The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-4 PDF Download
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-4
- ମାଗି ଆଣିଲା ତିଅଣ ହାପୁରାଏ – ଏହା କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ?
(a) ଶକ୍ତିଶାଳୀ
(b) କ୍ଷଣସ୍ଥାୟୀ
(c) ସୁଆଦିଆ
(d) ଆମୋଦପ୍ରମୋଦ
Ans: (d) ଆମୋଦପ୍ରମୋଦ - ପ୍ରତିହିଂସା ମନୋଭାବ ପୋଷଣ କରିବା – ଏହି ଅର୍ଥ ବୁଝାଉଥ୍ବା ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁଟି ?
(a) ରକ୍ତଚାଉଳ ଚୋବାଇବା
(b) ଅହନ୍ତା ରଖିବା / ଅକସ ରଖିବା
(c) ଛାଇ ନ ମାଡିବା
(d) ନାକେଦମ କରିବା
Ans: (b) ଅହନ୍ତା ରଖିବା / ଅକସ ରଖିବା - ବାକ୍ୟାଶରେ କ୍ରିୟାପଦ ନ ଥିଲେ କେଉଁ ରୂଢି ହୁଏ ?
(a) କ୍ରିୟାତ୍ମକ ରୂଢି
(b) କ୍ରିୟାହୀନ ରୂଢି
(c) ତୁଳନାତ୍ମକ ରୂଢି
(d) କ୍ରିୟାଯୁକ୍ତ ରୂଢି
Ans: (b) କ୍ରିୟାହୀନ ରୂଢି - ଧୈର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଧରିବା – ଏହି ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରୁଥିବା ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁଟି ?
(a) ଛାତି ପଥର କରିବା
(b) ନଛୋଡ ବନ୍ଧା
(c) ବାଆକୁ ବତା
(d) ହୁଙ୍କାପିଟା
Ans: (a) ଛାତି ପଥର କରିବା - ବାଆକୁ ବତା – ଏହି ରୂଢିଟି କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ?
(a) ଖୁବ କଷ୍ଟ କଥା
(b) ଅନ୍ୟାୟ ବିଚାର
(c) କ୍ଷୀଣ ଆଶ୍ରୟ
(d) ଠକିବା
Ans: (c) କ୍ଷୀଣ ଆଶ୍ରୟ - ତାକୁ କିଛି କୁହ ନାହିଁ ସେ ଭୟରେ __ ପଡିଲାଣି ?
(a) କଳାକାଠ
(b) ମିଛୁଆ
(c) ତମ୍ବା ନାଲି
(d) ଚୋର ମୁହାଁ
Ans: (a) କଳାକାଠ - ବୁଦ୍ଧି ବଣା ହେବା – ଅର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାଶ ପାଇଁ କେଉଁ ରୂଢି ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ ?
(a) ଅକଲ ଗୁଡୁମ
(b) ବାଆକୁ ବତା
(c) ଅନ୍ଧ ବୁଝାବଣା
(d) କଳାକନା ବୁଲାଇବା
Ans: (a) ଅକଲ ଗୁଡୁମ - ‘ଅନୁଜ’ ଶବ୍ଦରେ ‘ଅନୁ’ ଉପସର୍ଗ କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ?
A) ମନ୍ଦ
B) ଦୁଃଖ
C) ନିନ୍ଦା
D) ପାଶ୍ଚାତ
Ans: D) ପାଶ୍ଚାତ - ‘ନିମୀଳନ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଲେଖ ।
A) ମିଳନ
B) ମୀଳନ
C) ଉନ୍ମୀଳନ
D) ଅମିଳନ
Ans: C) ଉନ୍ମୀଳନ - ‘ଓଜନିଆ’, ‘ବୃହସ୍ପତି’ ଶବ୍ଦଦ୍ୱୟକୁ ବୁଝାଉଥିବା ଏକ ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ଲେଖ।
A) ଗ୍ରହ
B) ଗୁରୁ
C) ଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
D) ଗ୍ରହଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ
Ans: B) ଗୁରୁ - ‘ପ୍ରଭୃତ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଲେଖ।
A) ଈଷ
B) ଈଷତ
C) ଇହ
D) ଈହା
Ans: B) ଈଷତ - ‘ଦାନ୍ତରେ କୁଟା ଦେବା’ ଋଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
A) ଭଲ ପାଇବା
B) ଦୋଷ ସ୍ୱୀକାର କରିବା
C) ସମସ୍ୟାରେ ପଡ଼ିବା
D) ଥକିଯାଇ ଶୋଇବା
Ans: B) ଦୋଷ ସ୍ୱୀକାର କରିବା - ‘କ୍ଷତ୍ରିୟ’ – ଉକ୍ତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ଶ୍ରେଣୀର ଶବ୍ଦ ଅଟେ?
A) ଯୋଗରୂଢ଼
B) ଯୌଗିକ
C) ମୌଳିକ
D) ରୂଢ଼
Ans: A) ଯୋଗରୂଢ଼ - ମୂଳ ଶବ୍ଦର ପୂର୍ବରୁ ବା ପରେ ଆଉ ଏକ ରୂପ ସଂଯୋଗ କରି ନୂତନ ଶବ୍ଦ ଗଠନ କରାଗଲେ ତାହାକୁ କି ଶବ୍ଦ କୁହାଯାଏ?
A) ମୌଳିକ
B) ବ୍ୟୁତ୍ପନ୍ନ
C) ଯୌଗିକ
D) ଦ୍ଵିରୁକ୍ତ
Ans: B) ବ୍ୟୁତ୍ପନ୍ନ - କୌଣସି ସଂଖ୍ୟା ବାଚକ ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦ କ୍ରମାନ୍ୱୟରେ ସବୁ ସଂଖ୍ୟା ନ ବୁଝାଇ ଏକ ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦିଷ୍ଟ ସଂଖ୍ୟାକୁ ବୁଝାଇଲେ ତାହାକୁ କି ବିଶେଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ?
A) ତୁଳନାତ୍ମକ
B) ସଂଖ୍ୟା ବାଚକ
C) ପରିମାଣ ବାଚକ
D) ପୂରଣ ବାଚକ
Ans: D) ପୂରଣ ବାଚକ - କ୍ରିୟାକୁ ବିକଶିତ କରୁଥିବା ବିଶେଷଣ ପଦକୁ କି ବିଶେଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ?
A) ଅବସ୍ଥା ବାଚକ
B) ଭାବ ବାଚକ
C) ପୂରଣ ବାଚକ
D) ଗୁଣ ବାଚକ
Ans: B) ଭାବ ବାଚକ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁ ଯୋଡ଼ା ଶବ୍ଦ ପରସ୍ପରର ବିପରୀତ?
A) ଆଲୋକ-ଉଜ୍ଜଳ
B) ଦୟାଳୁ-ଭୟାଳୁ
C) କୀର୍ତ୍ତି-ସୁକୀର୍ତି
D) ତୋଷ-ରୋଷ
Ans: D) ତୋଷ-ରୋଷ - ‘ବହିରଙ୍ଗ’ ଶବ୍ଦଟିର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କ’ଣ?
A) ଅନ୍ତର୍ନିହିତ
B) ଅନୁରାଗ
C) ଆଭ୍ୟନ୍ତରୀଣ
D) ଅନ୍ତରଙ୍ଗ
Ans: D) ଅନ୍ତରଙ୍ଗ - ‘ ଭାଦ୍ର ‘ ତତ୍ ସମ ଶବ୍ଦର ତଦ୍ ଭବ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
A) ଭାଦ୍ରବ
B) ଭାଦୁଅ
C) ଭୋଦୁଅ
D) ଭୋଦବ
Ans: C) ଭୋଦୁଅ - ‘ଗୋବର ଗଣେଶ’– ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
A) ପଣ୍ଡିତ
B) ବିବେକ ହୀନ
C) ବୁଦ୍ଧିହୀନ
D) ଅତି ଚତୁର
Ans: C) ବୁଦ୍ଧିହୀନ - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁ ଉପସର୍ଗଟି ଉତ୍କର୍ଷ ଅର୍ଥରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ?
A) ନି
B) ପରି
C) ପ୍ର
D) ଅବ
Ans: C) ପ୍ର - ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଏକ ଉପସର୍ଗ ଯୋଗେ ଗଠିତ ହୋଇଛି?
A) ପ୍ରସୂନ
B) ପ୍ରଣୟ
C) ପ୍ରଭାତ
D) ପ୍ରଶାଖା
Ans: D) ପ୍ରଶାଖା - କେଉଁଟ ଅବସ୍ଥା ବାଚକ ବିଶେଷଣ?
A) ପାଞ୍ଚ କିଲୋ
B) ଜଳନ୍ତା ଅଂଗାର
C) ବୃଦ୍ଧ ଲୋକ
D) ପ୍ରଚୁର ଧନ
Ans: C) ବୃଦ୍ଧ ଲୋକ - ଯେଉଁ ପଦ ଗୁଡ଼ିକ କୌଣସି ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦିଷ୍ଟ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟର ନାମକୁ ବୁଝାନ୍ତି ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ?
A) ଜାତିବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
B) ଗୁଣବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ
C) ବସ୍ତୁବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ
D) କ୍ରିୟାବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ
Ans: D) କ୍ରିୟାବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ - ‘ଗ’ ବ୍ୟଂଜନ ଧ୍ଵନିକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ?
A) ଅବର୍ଗ୍ୟ ବ୍ୟଂଜନ
B) କଣ୍ଠ୍ୟ ବ୍ୟଂଜନ
C) ତାଲବ୍ୟ ବ୍ୟଂଜନ
D) ବର୍ଗ୍ୟ ବ୍ୟଂଜନ
Ans: B) କଣ୍ଠ୍ୟ ବ୍ୟଂଜନ - ‘ପୁନରପି’ ଶବ୍ଦରେ ‘ପୁନଃ’ ଅବ୍ୟୟ ସଂଗେ କେଉଁ ଉପସର୍ଗର ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରାଯାଇଛି?
A) ଅତି
B) ଅପି
C) ବାର
D) ଈଶ୍ଵ
Ans: B) ଅପି - ଓଡ଼ିଆରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ଉପସର୍ଗଗୁଡ଼ିକ କି ପ୍ରକାର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ?
A) ପର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
B) ମୁକ୍ତ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
C) ମଧ୍ୟ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
D) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ
Ans: D) ପୂର୍ବ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ - ‘ଠଣ୍ ଠଣ୍’ କି ପ୍ରକାର ଅବ୍ୟୟ?
A) ଶବ୍ଦାନୁକାରୀ
B) ବିକଲ୍ପାର୍ଥକ
C) ବିଭକ୍ତି ସୂଚକ
D) ସମ୍ମତି ସୂଚକ
Ans: A) ଶବ୍ଦାନୁକାରୀ - ‘ଅବଶ୍ୟ ତୁମକୁ ଏହା କରିବାକୁ ହେବ’ । ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଟି କେଉଁ ବିଶେଷଣ?
A) ଅବ୍ୟୟ ବିଶେଷଣ
B) କ୍ରିୟା ବିଶେଷଣ
C) ବିଶେଷଣର ବିଶେଷଣ
D) ବାକ୍ୟର ବିଶେଷଣ
Ans: D) ବାକ୍ୟର ବିଶେଷଣ - ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ବର୍ଗର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ଓ ଚତୁର୍ଥ ଧ୍ଵନିକୁ କେଉଁ ଧ୍ଵନି କୁହାଯାଏ?
A) ଅବପ୍ରାଣ
B) ନାସିକ୍ୟ
C) ସଘୋଷ
D) ମହାପ୍ରାଣ
Ans: D) ମହାପ୍ରାଣ - Who among the following received the Padma Vibhushan award posthumously for his contributions in the field of social work?
a) Shri Bindeshwar Pathak
b) Ms. M Fathima Beevi
c) Shri Satyabrata Mookherjee
d) Shri Togdan Rinpoche
Correct Answer: a) Shri Bindeshwar Pathak - Which organization has approved the construction of two 6-lane flyovers and other civil works in Sambalpur district, Odisha, despite the Model Code of Conduct being in force?
[A] Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
[B] Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO)
[C] Election Commission of India (ECI)
[D] National Green Tribunal (NGT)
Correct Answer: C [Election Commission of India (ECI)] - What is the estimated cost of the civil works approved for Sambalpur district, Odisha?
[A] Rs 488 crore
[B] Rs 576.17 crore
[C] Rs 14,449.70 crores
[D] Rs 17,035.25 crores
Correct Answer: B [Rs 576.17 crore] - Who authored the biography titled “Nandini Satpathy: The Iron Lady of Orissa”?
[A] Pallavi Rebbapragada
[B] Srinibas Udgata
[C] Gayatribala Panda
[D] Ashutosh Parida
Correct Answer: A [Pallavi Rebbapragada] - Which company launched an advanced Energy Management System across its power plant in Lanjigarh, Odisha?
[A] Vedanta Limited
[B] Odisha Mining Corporation Limited (OMC)
[C] Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
[D] Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO)
Correct Answer: A [Vedanta Limited] - What unique conditions were imposed by the Orissa High Court for granting interim bail to accused individuals in certain cases?
[A] Payment of hefty fines
[B] Serving community service in rural areas
[C] Planting saplings and maintaining them
[D] Attending environmental awareness programs
Correct Answer: C [Planting saplings and maintaining them] - Which foreign historian divided Kalinga into three divisions?
[A] Pliny
[B] Curtius
[C] Plutarch
[D] Diodorus
Correct Answer: A [Pliny] - Who was in charge of the Mahasandhivigrahika in the Somavamshi dynasty?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] Commander in chief
[C] Diplomat
[D] Minister of war and peace
Correct Answer: D [Minister of war and peace] - What was the role of Mantritilaka in the Somavamshi dynasty?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] Commander in chief
[C] Diplomat
[D] Minister of war and peace
Correct Answer: A [Chief Minister] - Who held the position of Mahakshapatalika in the Somavamshi dynasty?
[A] Chief Minister
[B] Commander in chief
[C] Diplomat
[D] Preparing charter
Correct Answer: D [Preparing charter] - In which jail did Gopabandhu Das write the famous novel “Bandira Atmakatha”?
[A] Mandalaya
[B] Rangoon
[C] Andaman
[D] Hazaribag
Correct Answer: D [Hazaribag] - Through which city in Odisha does the Tropic of Cancer pass?
[A] Cuttack
[B] Bhubaneswar
[C] Puri
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: D [None of the above] - In which district of Odisha is Similipal National Park situated?
[A] Keonjhar
[B] Rayagada
[C] Mayurbhanj
[D] Sambalpur
Correct Answer: C [Mayurbhanj] - According to the 2011 census, which district is the third most populous in Odisha?
[A] Keonjhar
[B] Rayagada
[C] Mayurbhanj
[D] Sambalpur
Correct Answer: C [Mayurbhanj] - Which state in India does the Tropic of Cancer pass through, excluding Odisha?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Rajasthan
[C] Madhya Pradesh
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above] - Which river(s) originate(s) from the Amarkantak plateau?
[A] Subarnarekha
[B] Mahanadi
[C] Brahmani
[D] Godavari
Correct Answer: [B] Mahanadi - Which product has been recently granted the GI tag for its renowned silver filigree showcasing distinct heritage and craftsmanship?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Kapdaganda Shawl
Correct Answer: [A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi - Which traditional condiment, rich in protein, minerals, and vitamins, has received the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Kapdaganda Shawl
Correct Answer: [B] Similipal Kai Chutney - Which notable brinjal variety, known for its thorny stems, distinct flavor, and quick cooking time, has been granted the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Kapdaganda Shawl
Correct Answer: [C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal - Which handicraft, reflecting tribal tradition with its hand-woven shawl featuring red, yellow, and green threads, has received the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Kapdaganda Shawl
Correct Answer: [D] Kapdaganda Shawl - Which black rice variety, known for its aroma, flavor, and nutritional benefits, has been granted the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Koraput Kalajeera Rice
Correct Answer: [D] Koraput Kalajeera Rice - Which tribal art, featuring traditional tribal paintings with white drawings on a crimson-maroon background, has received the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Lanjia Saura Painting (IDITAL)
Correct Answer: [D] Lanjia Saura Painting (IDITAL) - Which organic jaggery derived from date palm trees, with a distinct dark brown color and flavor, has been granted the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Odisha Khajuri Guda
Correct Answer: [D] Odisha Khajuri Guda - Which sweet dish, made from buffalo milk cheese, with a unique appearance, taste, and nutritional properties, has received the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Dhenkanal Magji
Correct Answer: [D] Dhenkanal Magji - Which sweet, made from cheese balls, and considered a local delicacy with historical significance, has been granted the GI tag?
[A] Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi
[B] Similipal Kai Chutney
[C] Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal
[D] Kendrapara Rasabali
Correct Answer: [D] Kendrapara Rasabali - Who received the Shambhavi Puraskar 2024 for efforts in empowering villages with Forest Land Rights in Odisha’s Sundargarh district?
[A] Dr. Md. Imran Ali
[B] Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel
[C] Ranjit Majhi
[D] Nilamadhab Sahu
Correct Answer: [C] Ranjit Majhi - What is the purpose of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) as mentioned in the news?
[A] To handle cases related to forest fires
[B] To issue notices to cement companies
[C] To ensure sustainable and scalable interventions in various sectors
[D] To handle cases related to environmental protection and conservation
Correct Answer: [D] To handle cases related to environmental protection and conservation - Which forest range reported the arrival of Indian Skimmers for nesting and egg-laying purposes?
[A] Bonai forest
[B] Rourkela forest
[C] Sundargarh forest
[D] Khuntuni forest
Correct Answer: [D] Khuntuni forest - How many Indian Skimmers arrived at the sand bed of Mahanadi river for nesting, according to the report?
[A] 82
[B] 165
[C] 35
[D] 4,000
Correct Answer: [B] 165 - Which of the following rivers is/are originated from the Chotanagpur plateau?
[A] Subarnarekha
[B] Brahmani
[C] Godavari
[D] Both A and B
Correct Answer: [D] Both A and B - From which location does the Godavari river originate?
[A] Trimbak in Nashik
[B] Amarkantak plateau
[C] Chotanagpur plateau
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: [A] Trimbak in Nashik - Which department is responsible for implementing the Mukhyamantri Bayan Jyoti Yojana?
a) Agriculture & Farmer Empowerment
b) Labour & Employment Department
c) Housing & Urban Development Department
d) Health & Family Welfare Department
Answer: c) Housing & Urban Development Department - The Service Plus Odisha initiative aims to simplify access to how many services?
a) Over 1,000
b) Over 1,500
c) Over 2,000
d) Over 2,400
Answer: d) Over 2,400 - Which scheme provides interest-free bank loans to urban youths for starting businesses?
a) Odisha Swayam Scheme
b) Balaram Scheme
c) Swakalpa Programme
d) Biju Swasthya Kalyan Yojana
Answer: a) Odisha Swayam Scheme - The Mo Ghara Scheme provides loans primarily to individuals with monthly incomes:
a) Under 15,000 rupees
b) Under 20,000 rupees
c) Under 25,000 rupees
d) Under 30,000 rupees
Answer: c) Under 25,000 rupees - Which scheme aims to provide financial support to landless farmers and sharecroppers in Odisha?
a) Garima Scheme
b) Mukhyamantri Bayan Jyoti Yojana
c) Mo Ghara Scheme
d) Balaram Scheme
Answer: d) Balaram Scheme - The Automated Driving Testing System (ADTS) introduced by the Odisha Transport Department aims to:
a) Simplify vehicle registration processes
b) Improve road infrastructure
c) Bring transparency to the driving license test process
d) Provide insurance coverage for vehicle drivers
Answer: c) Bring transparency to the driving license test process - Which scheme focuses on providing health insurance coverage specifically for journalists in Odisha?
a) Gopabandhu Sambadika Swasthya Bima Yojana
b) Mukhyamantri Bayan Jyoti Yojana
c) Mo Ghara Scheme
d) Swakalpa Programme
Answer: a) Gopabandhu Sambadika Swasthya Bima Yojana - The Odisha State Scholarship Portal aims to provide financial aid to students primarily from:
a) Urban areas
b) Rural areas
c) Tribal communities
d) Marginalized communities
Answer: d) Marginalized communities - The AMA BHOOMI Initiative focuses on enhancing the quality of life in which city of Odisha?
a) Cuttack
b) Bhubaneswar
c) Puri
d) Rourkela
Answer: b) Bhubaneswar - The Swakalpa Programme aims to transform Odisha into the “Entrepreneurial Capital of the Country” by providing comprehensive mentorship and support to how many individuals initially?
a) 500
b) 750
c) 1,000
d) 1,250
Answer: c) 1,000 - The Mukhyamantri Abhinav Krishi Yantripati Samman Yojana rewards innovation in which field?
a) Healthcare
b) Education
c) Farming tools and implements
d) Transportation
Answer: c) Farming tools and implements - The Chief Ministers Employment Generation Scheme (CEGS) primarily aims to upgrade the skills of youth in:
a) Urban areas
b) Rural areas
c) Coastal areas
d) Hilly regions
Answer: b) Rural areas - The AMA Clinic Yojana aims to provide fixed day specialist services in:
a) Rural clinics
b) Urban clinics
c) Mobile clinics
d) Public health centers
Answer: b) Urban clinics - The Biju Yuva Shashaktikaran Yojana (BYSY) encourages youth leadership, volunteering, sports, and health, with what incentive for meritorious students?
a) Free laptop distribution
b) Cash prize
c) Health insurance coverage
d) Interest-free loans
Answer: a) Free laptop distribution - Which scheme primarily focuses on improving the infrastructure of the city of Puri in Odisha?
a) ABADHA
b) UNNATI
c) SWARNA
d) BASUDHA
Answer: a) ABADHA - What is the full form of the NUA-O Scholarship scheme launched by the Odisha Government in 2024?
a) New Undergraduate Assistance – Odisha
b) Nirman Urban Assistance – Odisha
c) New University Aid – Odisha
d) Nirman Undergraduate Aid – Odisha
Answer: d) Nirman Undergraduate Aid – Odisha - The Balia scheme initiated by the Odisha Government stands for:
a) Bunakar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
b) Business Aid for Livelihood Improvement and Augmentation
c) Basic Assistance for Livelihood and Income Allocation
d) Beneficiary Aid for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
Answer: a) Bunakar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation - What does the Niramaya scheme, implemented by the Odisha Government, primarily focus on?
a) Mental Health Support
b) Disability Insurance
c) Women Empowerment
d) Child Education
Answer: b) Disability Insurance - The Balaram Yojana launched in Odisha is aimed at providing financial assistance primarily to:
a) Weavers and Handloom Artisans
b) Farmers
c) Students
d) Small Business Owners
Answer: b) Farmers - The full form of the BALIA scheme introduced by the Odisha Government is:
a) Bunakar Aid for Livelihood and Income Allocation
b) Bhubaneswar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
c) Bunakar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
d) Basic Assistance for Livelihood and Income Allocation
Answer: c) Bunakar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation - The NUA-O Scholarship scheme focuses primarily on providing financial support to:
a) Unemployed youths
b) Students
c) Weavers
d) Small-scale entrepreneurs
Answer: b) Students - What does the Balia scheme aim to enhance for weavers and handloom artisans in Odisha?
a) Healthcare facilities
b) Educational opportunities
c) Financial assistance
d) Employment opportunities
Answer: c) Financial assistance - The full form of the Niramaya scheme implemented by the Odisha Government primarily focuses on providing:
a) Financial assistance to farmers
b) Health insurance to persons with disabilities
c) Scholarships to students
d) Employment opportunities for youth
Answer: b) Health insurance to persons with disabilities - The Balaram Yojana launched in Odisha primarily aims to provide financial support to:
a) Weavers and Handloom Artisans
b) Farmers
c) Students
d) Senior citizens
Answer: b) Farmers - The full form of the NUA-O Scholarship scheme launched by the Odisha Government is:
a) New Undergraduate Assistance – Odisha
b) Nirman Urban Assistance – Odisha
c) New University Aid – Odisha
d) Nirman Undergraduate Aid – Odisha
Answer: d) Nirman Undergraduate Aid – Odisha - What is the primary focus of the Balia scheme introduced by the Odisha Government?
a) Education
b) Healthcare
c) Livelihood and income augmentation for weavers and handloom artisans
d) Financial assistance for farmers
Answer: c) Livelihood and income augmentation for weavers and handloom artisans - The Niramaya scheme implemented by the Odisha Government primarily provides:
a) Financial assistance to farmers
b) Health insurance to persons with disabilities
c) Scholarships to students
d) Employment opportunities for youth
Answer: b) Health insurance to persons with disabilities - What does the Balaram Yojana in Odisha primarily focus on?
a) Education
b) Healthcare
c) Financial assistance for farmers
d) Employment opportunities for youth
Answer: c) Financial assistance for farmers - The full form of the BALIA scheme initiated by the Odisha Government is:
a) Bunakar Aid for Livelihood and Income Allocation
b) Bhubaneswar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
c) Bunakar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
d) Basic Assistance for Livelihood and Income Allocation
Answer: c) Bunakar Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation - What is the primary focus of the NUA-O Scholarship scheme launched by the Odisha Government?
a) Unemployment benefits
b) Financial support for entrepreneurs
c) Health insurance for students
d) Financial support for undergraduate and postgraduate students
Answer: d) Financial support for undergraduate and postgraduate students - Who was the first Chief Minister of Odisha?
A) Biju Patnaik
B) Harekrushna Mahtab
C) Nabakrushna Choudhury
D) Biren Mitra
Ans: B) Harekrushna Mahtab - Which Odia poet is known as ‘The Shelley of Odisha’?
A) Gangadhar Meher
B) Mayadhar Mansingh
C) Fakir Mohan Senapati
D) Radhanath Ray
Ans: A) Gangadhar Meher - Where was Jayee Rajguru born?
A) Puri District
B) Khurda
C) Sambalpur
D) Nuapada
Answer: A) Puri District - What was Jayee Rajguru’s family occupation?
A) Farming
B) Trading
C) Priesthood and Advisory
D) Artisans
Answer: C) Priesthood and Advisory - What educational expertise did Jayee Rajguru possess?
A) Mathematics
B) Sanskrit and Tantra Sadhana
C) Medicine
D) Engineering
Answer: B) Sanskrit and Tantra Sadhana - Who was Chandra Sekhar Behera, associated with the National School of Sambalpur?
A) A scholar
B) A freedom fighter
C) A politician
D) A teacher
Answer: B) A freedom fighter - In which year did Chandra Sekhar Behera receive Gandhijee in Sambalpur?
A) 1920
B) 1928
C) 1936
D) 1947
Answer: B) 1928 - What position did Chandra Sekhar Behera hold in Khariar?
A) Raja
B) Mayor
C) President
D) Prime Minister
Answer: A) Raja - Which area did Khariar merge with under Chandra Sekhar Behera’s leadership?
A) West Bengal
B) Bihar
C) Odisha
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C) Odisha - What was one of Chandra Sekhar Behera’s contributions to education?
A) Establishing libraries
B) Organizing sports events
C) Sponsoring scholarships
D) Building hospitals
Answer: C) Sponsoring scholarships - Which theater did Chandra Sekhar Behera patronize in Khariar?
A) Gopal Gobindo Rangamancha
B) Bhaskar Bhawan
C) Beer Bikram Theatre
D) Sambalpuri Rangamancha
Answer: C) Beer Bikram Theatre - In which legislative body was Chandra Sekhar Behera elected?
A) Lok Sabha
B) Rajya Sabha
C) Odisha Legislative Assembly
D) Municipal Corporation
Answer: C) Odisha Legislative Assembly - Where was Utkalmani Pandit Gopabandhu Das born?
A) Puri District
B) Cuttack District
C) Khurda District
D) Mayurbhanj District
Answer: A) Puri District - At which school did Gopabandhu start his education in Vernacular language?
A) Ravenshaw College
B) Puri Zilla School
C) Rupadeipur Minor School
D) Cuttack High School
Answer: C) Rupadeipur Minor School - Which poem did Gopabandhu write while studying at Ravenshaw College?
A) Abakasha Chinta
B) Go-mahatmay
C) Karakabita
D) Nachiketa Upakhyana
Answer: D) Nachiketa Upakhyana - What movement is associated with the Paikas in Odisha in 1817?
A) Quit India Movement
B) Swadeshi Movement
C) Paika Vidroha
D) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer: C) Paika Vidroha - Who was the Chief of the Paika Vidroha movement?
A) Karunakar Sardar
B) Narayan Paramguru
C) Jayee Rajguru
D) Bamdeva Pattajoshi
Answer: C) Jayee Rajguru - Which leader led the historic Paika Revolt of 1847 in Khurda?
A) Gopabandhu Das
B) Buxi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mohapatra
C) Krushna Singh
D) Narayan Paramguru
Answer: B) Buxi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mohapatra - What was the occupation of Buxi Jagabandhu before leading the revolt?
A) Farmer
B) Landlord
C) Soldier
D) Teacher
Answer: B) Landlord - What was the main grievance against the British Rule that led to the Paika Revolt?
A) Heavy taxation
B) Ban on trade
C) Religious persecution
D) Language imposition
Answer: A) Heavy taxation - Who conspired against Buxi Jagabandhu by transferring his landed properties to his brother’s name?
A) Jayee Rajguru
B) Karunakar Sardar
C) Narayan Paramguru
D) Krushna Singh
Answer: D) Krushna Singh - How was Jayee Rajguru punished by the British for his involvement in the revolt?
A) Banished
B) Imprisoned
C) Hanged
D) Exiled
Answer: C) Hanged - Where was Kalindi Charana Panigrahi born?
A) Bhubaneswar
B) Khurda
C) Puri
D) Sambalpur
Answer: B) Khurda - What is Kalindi Charana Panigrahi known for?
A) Poetry and essay writing
B) Drama and novel writing
C) Story writing and editing
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - Which autobiography did Kalindi Charana Panigrahi write?
A) Matira Manisa
B) Jaha Ange Nivaichi
C) Harihar Sahitya
D) Sriramchandrapur Smruti
Answer: B) Jaha Ange Nivaichi - Which prestigious award did Kalindi Charana Panigrahi receive?
A) Nobel Prize in Literature
B) Padma Bhusan
C) Sahitya Akademi Award
D) Pulitzer Prize
Answer: B) Padma Bhusan - Which university awarded Acharya Harihar a D.Litt Degree?
A) Sambalpur University
B) Kendra Sahitya Academy
C) IMFA Charitable Trust
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Sambalpur University - Where was Acharya Harihar born?
A) Khurda
B) Puri
C) Bhubaneswar
D) Sakhigopal
Answer: D) Sakhigopal - What was Acharya Harihar’s primary dedication from childhood?
A) Literature
B) Social service
C) Education
D) Drama
Answer: B) Social service - For which category did Ms. M Fathima Beevi receive the Padma Vibhushan award posthumously?
a) Social Work
b) Public Affairs
c) Art
d) Literature & Education
Correct Answer: b) Public Affairs - Which state did Shri Satyabrata Mookherjee represent, receiving the Padma Vibhushan award posthumously for his contributions in Public Affairs?
a) Bihar
b) Kerala
c) West Bengal
d) Ladakh
Correct Answer: c) West Bengal - Shri Togdan Rinpoche was honored posthumously with the Padma Vibhushan for his contributions in which field?
a) Public Affairs
b) Spiritualism
c) Art
d) Literature & Education
Correct Answer: b) Spiritualism - In which state was Shri Vijaykanth based, who received the Padma Vibhushan award posthumously for his contributions in the field of Art?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Kerala
d) Rajasthan
Correct Answer: a) Tamil Nadu - What is the highest civilian award in India?
A. Padma Vibhushan
B. Padma Bhushan
C. Padma Shri
D. Bharat Ratna
Answer: D. Bharat Ratna - Who among the following was not awarded the Bharat Ratna?
A. C. Rajagopalachari
B. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
C. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
D. C.V. Raman
Answer: C. Homi Jehangir Bhabha - Which award is given for distinguished service in various fields and is the third-highest civilian award in India?
A. Padma Bhushan
B. Padma Vibhushan
C. Padma Shri
D. Bharat Ratna
Answer: A. Padma Bhushan - Which award recognizes acts of valor during wartime and was instituted in 1947?
A. Param Vir Chakra
B. Ashoka Chakra
C. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
D. Nobel Prize
Answer: A. Param Vir Chakra - Which award is given for exceptional performance in sports and was instituted in 1992?
A. Nobel Prize
B. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
C. Padma Shri
D. Bharat Ratna
Answer: B. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna - Which award is given for groundbreaking achievements in various fields such as Physics, Chemistry, and Peace?
A. Magsaysay Awards
B. Nobel Prize
C. Pulitzer Prize
D. Janpith Award
Answer: B. Nobel Prize - Who among the following was awarded the first Dadasaheb Phalke Award?
A. Devika Rani
B. Sahitya Akademi
C. G. Sankara Kurup
D. Kuppali Venkatappa Puttappa
Answer: A. Devika Rani - Which award is given for outstanding contribution to Indian literature in 22 languages?
A. Sahitya Akademi Awards
B. Jnanpith Award
C. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards
D. Magsaysay Awards
Answer: B. Jnanpith Award - Which award is given to Indian scientists for their exceptional performance?
A. Sahitya Akademi Awards
B. Dronacharya Awards
C. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards
D. Grammy Awards
Answer: C. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Awards - Which award is given for performing arts in India?
A. Grammy Award
B. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
C. Pritzker Architecture Prize
D. Dhyan Chand Award
Answer: B. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award - Which award is given for excellence in academics/public administration or management?
A. Nobel Prize
B. Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding
C. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award
D. Dronacharya Awards
Answer: C. Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award - Who among the following was the first Indian awardee of the Abel Prize?
A. G. Sankara Kurup
B. C.K. Nagaraja Rao
C. Jean-Pierre Serre
D. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
Answer: B. C.K. Nagaraja Rao - Which award recognises individuals who have made exceptional contributions to improving the quality, quantity, or availability of food worldwide?
A. Nobel Prize
B. World Food Prize
C. Grammy Award
D. Moorti Devi Award
Answer: B. World Food Prize - Which award is presented annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation to recognise outstanding contributions to Hindi literature?
A. Sahitya Akademi Awards
B. Vyas Samman
C. Saraswati Samman
D. Indira Gandhi Award for International Peace, Disarmament, and Development
Answer: B. Vyas Samman - Which award is given by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Fund in India for specialized contributions in the field of international disarmament and development?
A. Saraswati Samman
B. Abel Prize
C. Grammy Award
D. Indira Gandhi Award for International Peace, Disarmament, and Development
Answer: D. Indira Gandhi Award for International Peace, Disarmament, and Development - Which Padma Award is considered the second-highest civilian award in India?
A) Padma Shri
B) Padma Bhushan
C) Padma Vibhushan
D) Bharat Ratna
Answer: C) Padma Vibhushan - Who among the following was awarded the Padma Vibhushan for their contribution to Public Affairs?
A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
B) B. R. Ambedkar
C) P. V. Narasimha Rao (posthumously)
D) Sushma Swaraj (posthumously)
Answer: A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam - In which field was Satyajit Ray awarded the Padma Vibhushan?
A) Arts
B) Literature & Education
C) Science and Engineering
D) Trade and Industry
Answer: A) Arts - Who received the Padma Bhushan for their contribution to Art?
A) Zakir Hussain
B) Mary Kom
C) Raghuram Rajan
D) PV Sindhu
Answer: A) Zakir Hussain - Which Padma Award is recognized as the fourth-highest civilian award in India?
A) Padma Bhushan
B) Padma Shri
C) Bharat Ratna
D) Padma Vibhushan
Answer: B) Padma Shri - Who was honored with the Padma Shri for their achievements in Sports?
A) Sachin Tendulkar
B) PV Sindhu
C) Mary Kom
D) Viswanathan Anand
Answer: C) Mary Kom - Raghuram Rajan was awarded which Padma Award for his contribution to Literature & Education?
A) Padma Shri
B) Padma Vibhushan
C) Padma Bhushan
D) Padma Awards for Gallantry
Answer: B) Padma Vibhushan - Which Padma Award is given for outstanding achievement in sports?
A) Arjuna Award
B) Dronacharya Award
C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
D) Padma Shri
Answer: A) Arjuna Award - The Padma Awards for Gallantry are given for acts of bravery in which situations?
A) Sports
B) Cinema
C) Public Affairs
D) Various situations
Answer: D) Various situations - Who was awarded the Padma Vibhushan posthumously for their contribution to Public Affairs?
A) P. V. Narasimha Rao
B) Sushma Swaraj
C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
D) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: B) Sushma Swaraj - Which Indian state is known for Umiam Lake, also known as Barapani Lake?
A) Meghalaya
B) Assam
C) Sikkim
D) Tripura
Answer: A) Meghalaya - Where was India’s first steel factory established?
A) Jamshedpur
B) Durgapur
C) Burnpur
D) Bhilai
Answer: C) Burnpur - Which state in India introduced the first “Oak Tussar Industry”?
A) Manipur
B) Orissa
C) Assam
D) Kerala
Answer: A) Manipur - Which states correspond to the maximum and minimum road lengths in India?
A) Madhya Pradesh and Andaman & Nicobar
B) Madhya Pradesh and Lakshadweep
C) Maharashtra and Lakshadweep
D) Maharashtra and Daman & Diu
Answer: C) Maharashtra and Lakshadweep - Which Indian state is known for its production of Oak Tussar silk?
A) Manipur
B) Assam
C) Bihar
D) Odisha
Answer: A) Manipur - Who was responsible for building a city-sized mausoleum for himself, guarded by the life-sized Terracotta Army?
[A] Qin Shi Huang
[B] King Zhuangxiang
[C] Qin Er Shi
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Qin Shi Huang] - Which ancient civilization originally referred to themselves as ‘Hellens’?
[A] Chinese
[B] Mesopotamians
[C] Greeks
[D] Romans
Correct Answer: C [Greeks] - The ‘Golden Age’ in the history of which ancient civilization is known as the Age of Pericles?
[A] Chinese
[B] Greeks
[C] Mesopotamians
[D] Romans
Correct Answer: B [Greeks] - Who famously said, “If Rome plundered she also civilized the world.”?
[A] Homer
[B] H.A. Davies
[C] Ptolemy
[D] Galen
Correct Answer: B [H.A. Davies] - Which Roman Emperor officially adopted Christianity as the official religion of Rome?
[A] Constantine
[B] Nero
[C] Theodosius the Great
[D] Jesus
Correct Answer: A [Constantine] - Where was the twenty-third Jain Tirthankara, Lord Parshvanath, closely associated?
[A] Vaishali
[B] Kausambi
[C] Varanasi
[D] Sravasti
Correct Answer: C [Varanasi] - In which region was Viratnagar, the capital of Matsya mahajanpada, located?
[A] Malwa
[B] Peshawar
[C] Jaipur
[D] Bundelkhand
Correct Answer: C [Jaipur] - How many prehistoric rock shelters are there in Bhimbetka?
[A] 221
[B] 243
[C] 268
[D] 289
Correct Answer: B [243] - Whose history has been described in the “Rajtarangini” of Kalhana?
[A] Kashmir
[B] Malwa
[C] Magadha
[D] Gandhar
Correct Answer: A [Kashmir] - Who was the first Tirthankar of Jainism?
[A] Rishabh dev
[B] Parshwanath
[C] Neminath
[D] Sambhavanath
Correct Answer: A [Rishabh dev] - Who were the immediate successors of the imperial Mauryas?
[A] Pandyas
[B] Kushans
[C] Nandas
[D] Sungas
Correct Answer: D [Sungas] - What material was primarily used in house making in the Indus Valley Civilization?
[A] Stone
[B] Bricks
[C] Wood
[D] Bamboo
Correct Answer: B [Bricks] - What population threshold does the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 set for the implementation of a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
[A] 15 Lakh
[B] 20 Lakh
[C] 25 Lakh
[D] 30 Lakh
Correct Answer: B [20 Lakh] - Which of the following entities’ accounts are not audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
[A] Municipal institutions
[B] State Governments
[C] Government Companies
[D] Central Government
Correct Answer: A [Municipal institutions] - Which legislative reform aimed at introducing self-governing institutions to India?
[A] Indian Council Act 1909
[B] Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
[C] Cabinet Mission
[D] Government of India Act 1935
Correct Answer: B [Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms] - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Union and its Territory?
[A] Part I
[B] Part II
[C] Part III
[D] Part IV
Correct Answer: A [Part I] - Under which article does Part I of the Indian Constitution deal with the establishment of new States?
[A] Article 1
[B] Article 2
[C] Article 3
[D] Article 4
Correct Answer: B [Article 2] - Which part of the Indian Constitution covers Citizenship?
[A] Part I
[B] Part II
[C] Part III
[D] Part IV
Correct Answer: B [Part II] - Article 9 of the Indian Constitution deals with:
[A] Rights of citizenship of certain individuals who have migrated from Pakistan to India
[B] Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan
[C] Continuance of the rights of citizenship
[D] Persons freely acquiring citizenship of a foreign State
Correct Answer: D [Persons freely acquiring citizenship of a foreign State] - Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which part of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Part II
[B] Part III
[C] Part IV
[D] Part V
Correct Answer: B [Part III] - Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?
[A] Article 14 to 18
[B] Article 19 to 22
[C] Article 23-24
[D] Article 25 to 28
Correct Answer: A [Article 14 to 18] - Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with:
[A] Fundamental Rights
[B] Directive Principles
[C] Legislative Relations
[D] Official Language
Correct Answer: B [Directive Principles] - Which article of the Indian Constitution talks about the promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections?
[A] Article 38
[B] Article 39
[C] Article 46
[D] Article 50
Correct Answer: C [Article 46] - The provision for a Uniform Civil Code is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?
[A] Part III
[B] Part IV
[C] Part IX
[D] Part XI
Correct Answer: B [Part IV] - Article 51 of the Indian Constitution mandates the State to promote:
[A] Educational Rights
[B] International Peace and Security
[C] Cultural and Religious Freedom
[D] Economic Development
Correct Answer: B [International Peace and Security] - Where are Bundla Falls located?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Gujarat
Ans: B. Himachal Pradesh - Which waterfall is found in Panna district of Madhya Pradesh?
A. Gatha Falls
B. Hebbe Falls
C. Unchalli Falls
D. None of the above
Ans: A. Gatha Falls - In which hills are Kynrem Falls situated?
A. Garo Hills
B. Khasi Hills
C. Jaintia Hills
D. Satpura Hills
Ans: B. Khasi Hills - Where is Vantawng Falls, with a height of 229 meters, located in Mizoram?
A. Champhai District
B. Mamit District
C. Serchchip District
D. Aizawl District
Ans: C. Serchchip District - Which state hosts Soochipara Falls?
A. Kerala
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Andhra Pradesh
Ans: A. Kerala - What is the height of Nohsngithiang Falls?
A. 305 meters
B. 315 meters
C. 300 meters
D. 150 meters
Ans: B. 315 meters - How tall is Kynrem Falls?
A. 305 meters
B. 315 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 300 meters
Ans: A. 305 meters - Where are Nohsngithiang Falls located?
A. Meghalaya
B. Mizoram
C. Manipur
D. None of the above
Ans: A. Meghalaya - Which waterfall with a height of 168 meters is situated in the Chikmagalur district of Karnataka?
A. Gatha Falls
B. Hebbe Falls
C. Unchalli Falls
D. Hebbe Falls
Ans: B. Hebbe Falls - In which district of Karnataka can Kusaali Falls be found?
A. Chitradurga
B. Devanagiri
C. Kolar
D. Udupi
Ans: D. Udupi - Duduma falls are located on which of the following rivers in India?
A. Machkund River
B. Narmada River
C. Godavari River
D. Kalahandi River
Answer: A. Machkund River - Ninai falls are located on the watercourse of which of the following rivers?
A. Tapti
B. Godavari
C. Narmada
D. Chambal
Answer: C. Narmada - Which of the following waterfalls are located on Bihad river, a tributary of Tons river?
A. Chachai falls
B. Dudhsagar falls
C. Hebbe falls
D. Pebble falls
Answer: A. Chachai falls - Abbey falls are located in the geographical proximity of:-
A. Western Ghats
B. Eastern Ghats
C. Himalayas
D. Nilgiri Mountains
Answer: A. Western Ghats - Which of the following waterfalls is located on the Leh-Manali highway in Himachal Pradesh?
A. Rehala falls
B. Dudhsagar falls
C. Hebbe falls
D. Pebble falls
Answer: A. Rehala falls - Which of the following waterfalls is located on the Aghanashini River in Karnataka?
A. Rehala falls
B. Unchalli falls
C. Chachai falls
D. Hebbe falls
Answer: B. Unchalli falls - Buhraghagh falls/Lodh falls are located on which of the following rivers in India:?
A. Machkund River
B. Mandavi River
C. Burha River
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Burha River - Katki waterfalls are located in which of the following States?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B. Andhra Pradesh - Talakona, the highest waterfall in Andhra Pradesh is situated in which of the following districts?
A. Chittor
B. Vishakhapatnam
C. Kurnool
D. Guntoor
Answer: A. Chittor - Chitrakoot falls are located in which of the following States?
A. Jharkhand
B. Chattisgarh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Bihar
Answer: B. Chattisgarh - Athirapally Falls are located in which of the following States in India?
A. Kerala
B. Manipur
C. Maharashtra
D. Tamil Nadu
Ans: A. Kerala - Ninai Falls are located in which of the following states in India?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Manipur
D. Gujarat
Ans: A. Gujarat - What is the height of Athirapally Falls?
A. 21 mtrs.
B. 25 mtrs.
C. 16 mtrs.
D. 10 mtrs.
Ans: B. 25 mtrs. - Langshiang falls are located in which of the following States in India?
A. Mizoram
B. Meghalaya
C. Manipur
D. Tripura
Ans: B. Meghalaya - What is the height of Ninai falls?
A. 20 ft.
B. 30 ft.
C. 60 ft.
D. 50 ft.
Ans: B. 30 ft. - Which of the following is the three tiered waterfall located in the Pune district of Maharashtra?
A. Duduma falls
B. Dudhsagar falls
C. Jog Falls
D. Kune Falls
Ans: A. Duduma falls - What is the height of Nohkalikai falls?
A. 310 metres
B. 340 mtrs.
C. 150 mtrs.
D. None of the above
Ans: B. 340 mtrs. - Nohkalikai falls are located in which of the following hills in India?
A. Khasi Hills
B. Garo Hills
C. Jaintia Hills
D. None of the above
Ans: A. Khasi Hills - Which of the following waterfalls forms the border between Karnataka and Goa?
A. Duduma falls
B. Dudhsagar falls
C. Hebbe falls
D. Pebble falls
Ans: B. Dudhsagar falls - Duduma falls with a height of 175 mtrs. is located in which of the following States?
A. Jharkhand
B. Chattisgarh
C. Odisha
D. Meghalaya
Ans: C. Odisha - What are the colors of the Indian National Flag?
A) Saffron, White, Green
B) Red, White, Blue
C) Orange, Yellow, Green
D) Blue, White, Red
Answer: A) Saffron, White, Green - How many spokes are there in the navy-blue wheel depicted in the center of the Indian National Flag?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 24
D) 30
Answer: C) 24 - What is inscribed below the abacus of the National Emblem in Devanagari script?
A) “In God We Trust”
B) “Truth Alone Triumphs”
C) “Unity in Diversity”
D) “Strength in Unity”
Answer: B) “Truth Alone Triumphs” - Who composed the Indian National Anthem “Jana-gana-mana”?
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Rabindranath Tagore
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer: B) Rabindranath Tagore - Which river is considered the National River of India?
A) Yamuna
B) Ganges (Ganga)
C) Brahmaputra
D) Godavari
Answer: B) Ganges (Ganga) - Which tree is the National Tree of India?
A) Neem
B) Coconut
C) Indian Banyan
D) Peepal
Answer: C) Indian Banyan - Which animal is the National Aquatic animal of India?
A) Whale
B) Dolphin
C) Shark
D) Octopus
Answer: B) Dolphin - Which classical dance form originates from Tamil Nadu?
A) Bharata Natyam
B) Kathakali
C) Mohini Attam
D) Kuchipudi
Answer: A) Bharata Natyam - How many classical dance forms are mentioned in the provided text?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Answer: B) 8 - Kathakali, known for its elaborate head dresses and themes from Hindu epics, belongs to which Indian state?
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Kerala
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Odisha
Answer: B) Kerala - Mohini Attam, characterized by swaying movements and white-gold costumes, originates from which state?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: A) Kerala - Lucknow, Banaras, and Jaipur are recognized as the three schools of which classical dance form?
A) Bharata Natyam
B) Kathakali
C) Kathak
D) Odissi
Answer: C) Kathak - Odissi, known for its use of tribhangi posture and helix-like movements, hails from which state?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Odisha
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C) Odisha - Kuchipudi dance form, featuring the Taranagam or plate dance, is native to which Indian state?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Manipur
Answer: C) Andhra Pradesh - Sattriya, involving khol playing and floor patterns, is a classical dance form from which Indian state?
A) Assam
B) Manipur
C) Kerala
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: A) Assam - Which classical dance form is characterized by the use of intricate footwork and stylized gestures?
A) Mohini Attam
B) Kuchipudi
C) Kathak
D) Manipuri
Answer: C) Kathak - Which period is often described as “The Golden Age of Art and Architecture in India”?
A) Maurya Period
B) Gupta Period
C) Mughal Period
D) Chola Period
Answer: B) Gupta Period - What marked the beginning of Free Standing temple Architecture during the Gupta Era?
A) Cave architecture
B) Rock-cut architecture
C) Evolution of Shikhara
D) Introduction of Dasavatar Temple
Answer: C) Evolution of Shikhara - Which temple is considered the most important temple of the Gupta era?
A) Ajanta Caves
B) Ellora Caves
C) Bhitargaon Temple
D) Dasavatar Temple of Deogarh
Answer: D) Dasavatar Temple of Deogarh - Which architectural feature emerged during the Gupta period that included a square sanctum and pillared porch?
A) Shikhara
B) Pradakshana Path
C) Monolithic flat slab roof
D) Covered processional path
Answer: A) Shikhara - What did the evolved Gupta temples have for circumambulation as part of the worship-ritual?
A) Monolithic flat slab roof
B) Pradakshana Path
C) Shikhara
D) Covered processional path
Answer: B) Pradakshana Path - Where is the Bhitargaon Temple located?
A) Bihar
B) Rajasthan
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: C) Uttar Pradesh - Which temple is considered one of the earliest surviving brick temples of India, built during the Gupta Empire?
A) Bhitargaon Temple
B) Dashavatara Temple
C) Ellora Caves
D) Ajanta Caves
Answer: A) Bhitargaon Temple - What architectural feature became standard in Nagara temple architecture of India, as seen in the Bhitargaon Temple?
A) Monolithic flat slab roof
B) Pradakshana Path
C) Shikhara
D) Semi-circular doorway
Answer: C) Shikhara - Which temple is locally known as Sagar marh?
A) Bhitargaon Temple
B) Dashavatara Temple
C) Ellora Caves
D) Udayagiri Caves
Answer: B) Dashavatara Temple - Which temple is located in Hampi, Karnataka?
A) Meenakshi Temple
B) Ramanathaswamy Temple
C) Suchindram Temple
D) Virupaksha Temple
Answer: D) Virupaksha Temple - Which temple is situated in Madurai, Tamil Nadu?
A) Virupaksha Temple
B) Vitthala Temple
C) Meenakshi Temple
D) Ramanathaswamy Temple
Answer: C) Meenakshi Temple - Which temple is found on Rameshwaram Island, Tamil Nadu?
A) Virupaksha Temple
B) Vitthala Temple
C) Meenakshi Temple
D) Ramanathaswamy Temple
Answer: D) Ramanathaswamy Temple - Where is the Suchindram Temple located?
A) Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu
B) Madurai, Tamil Nadu
C) Hampi, Karnataka
D) Rameshwaram Island, Tamil Nadu
Answer: A) Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu - Which temple is situated in Hampi, Karnataka, and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
A) Vitthala Temple
B) Meenakshi Temple
C) Ramanathaswamy Temple
D) Suchindram Temple
Answer: A) Vitthala Temple - Which exercise is conducted between India and the United States armies to enhance interoperability in counterterrorism and disaster relief operations?
A) Yudh Abhyas
B) Shakti
C) Ajeya Warrior
D) Hand-in-Hand
Answer: A) Yudh Abhyas - Nomadic Elephant exercise is conducted between India and which country?
A) Mongolia
B) China
C) France
D) Nepal
Answer: A) Mongolia - Surya Kiran exercise enhances military-to-military cooperation between India and which country?
A) Nepal
B) Russia
C) Bangladesh
D) Sri Lanka
Answer: A) Nepal - Garuda exercise is conducted between India and which country?
A) France
B) China
C) United States
D) Japan
Answer: A) France - Which exercise aims to enhance mutual trust and cooperation between the armies of India and China?
A) Malabar
B) Hand-in-Hand
C) Surya Kiran
D) Garuda
Answer: B) Hand-in-Hand - Ajeya Warrior exercise is conducted between India and which country’s army?
A) United States
B) France
C) United Kingdom
D) Russia
Answer: C) United Kingdom - Which exercise focuses on joint training in counterterrorism and peacekeeping operations between India and France?
A) Malabar
B) Shakti
C) Surya Kiran
D) Indra
Answer: B) Shakti - What is the focus of the Indra exercise between India and Russia?
A) Air Force cooperation
B) Naval operations
C) Counterterrorism and peacekeeping
D) Mountain warfare
Answer: C) Counterterrorism and peacekeeping - Which exercise is conducted between India and Saudi Arabia’s armies?
A) Vajra Prahar
B) Sada Tanseeq
C) Shakti
D) Ajeya Warrior
Answer: B) Sada Tanseeq - Hand-in-Hand exercise is conducted between India and which country?
A) Russia
B) France
C) China
D) Japan
Answer: C) China - What is the focus of the Indra exercise between India and Russia?
A) Mountain warfare
B) Naval operations
C) Counterterrorism and peacekeeping
D) Urban warfare scenarios
Answer: C) Counterterrorism and peacekeeping - Which exercise aims to enhance military cooperation and interoperability between India and Thailand?
A) Maitree
B) Sampriti
C) Ex-Desert Knight
D) Vinbax
Answer: A) Maitree - Nomadic Elephant exercise is conducted between India and which country?
A) Bangladesh
B) Nepal
C) Vietnam
D) Maldives
Answer: B) Nepal - Which exercise focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation in counterterrorism and disaster relief operations between India and the United States?
A) Desert Eagle
B) Cope India
C) Red Flag
D) Eastern Bridge
Answer: B) Cope India - What is the focus of the Ajeya Warrior exercise between India and the United Kingdom?
A) Mountain warfare
B) Counterterrorism and urban warfare
C) Naval operations
D) Air combat drills
Answer: B) Counterterrorism and urban warfare - Which exercise promotes peace, stability, and understanding along the India-Sri Lanka border?
A) Maitree
B) Mitra Shakti
C) Samudra Shakti
D) Lamitye
Answer: B) Mitra Shakti - Surya Kiran exercise aims to enhance military-to-military cooperation between India and which country?
A) Bangladesh
B) Nepal
C) Indonesia
D) Sri Lanka
Answer: B) Nepal - Which country participates in the Pitch Black joint military exercise with India?
A) Singapore
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) Thailand
Answer: C) Australia - What type of force is involved in the Sindex exercise between India and Singapore?
A) Army
B) Navy
C) Air Force
D) Marine Corps
Answer: C) Air Force - Siam Bharat exercise involves cooperation between India and which country’s air force?
A) Japan
B) Thailand
C) Singapore
D) Australia
Answer: B) Thailand - Shinyuu Maitri exercise focuses on military cooperation between India and which country?
A) Japan
B) Australia
C) Singapore
D) Thailand
Answer: A) Japan - Saffron Bandit exercise involves joint training between India and which country’s air force?
A) Singapore
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) Thailand
Answer: A) Singapore - Which country conducts the Blue Flag joint military exercise with India?
A) United States
B) Japan
C) Australia
D) Singapore
Answer: A) United States - Ekuverin exercise involves military cooperation between India and which country?
A) Mongolia
B) Maldives
C) Singapore
D) Thailand
Answer: B) Maldives - Nomadic Elephant exercise involves joint training between India and which country?
A) Mongolia
B) Maldives
C) Singapore
D) Thailand
Answer: A) Mongolia - Which exercise focuses on enhancing interoperability and cooperation between India and the Maldives?
A) Nomadic Elephant
B) Saffron Bandit
C) Ekuverin
D) Blue Flag
Answer: C) Ekuverin - In which exercise do India and Mongolia participate to enhance military cooperation?
A) Ekuverin
B) Nomadic Elephant
C) Blue Flag
D) Shinyuu Maitri
Answer: B) Nomadic Elephant - When will the 7th edition of the joint military exercise ‘Shakti’ between India and France take place?
A) May 13 to 20
B) May 13 to 26
C) May 26 to June 2
D) June 1 to 15
Answer: B) May 13 to 26 - Where will the joint military exercise ‘Shakti’ between India and France be conducted?
A) Pokhran
B) Umroi area of Meghalaya
C) Ladakh
D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: B) Umroi area of Meghalaya - What is the purpose of the ‘Bharat Shakti’ tri-service military exercise to be held at Pokhran?
A) To strengthen defense ties between India and France
B) To showcase shock and awe impact in an operational situation
C) To enhance military cooperation between India and China
D) To demonstrate fighting capabilities against Pakistan
Answer: B) To showcase the “shock and awe” impact that the armed forces seek to achieve in an operational situation with maneuver and fighting capabilities - When is the World Blood Donor Day celebrated every year?
A) 14 June
B) 20 June
C) 25 June
D) 30 June
Answer: A. 14 June - A number exceeds another number by 5.the sum of the numbers is 19. find the smaller number ?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 12
Ans: D. 12
Let one of the numbers be “x”; then the other is “x+5”.
Equation:
x + x+5 = 19
2x = 14
x = 7 (the 1st number)
x+5 = 12 (the other number) - Hafeez invested Rs. 15000 @ 10% per annum for one year. If the interest is compounded half-yearly, then the amount received by Hafeez at the end of the year will be?
A. Rs. 16,500
B. Rs. 16,525.50
C. Rs. 16,537.50
D. Rs. 18,150
Ans: C. Rs. 16,537.50
Explanation:
P = Rs. 15000; R = 10% p.a. = 5% per half-year; T = 1 year = 2 half-year
Amount = [15000 * (1 + 5/100)2]
= (15000 * 21/20 * 21/20) = Rs. 16537.50 - The angle of elevation of the sun, when the length of the shadow of a tree is √3 times the height of the tree, is :________?
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 90°
Ans: A. 30°
Let AB be the tree and AC be its shadow.
Let ∠ACB = θ.
Then, AC/AB = √3
Cot θ = √3
θ = 30° - 18 men can eat 20 kg of rice in 3 days. How long will 6 men take to eat 40 kg of rice?
A. 20
B. 18
C. 32
D. 20
Ans: B. 18
18*3/20=6/40x
54/20=6/40x
54*40/20*6=x
18=x - A, B and C enter into a partnership. They invest Rs. 40,000, Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 1,20,000 respectively. At the end of the first year, B withdraws Rs. 40,000, while at the end of the second year, C withdraws Rs. 80,000. IN what ratio will the profit be shared at the end of 3 years?
A. 2:3:5
B. 3:4:7
C. 4:5:9
D. None of these
Ans: B. 3:4:7
Explanation:
A:B:C = (40000 * 36) : (80000 * 12 + 40000 * 24) : (120000 * 24 + 40000 * 12)
= 144:192:336 = 3:4:7 - A cistern is normally filled in 8 hours but takes two hours longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full the leak will empty it in.
A. 16 hrs
B. 20 hrs
C. 25 hrs
D. 40 hrs
Ans: D. 40 hrs
Work done by leak in 1 hour = (1/8 – 1/10) = 1/40
The leak will empty the cistern in 40 hours. - Three flags each of different colours are available for a military exercise, Using these flags different codes can be generated by waving
I. Single flag of different colours
II. Any two flags in a different sequence of colours.
III. three flags in a different sequence of colours.
The maximum number of codes that can be generated is.
A. 6
B. 9
C. 15
D. 18
Ans: C. 15
Explanation:
This type of question becomes very easy when we assume three colour are red(R) blue(B) and Green(G).
We can choose any colour.
Now according to the statement 1 i.e.., codes can be generated by waving single flag of different colours, then number of ways are three i.e.., R.B.G from statement III three flags in different sequence of colours, then number of ways are six i.e.., RBG, BGR, GBR, RGB, BRG, GRB.
Hence total number of ways by changing flag = 3+ 6 +6 = 15 - A person purchases 90 clocks and sells 40 clocks at a gain of 10% and 50 clocks at a gain of 20%. If he sold all of them at a uniform profit of 15%, then he would have got Rs. 40 less. The cost price of each clock is:_________?
A. Rs.50
B. Rs.60
C. Rs.80
D. Rs.90
Ans: C. Rs.80
Explanation:
Let C.P. of clock be Rs. x.
Then, C.P. of 90 clocks = Rs. 90x.
[(110% of 40x) + (120% of 50x)] – (115% of 90x) = 40
44x + 60x – 103.5x = 40
0.5x = 40 => x = 80 - The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________?
A. 51:52
B. 52:53
C. 51:53
D. 52:55
Ans: B. 52:53
Explanation:
Let C.P. of the article be Rs. x.
Then, required ratio = 104% of x / 106% of x
= 104/106 = 52/53 = 52:53 - If 5% more is gained by selling an article for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340, the cost of the article is:________?
A. Rs. 50
B. Rs. 160
C. Rs. 200
D. Rs. 225
Ans: C. Rs. 200
Explanation:
Let C.P. be Rs. x.
Then, 5% of x = 350 – 340 = 10
x/20 = 10 => x = 200 - In a game of billiards, A can give B 20 points in 60 and he can give C 30 points in 60. How many points can B give C in a game of 100?
A. 50
B. 40
C. 25
D. 15
Ans: C. 25
Explanation:
A scores 60 while B score 40 and C scores 30.
The number of points that C scores when B scores 100 = (100 * 30)/40 = 25 * 3 = 75.
In a game of 100 points, B gives (100 – 75) = 25 points to C. - In a race of 1000 m, A can beat by 100 m, in a race of 800m, B can beat C by 100m. By how many meters will A beat C in a race of 600 m?
A. 57.5 m
B. 127.5 m
C. 150.7 m
D. 98.6 m
Ans: B. 127.5 m
Explanation:
When A runs 1000 m, B runs 900 m and when B runs 800 m, C runs 700 m.
When B runs 900 m, distance that C runs = (900 * 700)/800 = 6300/8 = 787.5 m.
In a race of 1000 m, A beats C by (1000 – 787.5) = 212.5 m to C.
In a race of 600 m, the number of meters by which A beats C = (600 * 212.5)/1000 = 127.5 m. - A bag contains equal number of Rs.5, Rs.2 and Re.1 coins. If the total amount in the bag is Rs.1152, find the number of coins of each kind?
A. 432
B. 288
C. 144
D. 72
Ans: C. 144
Explanation:
Let the number of coins of each kind be x.
=> 5x + 2x + 1x = 1152
=> 8x = 1152 => x = 144 - Arslan and Bilal have some marbles with them. Arslan told Bilal “if you give me ‘x’ marbles, both of us will have equal number of marbles”. Bilal then told Arslan “if you give me twice as many marbles, I will have 30 more marbles than you would”. Find ‘x’?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
Ans: B. 5
Explanation:
If Bilal gives ‘x’ marbles to Arslan then Bilal and Arslan would have V – x and A + x marbles.
V – x = A + x — (1)
If Arslan gives 2x marbles to Bilal then Arslan and Bilal would have A – 2x and V + 2x marbles.
V + 2x – (A – 2x) = 30 => V – A + 4x = 30 — (2)
From (1) we have V – A = 2x
Substituting V – A = 2x in (2)
6x = 30 => x = 5. - A man buys Rs. 25 shares in a company which pays 9% dividend . The money invested is such that it gives 10% on investment. At what price did he buy the shares?
A. Rs.22
B. Rs.22.50
C. Rs.25
D. Rs.22.50
Ans: B. Rs.22.50
Suppose he buys each share be Rs. X.
Then, (25 x 9/100)=(X x 10/100) X= 22.50
Cost of each share is Rs. 22.50. - Find the cost of 96 shares of Rs. 10 each at (3/4) discount, brokerage being(1/4) per share.
A. 812
B. 912
C. 1012
D. 1112
Ans: B. 912
Cost of 1 share = Rs. [(10-(3/4)) + (1/4)] = Rs. (19/2).
Cost of 96 shares = Rs. [(19/2)*96] = Rs. 912. - An order was placed for the supply of a carper whose length and breadth were in the ratio of 3 : 2. Subsequently, the dimensions of the carpet were altered such that its length and breadth were in the ratio 7 : 3 but were was no change in its parameter. Find the ratio of the areas of the carpets in both the cases.
A. 4 : 3
B. 8 : 7
C. 4 : 1
D. 6 : 5
Ans: B. 8 : 7
Let the length and breadth of the carpet in the first case be 3x units and 2x units respectively.
Let the dimensions of the carpet in the second case be 7y, 3y units respectively.
From the data,.
2(3x + 2x) = 2(7y + 3y)
=> 5x = 10y
=> x = 2y
Required ratio of the areas of the carpet in both the cases
= 3x * 2x : 7y : 3y
= 6×2 : 21y2
= 6 * (2y)2 : 21y2
= 6 * 4y2 : 21y2
= 8 : 7 - The sector of a circle has radius of 21 cm and central angle 135o. Find its perimeter?
A. 91.5 cm
B. 93.5 cm
C. 94.5 cm
D. 92.5 cm
Ans: A. 91.5 cm
Perimeter of the sector = length of the arc + 2(radius)
= (135/360 * 2 * 22/7 * 21) + 2(21)
= 49.5 + 42 = 91.5 cm - The length of a rectangle is two – fifths of the radius of a circle. The radius of the circle is equal to the side of the square, whose area is 1225 sq.units. What is the area (in sq.units) of the rectangle if the rectangle if the breadth is 10 units?
A. 140
B. 156
C. 175
D. 214
Ans: A. 140
Given that the area of the square = 1225 sq.units
=> Side of square = √1225 = 35 units
The radius of the circle = side of the square = 35 units Length of the rectangle = 2/5 * 35 = 14 units
Given that breadth = 10 units
Area of the rectangle = lb = 14 * 10 = 140 sq.units - The ratio of the volumes of two cubes is 729 : 1331. What is the ratio of their total surface areas?
A. 81 : 121
B. 9 : 11
C. 729 : 1331
D. 27 : 12
Ans: A. 81 : 121
Ratio of the sides = ³√729 : ³√1331 = 9 : 11
Ratio of surface areas = 92 : 112 = 81 : 121 - 6 of 5/8 / 5/8 – 1/8 = ______?
A. 6 1/8
B. 5 3/4
C. 6 3/4
D. 5 7/8
Ans: D. 5 7/8
Explanation:
6 of 5/8 / 5/8 – 1/8
30/8 * 8/5 – 1/8 = 6 – 1/8 = 5 7/8 - (22 * 495 + 891 * 44) / (33 * 176 + 55 * 264) = _________?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 69/28
D. 66/17
Ans: C. 69/28
Explanation:
(22 * 495 + 891 * 44) / (33 * 176 + 55 * 264) = (22 * 33 * 15 + 9 * 99 * 2 * 22) / (33 * 22 * 8 + 5 * 11 * 22 * 12)
= (22 * 33 * 15 + 22 * 33 * 54) / (33 * 22 * 8 + 33 * 22 * 20) = [22 * 33(15 + 54)] / [33 * 22(8 + 20)] = 69/287 + 5 – (3/2 * 1/4) of 2/7 + 7/2 * 1/6 equals ________.
A. 12 3/88
B. 24 21/24
C. 12 25/224
D. 12 1/224
Ans: C. 12 25/224
Explanation:
7 + 5 – (3/2 * 1/4) of 2/7 + 7/2 * 1/16
= 7 + 5 – (3/2 * 1/4) * 2/7 + 7/2 * 1/16 = 7 + 5 – 3/28 + 7/32
= 12 + 3/28 + 7/32 = 12 + (7 * 7 – 3 * 8)/224
= 12 + 25/224 = 12 25/224 - A boat having a length 3 m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of man is :__________?
A. 12 kg
B. 60 kg
C. 72 kg
D. 96 kg
Ans: B. 60 kg
Volume of water displaced = (3 X 2 X 0.01) m3 = 0.06 m3.
Mass of man = Volume of water displaced X Density of water
= (0.06 X 1000) kg = 60 kg. - The areas of the three adjacent faces of a rectangular box which meet in a point are known. The product of these areas is equal to :___________?
A. the volume of the box
B. twice the volume of the box
C. the square of the volume of the box
D. the cube root of the volume of the box
Ans: C. the square of the volume of the box
Let length = 1, breadth = b and height = h. Then,
Product of areas of 3 adjacent faces = (lb x bh x 1h) = (lbh)2 = (Volume)2. - A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in 240 metres ahead of the engine of a 120 metres long train running at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the joɡɡer?
A. 3.6 sec
B. 18 sec
C. 36 sec
D. 72 sec
Ans: C. 36 sec
Explanation
With 5 best steps
1.Data:
Speed 1=V₁= 9km/h
Distance 1=S₁= 240 m
Distance 2 =S₁= 120 m
Speed 2=V₂= 45km/h
Relative speed(V) = V₂_V₁
Relative speed (V)= 45km/h_9 km/h
Relative speed (V)=36km/h
Relative speed(V)= 36×1000m/3600Sec
Relative speed (V)= 36000m/3600Sec
Relative speed(V)= 10 m/sec
Covered distance(S)= 240m+120m
Covered distance (S)= 360m.
2. Required:
Time taken= T=??
3. Formula:
S= V×T
For T
T = S/V
4. Solution:
Putting values in formula.
T= 360 m/10 m/Sec
T= 36Sec
5. Result:
Time taken= T= 36 Sec - Two trains are moving in opposite directions 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are 1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster train in seconds is_________?
A. 36
B. 45
C. 48
D. 49
Ans: C. 48
Explained with 5 Steps.
1.Data:
Speed 1 = 60 km/hr
Speed 2= 90 km/hr
Relative speed= (60+90)km/hr
Relative speed= 150 km/hr
Relative speed= 150×1000m/3600 Sec
Relative speed= 150,000m/3600 Sec
Relative speed= 1500m/36Sec
Relative speed= 42m/Sec
Distance 1= 1.10km
Distance 2= 0.9km
Total distance= (1.10+0.9) km
D(t)= 2 km => 2×1000m
D(t) = 2000m
2 Required:
Time=T=???
3. Formula:
S = V×T
For T
T= S/V
4. Solution:
Putting value in formulas.
T= 2000m/ 42 m/sec
T= 48Sec
5. Result:
Time =T= 48 Sec - In what ratio should the profit be divided if M, N, O invests capital in ratio 2:3:5 and their timing of their investments are in the ratio 4:5:6.
A. 8:15:30
B. 5:18:28
C. 4:5:6
D. 2:3:5
Ans: A. 8:15:30
P1:P2:P3 = (2*4):(3*5):(5*6)
= 8 : 15 : 30 - If Ahmed purchases a Watch for Rs 600 and pays 15% sales tax, the total amount spent on purchase is?
A. 660
B. 670
C. 680
D. 690
E. 700
Ans; D. 690
If Ahmed purchases a Watch for and pays sales tax, the total amount spent on purchase is 690.
EXPLANATION
= 600x(1+15%)
= 600×1.15
= 690 - From a pack of cards two cards are drawn one after the other, with replacement. The probability that the first is a red card and the second is a king is_________?
A. 1/26
B. 3/52
C. 15/26
D. 11/26
Ans: A. 1/26
Explanation:
Let E1 be the event of drawing a red card.
Let E2 be the event of drawing a king .
P(E1 ∩ E2) = P(E1) . P(E2)
(As E1 and E2 are independent)
= 1/2 * 1/13 = 1/26 - Out of 10 persons working on a project, 4 are graduates. If 3 are selected, what is the probability that there is at least one graduate among them?
A. 1/6
B. 5/8
C. 3/8
D. 5/6
Ans: D. 5/6
Explanation:
P(at least one graduate) = 1 – P(no graduates) =
1 – ⁶C₃/¹⁰C₃ = 1 – (6 * 5 * 4)/(10 * 9 * 8) = 5/6
