  204. What is the purpose of the PM SHRI Schools initiative?
    A) Promoting environmental sustainability
    B) Building high-quality, equitable, and inclusive schools
    C) Providing free meals to school children
    D) Offering vocational training to unemployed youth
    Answer: B) Building high-quality, equitable, and inclusive schools
  205. How many schools does Odisha plan to upgrade under the PM SHRI Schools scheme?
    A) 10,000 schools
    B) 12,500 schools
    C) 14,500 schools
    D) 16,000 schools
    Answer: C) 14,500 schools
  206. What is the objective of the PM SHRI Schools initiative in alignment with the National Education Policy 2020?
    A) Promoting traditional education methods
    B) Demonstrating effective implementation of NEP 2020’s recommendations
    C) Implementing strict discipline in schools
    D) Reducing the number of school holidays
    Answer: B) Demonstrating effective implementation of NEP 2020’s recommendations
  207. What key feature of PM SHRI Schools prioritizes inclusivity?
    A) Showcasing NEP 2020
    B) Equitable Access
    C) Holistic Development
    D) Model institutions
    Answer: B) Equitable Access
  208. What aspect of student development does PM SHRI Schools focus on?
    A) Academic excellence only
    B) Physical fitness only
    C) Holistic development, including social, emotional, and intellectual growth
    D) Vocational skills only
    Answer: C) Holistic development, including social, emotional, and intellectual growth
  209. What major infrastructure project has been announced for Paradip, Odisha, by Union Minister Nitin Gadkari?
    A) Construction of a seaport
    B) Establishment of a new industrial zone
    C) Development of a Rs 200 crore airport
    D) Implementation of a high-speed rail network
    Answer: C) Development of a Rs 200 crore airport
  210. Where are Bundla Falls located?
    A. Madhya Pradesh
    B. Himachal Pradesh
    C. Karnataka
    D. Gujarat
    Ans: B. Himachal Pradesh
  211. Which waterfall is found in Panna district of Madhya Pradesh?
    A. Gatha Falls
    B. Hebbe Falls
    C. Unchalli Falls
    D. None of the above
    Ans: A. Gatha Falls
  212. In which hills are Kynrem Falls situated?
    A. Garo Hills
    B. Khasi Hills
    C. Jaintia Hills
    D. Satpura Hills
    Ans: B. Khasi Hills
  213. Where is Vantawng Falls, with a height of 229 meters, located in Mizoram?
    A. Champhai District
    B. Mamit District
    C. Serchchip District
    D. Aizawl District
    Ans: C. Serchchip District
  214. Which state hosts Soochipara Falls?
    A. Kerala
    B. Tamil Nadu
    C. Karnataka
    D. Andhra Pradesh
    Ans: A. Kerala
  215. What is the height of Nohsngithiang Falls?
    A. 305 meters
    B. 315 meters
    C. 300 meters
    D. 150 meters
    Ans: B. 315 meters
  216. How tall is Kynrem Falls?
    A. 305 meters
    B. 315 meters
    C. 150 meters
    D. 300 meters
    Ans: A. 305 meters
  217. Where are Nohsngithiang Falls located?
    A. Meghalaya
    B. Mizoram
    C. Manipur
    D. None of the above
    Ans: A. Meghalaya
  218. Which waterfall with a height of 168 meters is situated in the Chikmagalur district of Karnataka?
    A. Gatha Falls
    B. Hebbe Falls
    C. Unchalli Falls
    D. Hebbe Falls
    Ans: B. Hebbe Falls
  219. In which district of Karnataka can Kusaali Falls be found?
    A. Chitradurga
    B. Devanagiri
    C. Kolar
    D. Udupi
    Ans: D. Udupi
  220. Duduma falls are located on which of the following rivers in India?
    A. Machkund River
    B. Narmada River
    C. Godavari River
    D. Kalahandi River
    Answer: A. Machkund River
  221. Ninai falls are located on the watercourse of which of the following rivers?
    A. Tapti
    B. Godavari
    C. Narmada
    D. Chambal
    Answer: C. Narmada
  222. Which of the following waterfalls are located on Bihad river, a tributary of Tons river?
    A. Chachai falls
    B. Dudhsagar falls
    C. Hebbe falls
    D. Pebble falls
    Answer: A. Chachai falls
  223. Abbey falls are located in the geographical proximity of:-
    A. Western Ghats
    B. Eastern Ghats
    C. Himalayas
    D. Nilgiri Mountains
    Answer: A. Western Ghats
  224. Which of the following waterfalls is located on the Leh-Manali highway in Himachal Pradesh?
    A. Rehala falls
    B. Dudhsagar falls
    C. Hebbe falls
    D. Pebble falls
    Answer: A. Rehala falls
  225. Which of the following waterfalls is located on the Aghanashini River in Karnataka?
    A. Rehala falls
    B. Unchalli falls
    C. Chachai falls
    D. Hebbe falls
    Answer: B. Unchalli falls
  226. Buhraghagh falls/Lodh falls are located on which of the following rivers in India:?
    A. Machkund River
    B. Mandavi River
    C. Burha River
    D. None of the above
    Answer: C. Burha River
  227. Katki waterfalls are located in which of the following States?
    A. Tamil Nadu
    B. Andhra Pradesh
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: B. Andhra Pradesh
  228. Talakona, the highest waterfall in Andhra Pradesh is situated in which of the following districts?
    A. Chittor
    B. Vishakhapatnam
    C. Kurnool
    D. Guntoor
    Answer: A. Chittor
  229. Chitrakoot falls are located in which of the following States?
    A. Jharkhand
    B. Chattisgarh
    C. Uttar Pradesh
    D. Bihar
    Answer: B. Chattisgarh
  230. Athirapally Falls are located in which of the following States in India?
    A. Kerala
    B. Manipur
    C. Maharashtra
    D. Tamil Nadu
    Ans: A. Kerala
  231. Ninai Falls are located in which of the following states in India?
    A. Gujarat
    B. Kerala
    C. Manipur
    D. Gujarat
    Ans: A. Gujarat
  232. What is the height of Athirapally Falls?
    A. 21 mtrs.
    B. 25 mtrs.
    C. 16 mtrs.
    D. 10 mtrs.
    Ans: B. 25 mtrs.
  233. Langshiang falls are located in which of the following States in India?
    A. Mizoram
    B. Meghalaya
    C. Manipur
    D. Tripura
    Ans: B. Meghalaya
  234. What is the height of Ninai falls?
    A. 20 ft.
    B. 30 ft.
    C. 60 ft.
    D. 50 ft.
    Ans: B. 30 ft.
  235. Which of the following is the three tiered waterfall located in the Pune district of Maharashtra?
    A. Duduma falls
    B. Dudhsagar falls
    C. Jog Falls
    D. Kune Falls
    Ans: A. Duduma falls
  236. What is the height of Nohkalikai falls?
    A. 310 metres
    B. 340 mtrs.
    C. 150 mtrs.
    D. None of the above
    Ans: B. 340 mtrs.
  237. Nohkalikai falls are located in which of the following hills in India?
    A. Khasi Hills
    B. Garo Hills
    C. Jaintia Hills
    D. None of the above
    Ans: A. Khasi Hills
  238. Which of the following waterfalls forms the border between Karnataka and Goa?
    A. Duduma falls
    B. Dudhsagar falls
    C. Hebbe falls
    D. Pebble falls
    Ans: B. Dudhsagar falls
  239. Duduma falls with a height of 175 mtrs. is located in which of the following States?
    A. Jharkhand
    B. Chattisgarh
    C. Odisha
    D. Meghalaya
    Ans: C. Odisha
  240. ମାଗି ଆଣିଲା ତିଅଣ ହାପୁରାଏ – ଏହା କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ?
    (a) ଶକ୍ତିଶାଳୀ
    (b) କ୍ଷଣସ୍ଥାୟୀ
    (c) ସୁଆଦିଆ
    (d) ଆମୋଦପ୍ରମୋଦ
    Ans: (d) ଆମୋଦପ୍ରମୋଦ
  241. ପ୍ରତିହିଂସା ମନୋଭାବ ପୋଷଣ କରିବା – ଏହି ଅର୍ଥ ବୁଝାଉଥ୍ବା ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁଟି ?
    (a) ରକ୍ତଚାଉଳ ଚୋବାଇବା
    (b) ଅହ‌ନ୍ତା ରଖିବା / ଅକସ ରଖିବା
    (c) ଛାଇ ନ ମାଡିବା
    (d) ନାକେଦମ କରିବା
    Ans: (b) ଅହ‌ନ୍ତା ରଖିବା / ଅକସ ରଖିବା
  242. ବାକ୍ୟାଶରେ କ୍ରିୟାପଦ ନ ଥିଲେ କେଉଁ ରୂଢି ହୁଏ ?
    (a) କ୍ରିୟାତ୍ମକ ରୂଢି
    (b) କ୍ରିୟାହୀନ ରୂଢି
    (c) ତୁଳନାତ୍ମକ ରୂଢି
    (d) କ୍ରିୟାଯୁକ୍ତ ରୂଢି
    Ans: (b) କ୍ରିୟାହୀନ ରୂଢି
  243. ଧୈର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଧରିବା – ଏହି ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରୁଥ‌ିବା ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁଟି ?
    (a) ଛାତି ପଥର କରିବା
    (b) ନଛୋଡ ବନ୍ଧା
    (c) ବାଆକୁ ବତା
    (d) ହୁଙ୍କାପିଟା
    Ans: (a) ଛାତି ପଥର କରିବା
  244. ବାଆକୁ ବତା – ଏହି ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ?
    (a) ଖୁବ କଷ୍ଟ କଥା
    (b) ଅନ୍ୟାୟ ବିଚାର
    (c) କ୍ଷୀଣ ଆଶ୍ରୟ
    (d) ଠକିବା
    Ans: (c) କ୍ଷୀଣ ଆଶ୍ରୟ
  245. ତାକୁ କିଛି କୁହ ନାହିଁ ସେ ଭୟରେ __ ପଡିଲାଣି ?
    (a) କଳାକାଠ
    (b) ମିଛୁଆ
    (c) ତମ୍ବା ନାଲି
    (d) ଚୋର ମୁହାଁ
    Ans: (a) କଳାକାଠ
  246. ବୁଦ୍ଧି ବଣା ହେବା – ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ ପାଇଁ କେଉଁ ରୂଢି ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ ?
    (a) ଅକଲ ଗୁଡୁମ
    (b) ବାଆକୁ ବତା
    (c) ଅନ୍ଧ ବୁଝାବଣା
    (d) କଳାକନା ବୁଲାଇବା
    Ans: (a) ଅକଲ ଗୁଡୁମ
  247. ‘ଅନୁଜ’ ଶବ୍ଦରେ ‘ଅନୁ’ ଉପସର୍ଗ କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ?
    A) ମନ୍ଦ
    B) ଦୁଃଖ
    C) ନିନ୍ଦା
    D) ପାଶ୍ଚାତ
    Ans: D) ପାଶ୍ଚାତ
  248. ‘ନିମୀଳନ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଲେଖ ।
    A) ମିଳନ
    B) ମୀଳନ
    C) ଉନ୍ମୀଳନ
    D) ଅମିଳନ
    Ans: C) ଉନ୍ମୀଳନ
  249. ‘ଓଜନିଆ’, ‘ବୃହସ୍ପତି’ ଶବ୍ଦଦ୍ୱୟକୁ ବୁଝାଉଥିବା ଏକ ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ଲେଖ।
    A) ଗ୍ରହ
    B) ଗୁରୁ
    C) ଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
    D) ଗ୍ରହଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
    Ans: B) ଗୁରୁ
  250. ‘ପ୍ରଭୃତ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଲେଖ।
    A) ଈଷ
    B) ଈଷତ
    C) ଇହ
    D) ଈହା
    Ans: B) ଈଷତ

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