Odia govt jobs   »   Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC...

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-5

The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.

Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-5 PDF Download

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-5

  1. Which river is known as the “sorrow of Odisha”?
    a) Subarnarekha
    b) Brahmani
    c) Mahanadi
    d) Budhabalanga
    Answer: c) Mahanadi
  2. 2. What is the longest river in Odisha?
    a) Brahmani
    b) Subarnarekha
    c) Baitarani
    d) Mahanadi
    Answer: d) Mahanadi
  3. 3. Which river drains the districts of Kendujhar and Bhadrak?
    a) Rushikulya
    b) Baitarani
    c) Brahmani
    d) Subarnarekha
    Answer: b) Baitarani
  4. 4. The Subarnarekha River drains which part of the Mayurbhanj district?
    a) North
    b) South
    c) East
    d) West
    Answer: a) North
  5. 5. The Kolab and Indravati rivers drain which districts?
    a) Rayagada and Gajapati
    b) Nabarangpur, Malkangiri, and Koraput
    c) Sundargarh and Debgarh
    d) Kendujhar and Bhadrak
    Answer: b) Nabarangpur, Malkangiri, and Koraput
  6. 6. Where does the Brahmani River originate?
    a) Matabhari Village, Daringbadi
    b) Vedvyas, Rourkela
    c) Dumuria Village, Keonjhar
    d) Nagri Town, Chhattisgarh
    Answer: b) Vedvyas, Rourkela
  7. 7. Which river has its origin in Nagri Town, Chhattisgarh?
    a) Subarnarekha
    b) Baitarani
    c) Mahanadi
    d) Brahmani
    Answer: c) Mahanadi
  8. 8. The districts of Rayagada and parts of Gajapati are drained by which rivers?
    a) Rushikulya and Bahuda
    b) Kolab and Indravati
    c) Vamsadhara and Nagavali
    d) Subarnarekha and Budhabalanga
    Answer: c) Vamsadhara and Nagavali
  9. 9. Which river is the shortest in Odisha?
    a) Bahuda
    b) Baitarani
    c) Brahmani
    d) Mahanadi
    Answer: a) Bahuda
  10. 10. The Rushikulya River drains which district?
    a) Ganjam
    b) Kendujhar
    c) Sambalpur
    d) Puri
    Answer: a) Ganjam
  11. 11. Which river’s construction of the Hirakud Dam significantly mitigated flooding issues?
    a) Brahmani
    b) Rushikulya
    c) Mahanadi
    d) Baitarani
    Answer: c) Mahanadi
  12. 12. What is the major tributary of the Subarnarekha River?
    a) Kharkhai
    b) Kapur
    c) Deo
    d) Tel
    Answer: a) Kharkhai
  13. 13. The Baitarani River drains into which body of water?
    a) Arabian Sea
    b) Bay of Bengal
    c) Indian Ocean
    d) Red Sea
    Answer: b) Bay of Bengal
  14. 14. Which district is NOT drained by the Brahmani River?
    a) Sundargarh
    b) Debgarh
    c) Ganjam
    d) Kendrapara
    Answer: c) Ganjam
  15. 15. Where does the Vamsadhara River originate?
    a) Nagri Town, Chhattisgarh
    b) Tentulipadar, Kalahandi
    c) Similipal Hills, Mayurbhanj
    d) Vedvyas, Rourkela
    Answer: b) Tentulipadar, Kalahandi
  16. 16. The Rushikulya River originates from which location?
    a) Vedvyas, Rourkela
    b) Matabhari Village, Daringbadi hills
    c) Nagri Town, Chhattisgarh
    d) Dumuria Village, Keonjhar
    Answer: b) Matabhari Village, Daringbadi hills
  17. 17. The districts of Sambalpur, Sonepur, and Bargarh drain into which river?
    a) Rushikulya
    b) Brahmani
    c) Subarnarekha
    d) Mahanadi
    Answer: d) Mahanadi
  18. 18. Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Mahanadi River?
    a) Ib
    b) Jeera
    c) Kusei
    d) Tel
    Answer: c) Kusei
  19. 19. Which river’s outfall is into the Bay of Bengal (A.P State)?
    a) Vamsadhara
    b) Subarnarekha
    c) Indravati
    d) Rushikulya
    Answer: a) Vamsadhara
  20. 20. The Kolab River ultimately drains into which larger river?
    a) Mahanadi
    b) Godavari
    c) Brahmani
    d) Baitarani
    Answer: b) Godavari
  21. 21. The Indravati River originates in which district of Odisha?
    a) Keonjhar
    b) Kandhamal
    c) Kalahandi
    d) Rayagada
    Answer: c) Kalahandi
  22. 22. What is the length of the Mahanadi River inside Odisha?
    a) 494 km
    b) 461 km
    c) 360 km
    d) 175 km
    Answer: a) 494 km
  23. 23. Which river’s major tributaries include the Deo, Kanjhari, and Kusei?
    a) Baitarani
    b) Brahmani
    c) Subarnarekha
    d) Rushikulya
    Answer: a) Baitarani
  24. 24. The districts of Mayurbhanj and Balasore are drained by which river?
    a) Brahmani
    b) Baitarani
    c) Budhabalanga
    d) Mahanadi
    Answer: c) Budhabalanga
  25. 25. Which river has tributaries like the Kapur, Muran, and Telengiri?
    a) Indravati
    b) Kolab
    c) Vamsadhara
    d) Rushikulya
    Answer: a) Indravati
  26. 26. The Brahmani River’s length inside Odisha is approximately:
    a) 494 km
    b) 461 km
    c) 360 km
    d) 175 km
    Answer: b) 461 km
  27. 27. The Rushikulya River’s major tributaries include:
    a) Deo, Kanjhari, Kusei
    b) Kharkhai, Roro, Kanchi
    c) Badanadi, Dhanei, Ghodahado
    d) Ib, Jeera, Ong
    Answer: c) Badanadi, Dhanei, Ghodahado
  28. 28. Which river’s outfall is into the Bay of Bengal (Odisha State)?
    a) Brahmani
    b) Kolab
    c) Indravati
    d) Nagavali
    Answer: a) Brahmani
  29. 29. The districts of Sundargarh, Debgarh, Angul, Dhenkanal, Jajpur, and Kendrapara are drained by which river?
    a) Baitarani
    b) Rushikulya
    c) Brahmani
    d) Subarnarekha
    Answer: c) Brahmani
  30. 30. The Baitarani River originates from which village in Keonjhar?
    a) Matabhari
    b) Dumuria
    c) Nagri
    d) Vedvyas
    Answer: b) Dumuria
  31. Who is the current Chief Minister of Odisha?
    a) Shri Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
    b) Shri Naveen Patnaik
    c) Mohan Charan Majhi
    d) Dr. Mukesh Mahaling
    Answer: c) Mohan Charan Majhi
  32. Which Deputy Chief Minister of Odisha is responsible for Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment and Energy?
    a) Shri Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
    b) Smt. Pravati Parida
    c) Shri Suresh Pujari
    d) Shri Bibhuti Bhushan Jena
    Answer: a) Shri Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
  33. Smt. Pravati Parida, Deputy Chief Minister of Odisha, oversees which departments?
    a) Agriculture and Farmers’ Empowerment, Energy
    b) Health and Family Welfare, Parliamentary Affairs
    c) Women and Child Development, Mission Shakti, Tourism
    d) Revenue & Disaster Management
    Answer: c) Women and Child Development, Mission Shakti, Tourism
  34. Who is the Cabinet Minister for Revenue & Disaster Management in Odisha?
    a) Shri Suresh Pujari
    b) Shri Rabi Narayan Naik
    c) Shri Nityananda Gond
    d) Shri Krushna Chandra Patra
    Answer: a) Shri Suresh Pujari
  35. Who is in charge of the Health and Family Welfare department in Odisha?
    a) Shri Bibhuti Bhushan Jena
    b) Shri Krushna Chandra Patra
    c) Dr. Mukesh Mahaling
    d) Shri Kanak Vardhan Singh Deo
    Answer: c) Dr. Mukesh Mahaling
  36. When was Bhitarkanika National Park in Odisha established?
    A. 1 January 1980
    B. 16 September 1998
    C. 5 June 2000
    D. 12 October 1995
    Answer: B. 16 September 1998
  37. What is the area of Bhitarkanika National Park?
    A. 100 km²
    B. 145 km²
    C. 200 km²
    D. 250 km²
    Answer: B. 145 km²
  38. Which is the second largest river in Odisha?
    A. Mahanadi
    B. Brahmani
    C. Baitarani
    D. Subarnarekha
    Answer: B. Brahmani
  39. Where do the Sankh and Koel rivers join to form the Brahmani?
    A. Vedavyasa
    B. Bhubaneswar
    C. Cuttack
    D. Rourkela
    Answer: A. Vedavyasa
  40. Which river in Odisha is the shortest?
    A. Bahuda
    B. Budhabalanga
    C. Rushikulya
    D. Vansadhara
    Answer: A. Bahuda
  41. What is the genetic condition resulting in melanistic tigers called?
    A. Leucism
    B. Albinism
    C. Melanism
    D. Piebaldism
    Answer: C. Melanism
  42. How many melanistic tigers are housed in Similipal Tiger Reserve according to the All India Tiger Estimation 2022?
    A. 8
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 16
    Answer: B. 10
  43. Where is the Melanistic Tiger Safari located?
    A. Near Dhanbad-Balasore National Highway-18
    B. Near Bhitarkanika National Park
    C. Near Bhubaneswar
    D. Near Konark
    Answer: A. Near Dhanbad-Balasore National Highway-18
  44. In which biogeographic zone is Similipal situated?
    A. Indo-Malayan
    B. Deccan Peninsula
    C. Western Ghats
    D. Eastern Himalayas
    Answer: B. Deccan Peninsula
  45. Who conquered Kalinga in the Kalinga War?
    A. Chandragupta Maurya
    B. Ashoka
    C. Kharavela
    D. Anantavarman Chodaganga
    Answer: B. Ashoka
  46. Which dynasty built the Jagannath Temple in Puri?
    A. Eastern Ganga Dynasty
    B. Bhauma-Kara Dynasty
    C. Somavamshi Dynasty
    D. Shailodbhava Dynasty
    Answer: A. Eastern Ganga Dynasty
  47. What was the capital of Anantavarman Chodaganga?
    A. Cuttack
    B. Dantapura
    C. Kalinganagara
    D. Kataka
    Answer: D. Kataka
  48. In which year was Similipal designated as a Global Network of Biospheres site?
    A. 2005
    B. 2007
    C. 2009
    D. 2011
    Answer: C. 2009
  49. Which dynasty ruled parts of Odisha from the 8th to the 10th centuries?
    A. Shailodbhava Dynasty
    B. Somavamshi Dynasty
    C. Bhauma-Kara Dynasty
    D. Eastern Ganga Dynasty
    Answer: C. Bhauma-Kara Dynasty
  50. Which ruler of the Bhauma-Kara dynasty conquered Kongoda and northern Kalinga?
    A. Shivakara I
    B. Shantikara I
    C. Tribhuvana Mahadevi I
    D. Rajamalla
    Answer: A. Shivakara I
  51. Which river is the longest in Odisha?
    A. Brahmani
    B. Subarnarekha
    C. Mahanadi
    D. Vansadhara
    Answer: C. Mahanadi
  52. Which river has the most tributaries joining from the left side?
    A. Baitarani
    B. Rushikulya
    C. Brahmani
    D. Nagavali
    Answer: A. Baitarani
  53. Who is known to have invaded Kalinga during his reign according to the Nashik prashasti inscription?
    A. Ashoka
    B. Kharavela
    C. Gautamiputra Satakarni
    D. Anantavarman Chodaganga
    Answer: C. Gautamiputra Satakarni
  54. Which empire’s coins were found in Jaugada, Sisupalgarh, and Manikapatana indicating their reach in Kalinga?
    A. Gupta Empire
    B. Kushan Empire
    C. Maurya Empire
    D. Chola Empire
    Answer: B. Kushan Empire
  55. Which animal population has been revived along rivers Khairi and Deo in Similipal?
    A. Bengal Tiger
    B. Mugger Crocodile
    C. Indian Elephant
    D. Indian Bison
    Answer: B. Mugger Crocodile
  56. What are the major tree types found in Similipal’s vegetation?
    A. Moist mixed deciduous forest
    B. Tropical evergreen forest
    C. Temperate coniferous forest
    D. Alpine tundra
    Answer: A. Moist mixed deciduous forest
  57. Which temple was built by Narasimhadeva I?
    A. Jagannath Temple
    B. Konark Temple
    C. Lingaraj Temple
    D. Mukteswar Temple
    Answer: B. Konark Temple
  58. Which inscription mentions the earlier Somavamshi king Janamejaya?
    A. Madala Panji
    B. Chaudwar inscription
    C. Jirjingi grant
    D. Nasik prashasti
    Answer: B. Chaudwar inscription
  59. The world’s first Melanistic Tiger Safari will be built in which state?
    a) Karnataka
    b) Odisha
    c) Madhya Pradesh
    d) West Bengal
    Answer: b) Odisha
  60. The Commerce & Transport and Steel & Mines portfolios are managed by which Odisha minister?
    a) Shri Suresh Pujari
    b) Shri Rabi Narayan Naik
    c) Shri Bibhuti Bhushan Jena
    d) Dr. Krushna Chandra Mahapatra
    Answer: c) Shri Bibhuti Bhushan Jena
  61. Who announced the introduction of the ‘advanced farmers policy’ in Odisha?
    A) Naveen Patnaik
    B) Mohan Charan Majhi
    C) Narendra Modi
    D) Utkal Mani Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: B) Mohan Charan Majhi
  62. When were all four gates of the Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri opened recently?
    A) June 11
    B) July 4
    C) August 15
    D) October 2
    Answer: A) June 11
  63. What is the significance of Singha Dwara at the Shree Jagannath Temple?
    A) Liberation (mokshya)
    B) Righteousness (dharma)
    C) Desire (kama)
    D) Prosperity
    Answer: A) Liberation (mokshya)
  64. Who is set to become the new Speaker of the Odisha Assembly?
    A) Naveen Patnaik
    B) Surama Padhy
    C) Mohan Charan Majhi
    D) Utkal Mani Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: B) Surama Padhy
  65. How many first-time MLAs were appointed as ministers in Odisha’s new BJP government?
    A) Five
    B) Six
    C) Seven
    D) Eight
    Answer: D) Eight
  66. Who became the first woman deputy chief minister of Odisha?
    A) Pravati Parida
    B) Suresh Pujari
    C) Prithviraj Harichandan
    D) Krushna Chandra Mahapatra
    Answer: A) Pravati Parida
  67. What amount did the Odisha government propose for a corpus fund for the Shree Jagannath Temple?
    A) Rs 100 crore
    B) Rs 250 crore
    C) Rs 500 crore
    D) Rs 750 crore
    Answer: C) Rs 500 crore
  68. During whose reign was the Shree Jagannath Temple constructed?
    A) Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva
    B) Naveen Patnaik
    C) Narendra Modi
    D) Utkal Mani Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: A) Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva
  69. Which temple gate at Puri symbolizes ‘kama’ or desire?
    A) Singha Dwara
    B) Vyaghra Dwara
    C) Aswa Dwara
    D) Hasti Dwara
    Answer: C) Aswa Dwara
  70. Who assured the villagers of fulfilling all promises made in the BJP’s manifesto for Odisha?
    A) Mohan Charan Majhi
    B) Naveen Patnaik
    C) Narendra Modi
    D) Utkal Mani Gopabandhu Das
    Answer: A) Mohan Charan Majhi
  71. What is the primary vector responsible for transmitting Dengue fever?
    A) Anopheles mosquito
    B) Culex mosquito
    C) Aedes aegypti mosquito
    D) Ixodes tick
    Answer: C) Aedes aegypti mosquito
  72. Which of the following climates is most conducive for the spread of Dengue virus?
    A) Temperate climate
    B) Arctic climate
    C) Tropical and subtropical climates
    D) Mediterranean climate
    Answer: C) Tropical and subtropical climates
  73. What is the severe form of Dengue fever known as?
    A) Dengue shock syndrome
    B) Dengue hemorrhagic fever
    C) Dengue encephalitis
    D) Dengue meningitis
    Answer: B) Dengue hemorrhagic fever
  74. Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of severe Dengue fever?
    A) Muscle pain and joint pain
    B) High fever with chills
    C) Severe bleeding and shock
    D) Headache and nausea
    Answer: C) Severe bleeding and shock
  75. How is Dengue fever diagnosed?
    A) Blood culture
    B) Serological tests (e.g., ELISA)
    C) Chest X-ray
    D) Urine analysis
    Answer: B) Serological tests (e.g., ELISA)
  76. Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for Dengue fever?
    A) Fluid replacement therapy
    B) Antiviral medications
    C) Bed rest
    D) Pain relievers (e.g., acetaminophen)
    Answer: B) Antiviral medications
  77. What is the fatality rate of severe Dengue fever with proper medical care?
    A) 5-10%
    B) 10-20%
    C) 20-30%
    D) Below 1%
    Answer: D) Below 1%
  78. Which country approved the Dengue vaccine CYD-TDV (Dengvaxia) in 2019?
    A) India
    B) Brazil
    C) United States
    D) China
    Answer: C) United States
  79. What is the most effective preventive measure against Dengue fever?
    A) Using insect repellent and mosquito nets
    B) Vaccination of all individuals
    C) Indoor residual spraying with insecticides
    D) Eliminating standing water where mosquitoes breed
    Answer: D) Eliminating standing water where mosquitoes breed
  80. Which government recently announced the appointment of two deputy chief ministers, KV Singh Deo and Pravati Parida?
    A) Kerala
    B) Odisha
    C) Maharashtra
    D) Karnataka
    Answer: B) Odisha
  81. Where is Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary located?
    A) Chota Nagpur Plateau
    B) Balasore district, Odisha
    C) Simlipal National Park
    D) Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve
    Answer: B) Balasore district, Odisha
  82. What is the total area covered by Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A) 200.34 sq km
    B) 150.5 sq km
    C) 272.75 sq km
    D) 300.2 sq km
    Answer: C) 272.75 sq km
  83. Which ecoregion does Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary belong to?
    A) Western Ghats
    B) Eastern Highlands moist deciduous forests
    C) Sundarbans
    D) Deccan Plateau
    Answer: B) Eastern Highlands moist deciduous forests
  84. What is the dominant tree species in Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A) Teak
    B) Sal
    C) Pine
    D) Bamboo
    Answer: B) Sal
  85. Which of the following animals can be found in Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary?
    A) Lions and Rhinos
    B) Tigers and Bears
    C) Elephants and Gaurs
    D) Giraffes and Zebras
    Answer: C) Elephants and Gaurs
    Which reserve is associated with Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary to form a larger protected area?
  86. A) Rajaji National Park
    B) Jim Corbett National Park
    C) Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve
    D) Kaziranga National Park
    Answer: C) Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve
  87. What is the importance of Tenda Elephant Reserve?
    A) Protects snow leopards
    B) Provides sanctuary for elephants
    C) Supports migratory birds
    D) Promotes eco-tourism
    Answer: B) Provides sanctuary for elephants
  88. Which geographical feature connects Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary to Simlipal National Park?
    A) Nato hill ranges
    B) Aravalli Range
    C) Western Ghats
    D) Himalayas
    Answer: A) Nato hill ranges
  89. Which district does Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary border in Odisha?
    A) Cuttack
    B) Balasore
    C) Puri
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: B) Balasore
  90. Which Indian state is Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary situated in?
    A) West Bengal
    B) Odisha
    C) Jharkhand
    D) Bihar
    Answer: B) Odisha
  91. କେଉଁଟି ଲୋଡିତଂ ଧ୍ଵନି?
    (A) ଢ଼
    (B) ଯ
    (C) ର
    (D) ଶ
    Ans: (A) ଢ଼
  92. କେଉଁଟି ଅଘୋଷ ଅଳ୍ପପ୍ରାଣ?
    (A) O
    (B) କ
    (C) ଜ
    (D) ଝ
    Ans: (B) କ
  93. ପ୍ରବଳ ଇଚ୍ଛାଶକ୍ତି, କର୍ମନିଷ୍ଠା, ଦୃଢ଼ମନୋବଳ ପାଖରେ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ପ୍ରତିବନ୍ଧକ ପରାଜୟ ବରଣ କରେ। ଏଥିରେ ତତ୍‌ପୁରୁ ସମାସ ହୋଇଛି ।
    (A) ଠିକ୍
    (B) ଭୁଲ୍
    (C) କିଛି ନୁହେଁ
    (D) ଅନ୍ୟକିଛି ହୋଇପାରେ
    Ans: (A) ଠିକ୍
  94. ଯେଉଁ ବିଶେଷଣ ଅନ୍ୟଏକ ବିଶେଷଣର ଗୁଣ, ମାତ୍ରା ଓ ଅବସ୍ଥାର ଆଧକ୍ୟକୁ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ତାହାକୁ କେଉଁ ବିଶେଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
    (A) କ୍ରିୟାବିଶେଷଣ
    (B) ସର୍ବନାମ ବିଶେଷଣ
    (C) ବିଧେୟ ବିଶେଷଣ
    (D) ବିଶେଷଣର ବିଶେଷଣ
    Ans: (D) ବିଶେଷଣର ବିଶେଷଣ
  95. ପକ୍ଷୀଟିଏ ଆକାଶରେ ଉଡୁଛି । ଏଥିରେ କେଉଁ କାରକ ହୋଇଛି?
    (A) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
    (B) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
    (C) କର୍ମକାରକ
    (D) ସଂପ୍ରଦାନ କାରକ
    Ans: (A) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
  96. ରୋଗୀଟି ଜୋରରେ କାଶୁଛି । ଏଥିରେ କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷ୍ୟପଦ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ?
    (A) ରୋଗୀଟି
    (B) ଜୋରରେ
    (C) କାଶୁଛି
    (D) କିଛି ନୁହେଁ
    Ans: (A) ରୋଗୀଟି
  97. “ମାଆ ପିଲାକୁ ଜହ୍ନ ଦେଖାଇଛନ୍ତି” । ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ପ୍ରେରଣାର୍ଥକ କର୍ତ୍ତା କିଏ?
    A) ମାଆ
    B) ଦେଖାଉଛନ୍ତି
    C) ପିଲାକୁ
    D) କହ୍ନ
    Ans: A) ମାଆ
  98. ‘ଗ୍ରାମାନ୍ତର’ କି ପ୍ରକାର ସମାସ?
    A) ଦ୍ଵିଗୁ
    B) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
    C) ଦ୍ଵନ୍ଦ୍ଵ
    D) ତତପୁରୁଷ
    Ans: B) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
  99. ପ୍ରାଚୀନ ଓଡ଼ିଆ ସାହିତ୍ୟରେ ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା ବିଭକ୍ତ ବହୁବଚନରେ କ’ଣ ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରାଯାଇଥାଏ?
    A) ନ୍ତ
    B) ‘ଏ’
    C) ‘ଟା’
    D) ‘ଟି’
    Ans: A) ନ୍ତ
  100. ସମକାରକ ପବିବୃୟ ମଧ୍ୟରେ କେଉଁ ‘ବିରାମ ଚିହ୍ନ’ର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ?
    A) ଡ୍ୟାସ
    B) ସେମି କଲୋନ୍
    C) ପୂଣ୍ଣଚ୍ଛେଦ
    D) କମା
    Ans: D) କମା
  101. ସଠିକ୍ ବାକ୍ୟଟି ବାଛ ।
    A. ମୁଷା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
    B. ମୁଷା ଗଣେଷଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
    C. ମୄଶା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
    D. ମୁସା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହାନ ଅଟେ
    Ans: A. ମୁଷା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
  102. କେଉଁଟି ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦ?
    A. ପୂର୍ବାହ୍ନ
    B. ପୁର୍ବର୍ହ୍ନ
    C. ପୂର୍ବାହନ
    D. ପୂର୍ବହ୍ଣ
    Ans: A. ପୂର୍ବାହ୍ନ
  103. ପଦ୍ମ ନାଭିରେ ଯାହାର | ଏକ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରି ଲେଖ?
    A. ନାଭପଦ୍ମ
    B. ପଦ୍ମନାଭୀ
    C. ନାଭୀପଦ୍ମ
    D. ପଦ୍ମନାଭ
    Ans: D. ପଦ୍ମନାଭ
  104. ପୂତ ଶବ୍ଦ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    A. ପୁଅ
    B. ପବିତ୍ର
    C. ପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    D. ପୋତିବା
    Ans: B. ପବିତ୍ର
  105. ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦକୁ କେତେ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରାଯାଇଛି?
    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. 5
    D. 3
    Ans: C. 5
  106. “ପ୍ରସାଦ” ଶବ୍ଦର ସଠିକ ଅର୍ଥ ବାଛ |
    A. ଠାକୁରଙ୍କ ଭୋଗ
    B. ବଡ କୋଠା ଘର
    C. ବଡ ମନ୍ଦିର
    D. ଭୋଗ ରନ୍ଧା ହେଉଥିବା ଘର
    Ans: A. ଠାକୁରଙ୍କ ଭୋଗ
  107. “ଅପ ସଂସ୍କୃତି” ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    A. ଅପ ଅଟେ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
    B. ଅପର ସଂସ୍କୃତି
    C. ଅପ ଓ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
    D. ସଂସ୍କୃତିର ସମାହାର
    Ans: A. ଅପ ଅଟେ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
  108. କେଉଁଟି ପଦ୍ମର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
    A. ସରିତ
    B. ଅମ୍ବୁଜ
    C. ସାରସ
    D. ପଙ୍କେରୁହ
    Ans: A. ସରିତ
  109. “ଦେଶକେ ଫାଙ୍କ୍ ନଈକେ ବାଙ୍କ୍” ଲୋକବାଣୀ ର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ ଣ?
    A. ବାହାର ସୌନ୍ଦର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଭିତରେ ନଥିବା
    B. ଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ଭିନ୍ନ ଚଳଣି
    C. ସବୁସ୍ଥାନରେ ଖାପଖୁଆଇ ଚଳିବା
    D. ପ୍ରକୃତି ବଦଳେ ନାହିଁ
    Ans: B. ଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ଭିନ୍ନ ଚଳଣି
  110. କେଉଁଟି ଗୁଣବାଚକ ବିଶେଷଣ?
    A. ସରଳ ଲୋକ
    B. ଦରିଦ୍ର ବାଳକ
    C. ସାମାନ୍ୟ କଥା
    D. ତେର ମିଟର
    Ans: A. ସରଳ ଲୋକ
  111. ରାତିରେ ପେଚା ଭ୍ରମଣ କରିଥାନ୍ତି |ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟିର କାରକ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) କର୍ମ
    (b) କରଣ
    (c) ଅଧିକରଣ
    (d) ଅପାଦାନ
    Ans: (c) ଅଧିକରଣ
  112. ’ପୋକଶୁଙ୍ଘା’ କେଉଁ ସମାସ ଅଟେ?
    (a) ଦ୍ୱିଗୁ
    (b) ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
    (c) ନିତ୍ୟ
    (d) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
    Ans: (c) ନିତ୍ୟ
  113. ଅଶୁଦ୍ଧି ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର |
    (a) ଅନେକ ଲୋକମାନେ ମତ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁଛନ୍ତି |
    (b) ଅଧିକାଂଶ ଲୋକଙ୍କର ରହିବାକୁ ଘର ନାହିଁ |
    (c) ବହୁତ ପୁସ୍ତକ ଏଠାରେ ଅଛି |
    (d) ଅନେକ ଲୋକ ସଭାରେ ଉପସ୍ଥିତ ଅଛନ୍ତି |
    Ans: (a) ଅନେକ ଲୋକମାନେ ମତ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁଛନ୍ତି
  114. ’ସଂସ୍କୃତି’ ର ସନ୍ଧି ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର |
    (a) ସତ୍ + କୃତି
    (b) ସମ୍ + କୃତି
    (c) ସଂ + କୃତି
    (d) ସସ୍ + କୃତି
    Ans: (b) ସମ୍ + କୃତି
  115. ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ପଦମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ‘ଅଭି’ ଉପସର୍ଗର ପଦ ସୂଚାଅ |
    (a) ଉପବନ
    (b) ଅଭିମାନ
    (c) ଅପିହିତ
    (d) ଅନୁତାପ
    Ans: (b) ଅଭିମାନ
  116. ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ପଦମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଦ୍ଵନ୍ଦ ସମାସ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) ପରସ୍ପର
    (b) ଚତୁର୍ଭୁଜ
    (c) ପଞ୍ଚବଟୀ
    (d) ଅମୂଲ୍ୟ
    Ans: (a) ପରସ୍ପର
  117. ସେ ହାଟକୁ ଗଲା କିନ୍ତୁ ସଉଦା ଆଣିଲା ନାହିଁ |ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟିର ଅବ୍ୟୟ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) ସଂଯୋଜକ
    (b) ବିଯୋଜକ
    (c) ଭାବବାଚକ
    (d) ନିଷେଧାଧିକ
    Ans: (b) ବିଯୋଜକ
  118. ’ବାୟୁ’ ର ବିଶେଷଣ ରୂପ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) ବାୟବୀୟ
    (b) ବାୟୀକ
    (c) ବାୟକ
    (d) ବାତ
    Ans: (a) ବାୟବୀୟ
  119. ସେ ଗୁଣର ଆଦର କରେ ————|ଶୂନ୍ୟସ୍ଥାନ ପୂରଣ କର |
    (a) ଗୁଣାଦର
    (b) ଗୁଣଗ୍ରହୀ
    (c) ଗୁଣଗ୍ରାହି
    (d) ଗୁଣାଦାର
    Ans: (b) ଗୁଣଗ୍ରହୀ
  120. ଅସଙ୍ଗତ ପଦକୁ ପୃଥକ କର |
    (a) କ୍ରନ୍ଦନ
    (b) କହୁଛି
    (c) ଲିଖନ
    (d) ଭ୍ରମଣ
    Ans: (b) କହୁଛି
  121. World Sickle Cell Awareness Day is observed on:
    [A] June 15
    [B] June 19
    [C] June 23
    [D] June 26
    Answer: B [June 19]
  122. United Nations Public Service Day is celebrated on:
    [A] June 19
    [B] June 23
    [C] June 26
    [D] July 28
    Answer: B [June 23]
  123. International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is observed on:
    [A] June 15
    [B] June 19
    [C] June 26
    [D] July 28
    Answer: C [June 26]
  124. World Nature Conservation Day is celebrated on:
    [A] July 28
    [B] July 29
    [C] August 9
    [D] June 26
    Answer: A [July 28]
  125. International Tiger Day is observed on:
    [A] July 28
    [B] July 29
    [C] August 9
    [D] June 26
    Answer: B [July 29]
  126. International Day of World’s Indigenous People is observed on:
    [A] July 28
    [B] July 29
    [C] August 9
    [D] June 26
    Answer: C [August 9]
  127. Bharatanatyam originated in which state?
    [A] Kerala
    [B] Tamil Nadu
    [C] Manipur
    [D] Odisha
    Answer: B [Tamil Nadu]
  128. Manipuri dance is rooted in which faith?
    [A] Buddhism
    [B] Jainism
    [C] Vaishnavism
    [D] Shaivism
    Answer: C [Vaishnavism]
  129. Which classical dance form originates from Kerala and features elaborate costumes and makeup?
    [A] Bharatanatyam
    [B] Odissi
    [C] Kathakali
    [D] Kuchipudi
    Answer: C [Kathakali]
  130. Article 32 of the Indian Constitution grants citizens the right to:
    [A] Freedom of speech and expression
    [B] Move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights
    [C] Form associations or unions
    [D] Freedom to practice any profession
    Answer: B [Move the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights]
  131. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution encourages implementing:
    [A] Free and compulsory education for children
    [B] Uniform Civil Code for all citizens
    [C] Prohibition of child labor
    [D] Equal justice and free legal aid
    Answer: B [Uniform Civil Code for all citizens]
  132. Article 48A of the Indian Constitution directs the state to:
    [A] Promote international peace and security
    [B] Organize agriculture and animal husbandry
    [C] Protect the environment and wildlife
    [D] Safeguard public property
    Answer: C [Protect the environment and wildlife]
  133. Article 51A outlines the:
    [A] Directive Principles of State Policy
    [B] Fundamental Rights
    [C] Fundamental Duties of citizens
    [D] Powers of the President
    Answer: C [Fundamental Duties of citizens]
  134. Article 226 empowers High Courts to:
    [A] Issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights
    [B] Adjudicate disputes between states
    [C] Review laws made by the Parliament
    [D] Appoint judges
    Answer: A [Issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights]
  135. Article 370 previously granted special status to which Indian state?
    [A] Nagaland
    [B] Jammu and Kashmir
    [C] Arunachal Pradesh
    [D] Sikkim
    Answer: B [Jammu and Kashmir]
  136. Article 356 allows the President to:
    [A] Declare war
    [B] Impose President’s Rule in states
    [C] Amend the Constitution
    [D] Dissolve the Parliament
    Answer: B [Impose President’s Rule in states]
  137. The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed during the tenure of which Governor-General?
    [A] Lord Wellesley
    [B] Lord Cornwallis
    [C] Warren Hastings
    [D] Lord Dalhousie
    Answer: C [Warren Hastings]
  138. The Third Mysore War (1790-92) took place during the tenure of which Governor-General?
    [A] Lord Wellesley
    [B] Lord Cornwallis
    [C] Warren Hastings
    [D] Lord Dalhousie
    Answer: B [Lord Cornwallis]
  139. The Subsidiary Alliance System was introduced by:
    [A] Warren Hastings
    [B] Lord Cornwallis
    [C] Lord Wellesley
    [D] Lord Dalhousie
    Answer: C [Lord Wellesley]
  140. Lord William Bentinck was the first to be designated as the Governor-General of India in which year?
    [A] 1773
    [B] 1833
    [C] 1858
    [D] 1919
    Answer: B [1833]
  141. The World Bank Group is headquartered in:
    [A] Geneva, Switzerland
    [B] Washington DC, United States
    [C] New York, United States
    [D] London, United Kingdom
    Answer: B [Washington DC, United States]
  142. The World Health Organization (WHO) is headquartered in:
    [A] New York, United States
    [B] Geneva, Switzerland
    [C] Paris, France
    [D] Vienna, Austria
    Answer: B [Geneva, Switzerland]
  143. The International Labour Organization (ILO) is headquartered in:
    [A] Washington DC, United States
    [B] Geneva, Switzerland
    [C] Paris, France
    [D] Vienna, Austria
    Answer: B [Geneva, Switzerland]
  144. The International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) is headquartered in:
    [A] Geneva, Switzerland
    [B] New York, United States
    [C] Paris, France
    [D] Brussels, Belgium
    Answer: A [Geneva, Switzerland]
  145. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is headquartered in:
    [A] Washington DC, United States
    [B] Geneva, Switzerland
    [C] Paris, France
    [D] Vienna, Austria
    Answer: B [Geneva, Switzerland]
  146. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is headquartered in:
    [A] Geneva, Switzerland
    [B] New York, United States
    [C] Paris, France
    [D] Vienna, Austria
    Answer: A [Geneva, Switzerland]
  147. The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) is headquartered in:
    [A] Washington DC, United States
    [B] Geneva, Switzerland
    [C] Paris, France
    [D] Vienna, Austria
    Answer: B [Geneva, Switzerland]
  148. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is headquartered in:
    [A] New York, United States
    [B] London, United Kingdom
    [C] Geneva, Switzerland
    [D] Paris, France
    Answer: C [Geneva, Switzerland]
  149. The Fourth Mysore War took place during the tenure of which Governor-General?
    [A] Warren Hastings
    [B] Lord Cornwallis
    [C] Lord Wellesley
    [D] Lord Dalhousie
    Answer: C [Lord Wellesley]
  150. Who was the first Governor-General of Bengal?
    [A] Lord William Bentinck
    [B] Lord Cornwallis
    [C] Warren Hastings
    [D] Lord Dalhousie
    Answer: C [Warren Hastings]
  151. The Manas National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site, is located in which state?
    [A] West Bengal
    [B] Assam
    [C] Karnataka
    [D] Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: B [Assam]
  152. Which tribe celebrates the ‘Sarhul’ festival, marking the beginning of the new year and the sowing season by planting trees?
    [A] Bhil
    [B] Santhal
    [C] Munda
    [D] Oraon
    Answer: B [Santhal]
  153. Which among the following is NOT a biodiversity hotspot?
    [A] Indo-Burma
    [B] Eastern Himalaya
    [C] Western Ghats
    [D] Deccan Plateau
    Answer: D [Deccan Plateau]
  154. Which of the following correctly states the function of buffer zones in protected areas?
    [A] They allow some human activity to reduce pressure on core zones
    [B] They prohibit all human activities
    [C] They serve as areas for reintroducing species
    [D] None of the above
    Answer: A [They allow some human activity to reduce pressure on core zones]
  155. Which among the following is a term used for a conservation status denoting a high risk of extinction in the wild?
    [A] Least Concern
    [B] Near Threatened
    [C] Vulnerable
    [D] Critically Endangered
    Answer: D [Critically Endangered]
  156. Which of the following is the largest greenhouse gas contributor?
    [A] Carbon Dioxide
    [B] Methane
    [C] Nitrous Oxide
    [D] Water Vapor
    Answer: A [Carbon Dioxide]
  157. The Ramsar Convention is related to the conservation of which of the following?
    [A] Forests
    [B] Wetlands
    [C] Oceans
    [D] Mountains
    Answer: B [Wetlands]
  158. Which tiger reserve in India is known for the successful conservation of the Bengal Tiger population?
    [A] Bandipur Tiger Reserve
    [B] Periyar Tiger Reserve
    [C] Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
    [D] Sundarbans Tiger Reserve
    Answer: C [Ranthambore Tiger Reserve]
  159. The Bharat Mala project is related to which of the following?
    [A] Highway development
    [B] Waterway development
    [C] Railway modernization
    [D] Port development
    Answer: A [Highway development]
  160. In which state is the Silent Valley National Park, known for its rich biodiversity and pristine environment, located?
    [A] Tamil Nadu
    [B] Kerala
    [C] Karnataka
    [D] Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: B [Kerala]
  161. Which of the following states is home to the maximum number of tiger reserves in India?
    [A] Madhya Pradesh
    [B] Karnataka
    [C] Maharashtra
    [D] Tamil Nadu
    Answer: A [Madhya Pradesh]
  162. The Sundarbans National Park, famous for its mangrove forests, is located in which state?
    [A] Odisha
    [B] West Bengal
    [C] Andhra Pradesh
    [D] Kerala
    Answer: B [West Bengal]
  163. Which national park in India is renowned for its population of snow leopards?
    [A] Dachigam National Park
    [B] Hemis National Park
    [C] Valley of Flowers National Park
    [D] Kaziranga National Park
    Answer: B [Hemis National Park]
  164. The Great Himalayan National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site, is located in which state?
    [A] Uttarakhand
    [B] Himachal Pradesh
    [C] Sikkim
    [D] Jammu and Kashmir
    Answer: B [Himachal Pradesh]
  165. Sagar Mala project is related to which of the following?
    [A] Modernization of ports
    [B] Oil extraction
    [C] Roads development
    [D] None of the above
    Answer: A [Modernization of ports]
    Which of the following national parks is known for being a habitat of the Asiatic Lion?
    [A] Jim Corbett National Park
    [B] Kaziranga National Park
    [C] Gir National Park
    [D] Ranthambore National Park
    Answer: C [Gir National Park]
    Which of the following states has the highest number of national parks in India?
    [A] Madhya Pradesh
    [B] Karnataka
    [C] Uttarakhand
    [D] Assam
    Answer: A [Madhya Pradesh]
  166. The Jim Corbett National Park, the oldest national park in India, is located in which state?
    [A] Uttar Pradesh
    [B] Uttarakhand
    [C] Himachal Pradesh
    [D] Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: B [Uttarakhand]
  167. Which national park in India is famous for its population of one-horned rhinoceroses?
    [A] Bandhavgarh National Park
    [B] Kaziranga National Park
    [C] Periyar National Park
    [D] Ranthambore National Park
    Answer: B [Kaziranga National Park]
  168. The Valley of Flowers National Park, known for its endemic flora, is located in which Indian state?
    [A] Himachal Pradesh
    [B] Uttarakhand
    [C] Sikkim
    [D] Jammu and Kashmir
    Answer: B [Uttarakhand]
  169. Most of India’s rainfall is:
    [A] Cyclonic
    [B] Convectional
    [C] Orographic
    [D] Frontal
    Answer: B [Convectional]
  170. Convectional rainfall is prevalent in which regions?
    [A] Polar regions
    [B] Temperate regions
    [C] Equatorial regions
    [D] Desert regions
    Answer: C [Equatorial regions]
  171. In an anticyclone, the wind direction in the northern hemisphere is:
    [A] Clockwise
    [B] Anti-clockwise
    [C] Random
    [D] Circular
    Answer: A [Clockwise]
  172. Which Indian islands receive rainfall from both the South-West and North-West monsoons?
    [A] Lakshadweep Islands
    [B] Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    [C] Sri Lanka
    [D] Maldives
    Answer: B [Andaman and Nicobar Islands]
  173. The following trees are associated with the dry monsoon forest of India:
    [A] Pine, Fir, Spruce
    [B] Mango, Mahua, Sisam, Keeker
    [C] Teak, Sal, Bamboo
    [D] Oak, Maple, Beech
    Answer: B [Mango, Mahua, Sisam, Keeker]
  174. Paddy fields in India are typically located in areas with annual rainfall of:
    [A] Less than 50 cm
    [B] 50-100 cm
    [C] More than 100 cm
    [D] Exactly 75 cm
    Answer: C [More than 100 cm]
  175. Which region of India receives the first monsoon in summer?
    [A] Eastern Ghats
    [B] Western Ghats
    [C] Northern Plains
    [D] Central Highlands
    Answer: B [Western Ghats]
  176. The northeastern hills that block the South West Monsoon winds and cause heavy rains in Assam are:
    [A] Nilgiri, Anamalai, Cardamom
    [B] Aravalli, Vindhya, Satpura
    [C] Garo, Khasi, Jaintia
    [D] Himalaya, Karakoram, Hindu Kush
    Answer: C [Garo, Khasi, Jaintia]
  177. An anticyclone is characterized by:
    [A] High-pressure area with outward-moving winds
    [B] Low-pressure area with inward-moving winds
    [C] Rapid temperature drop
    [D] Intense rainfall
    Answer: A [High-pressure area with outward-moving winds]
  178. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the dry monsoon forest of India?
    [A] Thorny shrubs
    [B] Grassland
    [C] Evergreen trees
    [D] Mango trees
    Answer: C [Evergreen trees]
  179. The average annual temperature of Chennai is:
    [A] 22°C
    [B] 24°C
    [C] 26°C
    [D] 28°C
    Answer: C [26°C]
  180. Which of the following regions are known for their annual rainfall exceeding 100 cm, making them suitable for paddy cultivation?
    [A] Punjab and Haryana
    [B] Rajasthan and Gujarat
    [C] Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
    [D] Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
    Answer: A [Punjab and Haryana]
  181. Which is the largest residence in India?
    A) Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi
    B) Raj Bhavan, Mumbai
    C) Raj Niwas, Puducherry
    D) Governor’s House, Kolkata
    Answer: A) Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi
  182. Which is the largest river barrage in India?
    A) Farakka Barrage
    B) Sardar Sarovar Dam
    C) Hirakud Dam
    D) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
    Answer: A) Farakka Barrage
  183. Which is the largest populated city in India?
    A) Delhi
    B) Bangalore
    C) Mumbai
    D) Kolkata
    Answer: C) Mumbai
  184. Which is the largest freshwater lake in India?
    A) Dal Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
    B) Loktak Lake, Manipur
    C) Kolleru Lake, Andhra Pradesh
    D) Vembanad Lake, Kerala
    Answer: C) Kolleru Lake, Andhra Pradesh
  185. Which is the largest saltwater lake in India?
    A) Sambhar Lake, Rajasthan
    B) Chilika Lake, Odisha
    C) Pulicat Lake, Andhra Pradesh
    D) Pangong Lake, Ladakh
    Answer: B) Chilika Lake, Odisha
  186. Which is the largest state by area in India?
    A) Madhya Pradesh
    B) Maharashtra
    C) Rajasthan
    D) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: C) Rajasthan
  187. Which is the largest state by population in India?
    A) Maharashtra
    B) Bihar
    C) Uttar Pradesh
    D) West Bengal
    Answer: C) Uttar Pradesh
  188. Which is the largest museum in India?
    A) National Museum, New Delhi
    B) Indian Museum, Kolkata
    C) Salar Jung Museum, Hyderabad
    D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu Sangrahalaya, Mumbai
    Answer: B) Indian Museum, Kolkata
  189. Which is the largest zoo in India?
    A) Mysore Zoo, Karnataka
    B) Vandalur Zoo, Tamil Nadu
    C) Sanjay Gandhi Biological Park, Bihar
    D) Nehru Zoological Park, Telangana
    Answer: B) Vandalur Zoo, Tamil Nadu
  190. Which is the largest dome in India?
    A) Gol Gumbaz, Karnataka
    B) Lotus Temple, Delhi
    C) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata
    D) Taj Mahal, Agra
    Answer: A) Gol Gumbaz, Karnataka
  191. Which is the largest mosque in India?
    A) Mecca Masjid, Hyderabad
    B) Jama Masjid, New Delhi
    C) Taj-ul-Masajid, Bhopal
    D) Bara Imambara, Lucknow
    Answer: B) Jama Masjid, New Delhi
  192. Which is the largest desert in India?
    A) Thar Desert, Rajasthan
    B) Rann of Kutch, Gujarat
    C) Ladakh Desert, Ladakh
    D) Deccan Plateau, Maharashtra
    Answer: A) Thar Desert, Rajasthan
  193. Which is the largest river island in India?
    A) Bhavani Island, Andhra Pradesh
    B) Majuli, Brahmaputra
    C) Srirangam, Tamil Nadu
    D) Divar Island, Goa
    Answer: B) Majuli, Brahmaputra
  194. Which is the largest monastery in India?
    A) Hemis Monastery, Ladakh
    B) Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh
    C) Rumtek Monastery, Sikkim
    D) Thiksey Monastery, Ladakh
    Answer: B) Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh
  195. Which is the largest cave temple in India?
    A) Elephanta Caves, Maharashtra
    B) Amarnath Cave, Jammu and Kashmir
    C) Ellora Caves, Maharashtra
    D) Badami Caves, Karnataka
    Answer: C) Ellora Caves, Maharashtra
  196. Which is the largest animal fair in India?
    A) Pushkar Fair, Rajasthan
    B) Sonepur Fair, Bihar
    C) Nagaur Fair, Rajasthan
    D) Kumbh Mela, Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: B) Sonepur Fair, Bihar
  197. Which is the largest plateau in India?
    A) Malwa Plateau
    B) Chota Nagpur Plateau
    C) Deccan Plateau
    D) Marwar Plateau
    Answer: C) Deccan Plateau
  198. Which is the largest river in South India?
    A) Krishna
    B) Cauvery
    C) Godavari
    D) Narmada
    Answer: C) Godavari
  199. Which is the largest prison in India?
    A) Tihar Jail, Delhi
    B) Yerwada Jail, Pune
    C) Puzhal Jail, Chennai
    D) Alipore Jail, Kolkata
    Answer: C) Puzhal Jail, Chennai
  200. Which is the largest planetarium in India?
    A) Nehru Planetarium, New Delhi
    B) Birla Planetarium, Kolkata
    C) Priyadarshini Planetarium, Thiruvananthapuram
    D) Jawahar Planetarium, Allahabad
    Answer: B) Birla Planetarium, Kolkata
  201. Which is the largest General Post Office (GPO) in India?
    A) Kolkata GPO
    B) Chennai GPO
    C) Delhi GPO
    D) Mumbai GPO
    Answer: D) Mumbai GPO
  202. Which is the largest church in India?
    A) St. Paul’s Cathedral, Kolkata
    B) St. Thomas Cathedral, Mumbai
    C) Se Cathedral, Old Goa
    D) Basilica of Bom Jesus, Goa
    Answer: C) Se Cathedral, Old Goa
  203. Which is the largest cinema theater in India?
    A) Raj Mandir, Jaipur
    B) Prasads IMAX, Hyderabad
    C) Thangam Theatre, Madurai
    D) Maratha Mandir, Mumbai
    Answer: C) Thangam Theatre, Madurai
  204. Which is the largest exhibition ground in India?
    A) Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
    B) India Expo Centre, Greater Noida
    C) Bombay Exhibition Centre, Mumbai
    D) Hitex Exhibition Centre, Hyderabad
    Answer: A) Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
  205. Which is the largest arch dam in India?
    A) Tehri Dam, Uttarakhand
    B) Bhakra Dam, Himachal Pradesh
    C) Idukki Dam, Kerala
    D) Sardar Sarovar Dam, Gujarat
    Answer: C) Idukki Dam, Kerala
  206. Which is the largest library in India?
    A) National Library, Kolkata
    B) Delhi Public Library, Delhi
    C) Anna Centenary Library, Chennai
    D) State Central Library, Kerala
    Answer: A) National Library, Kolkata
  207. Which is the largest aircraft carrier in India?
    A) INS Vikrant
    B) INS Vikramaditya
    C) INS Viraat
    D) INS Arihant
    Answer: C) INS Viraat
  208. Which is the largest landing ship in India?
    A) INS Shardul
    B) INS Jalashwa
    C) INS Magar
    D) INS Airavat
    Answer: C) INS Magar
  209. Which is the largest Union Territory in India by area?
    A) Lakshadweep
    B) Chandigarh
    C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    D) Daman and Diu
    Answer: C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  210. Which is the largest Gurudwara in India?
    A) Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple), Amritsar
    B) Bangla Sahib, Delhi
    C) Patna Sahib, Patna
    D) Hemkund Sahib, Uttarakhand
    Answer: A) Harmandir Sahib (Golden Temple), Amritsar
  211. The Chairman is ill and we’ll have to ……. the meeting for a few days.
    a) put on
    b) put of
    c) put away
    d) put off
    Option – d)
  212. The cat and the dog have a ……. enemy in the rat.
    a) same
    b) common
    c) mutual
    d) similar
    Option – b)
  213. He told me that he …….. watching the movie.
    a) is finished
    b) was finished
    c) had finished
    d) not finished
    Option – c)
  214. He is very good …….. making stories.
    a) in
    b) about
    c) at
    d) for
    Option – c)
  215. I do my work …….. carefully to make mistakes.
    a) so
    b) very
    c) too
    d) more
    Option – c)
  216. Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10): In questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word:
    Plausible
    a) inplausible
    b) unplausible
    c) implausible
    d) displausible
    Option – c)
  217. Frailty
    a) energy
    b) intensity
    c) vehemence
    d) strength
    Option – d)
  218. Genial
    a) stupid
    b) stingy
    c) boorish
    d) unkind
    Option – c)
  219. Prevent
    a) protect
    b) block
    c) hinder
    d) induce
    Option – d)
  220. Demolish
    a) shift
    b) build
    c) repeat
    d) hide
    Option – b)
  221. Directions : In the following questions, some parts have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts, which are labeled P, Q, R and S, to produce the correct sentence.
    In life, some rules are/ (P), as business/ (Q), they seem almost instinctive/ ®, learnt so early that/ (S)
    a) R S P Q
    b) Q P S R
    c) R P S Q
    d) Q S P R
    Option – b) 
  222. All precautionary measures were taken, to prevent the capture of booths/ (P), during the election/ (Q), by the Government/ (R), by the terrorists (S)
    a) S P R Q
    b) Q S P R
    c) R P S Q
    d) R Q S P
    Option – c)
  223. Kapil, left in an aeroplane / (P), after reading a sailing magazine/ (Q), had decided/ ®, to build his own boat nine years earlier/ (S)
    a) P R Q S
    b) R S Q P
    c)R Q P SS
    d) P S R Q
    Option – b) 
  224. Each culture, flourishes when it comes/ (P), own tradition an dyet/ (Q), draws strength from its/ ®, into contact with others/ (S)
    a) R Q P S
    b) S P Q R
    c) R P Q S
    d) S Q P R
    Option – a) 
  225. The concept of death, that it has been reduced/ (P), as an inevitability/ (Q), is so ancient/ (R), to a cliché/ (S)
    a) S P R Q
    b) Q R P s
    c) S R P Q
    d) Q P R S
    Option – b) 
  226. Women, are more likely to give birth prematurely/ (P), and their babies are at increased risk/ (Q), who are poorly nourished or sick/ ®, of death and disability/ (S)
    a) R Q S p
    b) R P Q S
    c) Q S P R
    d) Q S R P
    Option – b) 
  227. Today, in the country/ (P), offers the best connectivity, both/ (Q), Kerala, among all states/ (R), in terms of telecom and datacom/ (S)
    a) R P Q S
    b) S Q P R
    c) R Q P S
    d) S P Q R
    Option – a)
  228. Directions : In each of the following questions a word is followed by four options. You have to choose the option that is the most appropriate synonym to the given word.
    Foment
    A) Vex
    b) Waste
    c) Renounce
    d) Instigate
    Option – d) 
  229. Placate
    a) Rouse
    b) Harass
    c) Pacify
    d) Rejoice
    Option – c) 
  230. Solicitous
    a) Obscene
    b) Wise
    c) Wholesome
    d) Confident
    Option – a)
  231. Adulation
    a) Approval
    b) Extension
    c) Applause
    d) Greeting
    Option – c) 
  232. Sordid
    a) Harmful
    b) Dirty
    c) Splendid
    d) Dangerous
    Option – b) 
  233. Debunk
    a) Expose
    b) Cheat
    c) Threaten
    d) Pacify
    Option – a) 
  234. These medicines are ____ for curing cold.
    a) Proper
    b) Real
    c) Effective
    d) Capable
    Option – c) 
  235. It was ____ hot that day and the cable suffered the brunt of the heat.
    a) treacherously
    b) acceptably
    c) unfailingly
    d) unbelievably
    Option – d) 
  236. Dowry is no longer permitted by law even in ___ marriage.
    A) love
    b) conventional
    c) natural
    d) bigamous
    Option – a) 
  237. Anita ___ me of a girl I used to know.
    a) remembers
    b) recalls
    c) recollects
    d) reminds
    Option – d)
  238. He applied for and was ___ legal aid by the Labour Ministry.
    a) offered
    b) granted
    c) allowed
    d) awarded
    Option – b) 
  239. The new industrial policy is a result of the confidence the government has in the ___ of the Indian industry.
    a) opinion
    b) existence
    c) status
    d) maturity
    Option – d)
  240. Authority ___ when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user.
    a) waits
    b) crumbles
    c) empowers
    d) prevails
    Option – b)
  241. କେଉଁଟି ଲୋଡିତଂ ଧ୍ଵନି?
    (A) ଢ଼
    (B) ଯ
    (C) ର
    (D) ଶ
    Ans: (A) ଢ଼
  242. କେଉଁଟି ଅଘୋଷ ଅଳ୍ପପ୍ରାଣ?
    (A) O
    (B) କ
    (C) ଜ
    (D) ଝ
    Ans: (B) କ
  243. ପ୍ରବଳ ଇଚ୍ଛାଶକ୍ତି, କର୍ମନିଷ୍ଠା, ଦୃଢ଼ମନୋବଳ ପାଖରେ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ପ୍ରତିବନ୍ଧକ ପରାଜୟ ବରଣ କରେ। ଏଥିରେ ତତ୍‌ପୁରୁ ସମାସ ହୋଇଛି ।
    (A) ଠିକ୍
    (B) ଭୁଲ୍
    (C) କିଛି ନୁହେଁ
    (D) ଅନ୍ୟକିଛି ହୋଇପାରେ
    Ans: (A) ଠିକ୍
  244. ଯେଉଁ ବିଶେଷଣ ଅନ୍ୟଏକ ବିଶେଷଣର ଗୁଣ, ମାତ୍ରା ଓ ଅବସ୍ଥାର ଆଧକ୍ୟକୁ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରେ ତାହାକୁ କେଉଁ ବିଶେଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
    (A) କ୍ରିୟାବିଶେଷଣ
    (B) ସର୍ବନାମ ବିଶେଷଣ
    (C) ବିଧେୟ ବିଶେଷଣ
    (D) ବିଶେଷଣର ବିଶେଷଣ
    Ans: (D) ବିଶେଷଣର ବିଶେଷଣ
  245. ପକ୍ଷୀଟିଏ ଆକାଶରେ ଉଡୁଛି । ଏଥିରେ କେଉଁ କାରକ ହୋଇଛି?
    (A) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
    (B) ଅପାଦାନ କାରକ
    (C) କର୍ମକାରକ
    (D) ସଂପ୍ରଦାନ କାରକ
    Ans: (A) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
  246. ରୋଗୀଟି ଜୋରରେ କାଶୁଛି । ଏଥିରେ କେଉଁଟି ବିଶେଷ୍ୟପଦ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ?
    (A) ରୋଗୀଟି
    (B) ଜୋରରେ
    (C) କାଶୁଛି
    (D) କିଛି ନୁହେଁ
    Ans: (A) ରୋଗୀଟି
  247. “ମାଆ ପିଲାକୁ ଜହ୍ନ ଦେଖାଇଛନ୍ତି” । ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ପ୍ରେରଣାର୍ଥକ କର୍ତ୍ତା କିଏ?
    A) ମାଆ
    B) ଦେଖାଉଛନ୍ତି
    C) ପିଲାକୁ
    D) କହ୍ନ
    Ans: A) ମାଆ
  248. ‘ଗ୍ରାମାନ୍ତର’ କି ପ୍ରକାର ସମାସ?
    A) ଦ୍ଵିଗୁ
    B) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
    C) ଦ୍ଵନ୍ଦ୍ଵ
    D) ତତପୁରୁଷ
    Ans: B) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
  249. ପ୍ରାଚୀନ ଓଡ଼ିଆ ସାହିତ୍ୟରେ ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟା ବିଭକ୍ତ ବହୁବଚନରେ କ’ଣ ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରାଯାଇଥାଏ?
    A) ନ୍ତ
    B) ‘ଏ’
    C) ‘ଟା’
    D) ‘ଟି’
    Ans: A) ନ୍ତ
  250. ସମକାରକ ପବିବୃୟ ମଧ୍ୟରେ କେଉଁ ‘ବିରାମ ଚିହ୍ନ’ର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ?
    A) ଡ୍ୟାସ
    B) ସେମି କଲୋନ୍
    C) ପୂଣ୍ଣଚ୍ଛେଦ
    D) କମା
    Ans: D) କମା
  251. ସଠିକ୍ ବାକ୍ୟଟି ବାଛ ।
    A. ମୁଷା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
    B. ମୁଷା ଗଣେଷଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
    C. ମୄଶା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
    D. ମୁସା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହାନ ଅଟେ
    Ans: A. ମୁଷା ଗଣେଶଙ୍କ ବାହନ ଅଟେ
  252. କେଉଁଟି ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦ?
    A. ପୂର୍ବାହ୍ନ
    B. ପୁର୍ବର୍ହ୍ନ
    C. ପୂର୍ବାହନ
    D. ପୂର୍ବହ୍ଣ
    Ans: A. ପୂର୍ବାହ୍ନ
  253. ପଦ୍ମ ନାଭିରେ ଯାହାର | ଏକ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରି ଲେଖ?
    A. ନାଭପଦ୍ମ
    B. ପଦ୍ମନାଭୀ
    C. ନାଭୀପଦ୍ମ
    D. ପଦ୍ମନାଭ
    Ans: D. ପଦ୍ମନାଭ
  254. ପୂତ ଶବ୍ଦ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    A. ପୁଅ
    B. ପବିତ୍ର
    C. ପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    D. ପୋତିବା
    Ans: B. ପବିତ୍ର
  255. ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦକୁ କେତେ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରାଯାଇଛି?
    A. 4
    B. 2
    C. 5
    D. 3
    Ans: C. 5
  256. “ପ୍ରସାଦ” ଶବ୍ଦର ସଠିକ ଅର୍ଥ ବାଛ |
    A. ଠାକୁରଙ୍କ ଭୋଗ
    B. ବଡ କୋଠା ଘର
    C. ବଡ ମନ୍ଦିର
    D. ଭୋଗ ରନ୍ଧା ହେଉଥିବା ଘର
    Ans: A. ଠାକୁରଙ୍କ ଭୋଗ
  257. “ଅପ ସଂସ୍କୃତି” ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    A. ଅପ ଅଟେ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
    B. ଅପର ସଂସ୍କୃତି
    C. ଅପ ଓ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
    D. ସଂସ୍କୃତିର ସମାହାର
    Ans: A. ଅପ ଅଟେ ସଂସ୍କୃତି
  258. କେଉଁଟି ପଦ୍ମର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
    A. ସରିତ
    B. ଅମ୍ବୁଜ
    C. ସାରସ
    D. ପଙ୍କେରୁହ
    Ans: A. ସରିତ
  259. “ଦେଶକେ ଫାଙ୍କ୍ ନଈକେ ବାଙ୍କ୍” ଲୋକବାଣୀ ର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ ଣ?
    A. ବାହାର ସୌନ୍ଦର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଭିତରେ ନଥିବା
    B. ଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ଭିନ୍ନ ଚଳଣି
    C. ସବୁସ୍ଥାନରେ ଖାପଖୁଆଇ ଚଳିବା
    D. ପ୍ରକୃତି ବଦଳେ ନାହିଁ
    Ans: B. ଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ଭିନ୍ନ ଚଳଣି
  260. କେଉଁଟି ଗୁଣବାଚକ ବିଶେଷଣ?
    A. ସରଳ ଲୋକ
    B. ଦରିଦ୍ର ବାଳକ
    C. ସାମାନ୍ୟ କଥା
    D. ତେର ମିଟର
    Ans: A. ସରଳ ଲୋକ
  261. ରାତିରେ ପେଚା ଭ୍ରମଣ କରିଥାନ୍ତି |ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟିର କାରକ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) କର୍ମ
    (b) କରଣ
    (c) ଅଧିକରଣ
    (d) ଅପାଦାନ
    Ans: (c) ଅଧିକରଣ
  262. ’ପୋକଶୁଙ୍ଘା’ କେଉଁ ସମାସ ଅଟେ?
    (a) ଦ୍ୱିଗୁ
    (b) ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
    (c) ନିତ୍ୟ
    (d) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
    Ans: (c) ନିତ୍ୟ
  263. ଅଶୁଦ୍ଧି ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର |
    (a) ଅନେକ ଲୋକମାନେ ମତ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁଛନ୍ତି |
    (b) ଅଧିକାଂଶ ଲୋକଙ୍କର ରହିବାକୁ ଘର ନାହିଁ |
    (c) ବହୁତ ପୁସ୍ତକ ଏଠାରେ ଅଛି |
    (d) ଅନେକ ଲୋକ ସଭାରେ ଉପସ୍ଥିତ ଅଛନ୍ତି |
    Ans: (a) ଅନେକ ଲୋକମାନେ ମତ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରୁଛନ୍ତି
  264. ’ସଂସ୍କୃତି’ ର ସନ୍ଧି ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର |
    (a) ସତ୍ + କୃତି
    (b) ସମ୍ + କୃତି
    (c) ସଂ + କୃତି
    (d) ସସ୍ + କୃତି
    Ans: (b) ସମ୍ + କୃତି
  265. ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ପଦମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ‘ଅଭି’ ଉପସର୍ଗର ପଦ ସୂଚାଅ |
    (a) ଉପବନ
    (b) ଅଭିମାନ
    (c) ଅପିହିତ
    (d) ଅନୁତାପ
    Ans: (b) ଅଭିମାନ
  266. ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ପଦମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଦ୍ଵନ୍ଦ ସମାସ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) ପରସ୍ପର
    (b) ଚତୁର୍ଭୁଜ
    (c) ପଞ୍ଚବଟୀ
    (d) ଅମୂଲ୍ୟ
    Ans: (a) ପରସ୍ପର
  267. ସେ ହାଟକୁ ଗଲା କିନ୍ତୁ ସଉଦା ଆଣିଲା ନାହିଁ |ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟିର ଅବ୍ୟୟ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) ସଂଯୋଜକ
    (b) ବିଯୋଜକ
    (c) ଭାବବାଚକ
    (d) ନିଷେଧାଧିକ
    Ans: (b) ବିଯୋଜକ
  268. ’ବାୟୁ’ ର ବିଶେଷଣ ରୂପ ସ୍ଥିର କର |
    (a) ବାୟବୀୟ
    (b) ବାୟୀକ
    (c) ବାୟକ
    (d) ବାତ
    Ans: (a) ବାୟବୀୟ
  269. ସେ ଗୁଣର ଆଦର କରେ ————|ଶୂନ୍ୟସ୍ଥାନ ପୂରଣ କର |
    (a) ଗୁଣାଦର
    (b) ଗୁଣଗ୍ରହୀ
    (c) ଗୁଣଗ୍ରାହି
    (d) ଗୁଣାଦାର
    Ans: (b) ଗୁଣଗ୍ରହୀ
  270. ଅସଙ୍ଗତ ପଦକୁ ପୃଥକ କର |
    (a) କ୍ରନ୍ଦନ
    (b) କହୁଛି
    (c) ଲିଖନ
    (d) ଭ୍ରମଣ
    Ans: (b) କହୁଛି
  271. Who were the primary adversaries in the Battle of Plassey?
    A. British East India Company vs. Mughal Empire
    B. British East India Company vs. French East India Company
    C. British East India Company vs. Nawab of Bengal
    D. British East India Company vs. Maratha Empire
    Answer: C. British East India Company vs. Nawab of Bengal
  272. Which British officer led the East India Company forces in the Battle of Plassey?
    A. Siraj-ud-Daulah
    B. Mir Jafar
    C. Robert Clive
    D. Warren Hastings
    Answer: C. Robert Clive
  273. What was the primary cause of the Battle of Plassey?
    A. Dispute over territory between British and French
    B. Disagreement over trade routes in Bengal
    C. British fortification of Calcutta without Nawab’s permission
    D. British refusal to pay taxes to Nawab of Bengal
    Answer: C. British fortification of Calcutta without Nawab’s permission
  274. Who betrayed Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah during the Battle of Plassey?
    A. Rai Durlabh
    B. Robert Clive
    C. Mir Jafar
    D. Jagat Seth
    Answer: C. Mir Jafar
  275. What was the immediate aftermath of the Battle of Plassey for the British East India Company?
    A. Loss of influence in Bengal
    B. Strengthened control over Bengal
    C. Establishment of French dominance in Bengal
    D. Withdrawal from Indian subcontinent
    Answer: B. Strengthened control over Bengal
  276. Who were the primary belligerents in the Third Battle of Panipat?
    A) Maratha Empire and Mughal Empire
    B) Maratha Empire and Durrani Empire
    C) Mughal Empire and British East India Company
    D) Maratha Empire and Sikhs
    Answer: B) Maratha Empire and Durrani Empire
  277. Who was the Commander-in-chief of the Maratha Army during the battle?
    A) Balaji Bajirao
    B) Shivaji Bhosle
    C) Sadashivrao Bhau
    D) Nana Fadnavis
    Answer: C) Sadashivrao Bhau
  278. Where did the Third Battle of Panipat take place?
    A) Delhi
    B) Pune
    C) Panipat
    D) Lahore
    Answer: C) Panipat
  279. When did the Third Battle of Panipat occur?
    A) 1760
    B) 1761
    C) 1757
    D) 1770
    Answer: B) 1761
  280. Which Afghan ruler led the Durrani Empire during the battle?
    A) Ahmad Shah Durrani
    B) Babur
    C) Sher Shah Suri
    D) Aurangzeb
    Answer: A) Ahmad Shah Durrani
  281. What was the outcome of the Third Battle of Panipat?
    A) Victory for the Marathas
    B) Victory for the British
    C) Victory for the Afghans
    D) Stalemate
    Answer: C) Victory for the Afghans
  282. Which Indian ruler allied with Ahmad Shah Durrani against the Marathas?
    A) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
    B) Shuja-ud-Daulah
    C) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
    D) Rana Pratap
    Answer: B) Shuja-ud-Daulah
  283. What was one of the reasons for the Afghan victory at Panipat?
    A) Numerical superiority
    B) Technological advantage
    C) Naval dominance
    D) Diplomatic alliances
    Answer: A) Numerical superiority
  284. How did the Battle of Panipat impact the Maratha Empire immediately after?
    A) Expansion into South India
    B) Establishment of a strong navy
    C) Loss of leadership and territory
    D) Alliance with the British
    Answer: C) Loss of leadership and territory
  285. Who was reinstated as the Mughal Emperor in Delhi after the battle?
    A) Akbar
    B) Aurangzeb
    C) Shah Alam II
    D) Bahadur Shah II
    Answer: C) Shah Alam II
  286. Who was Hyder Ali?
    A. A British diplomat
    B. Commander-in-chief of the Mysore army
    C. French general
    D. Portuguese trader
    Answer: B. Commander-in-chief of the Mysore army
  287. What position did Hyder Ali achieve in the Mysore state under Krishnaraja Wodeyar II?
    A. Prime Minister
    B. Chief Minister
    C. Commander of the Navy
    D. Treasurer
    Answer: B. Chief Minister
  288. How did Hyder Ali change the Mysore army?
    A. Introduced European-style training
    B. Introduced Chinese war tactics
    C. Adopted Mongol cavalry tactics
    D. Trained soldiers in African warfare
    Answer: A. Introduced European-style training
  289. Which war saw the Treaty of Madras signed?
    A. First Anglo-Mysore War
    B. Second Anglo-Mysore War
    C. Third Anglo-Mysore War
    D. Fourth Anglo-Mysore War
    Answer: A. First Anglo-Mysore War
  290. What event led to the outbreak of the First Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Hyder Ali’s attack on Madras
    B. British refusal to support Mysore against Marathas
    C. Nizam’s invasion of Mysore
    D. French invasion of British territories
    Answer: B. British refusal to support Mysore against Marathas
  291. Who replaced Hyder Ali after his death during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Tipu Sultan
    B. Krishnaraja Wodeyar II
    C. Sir Eyre Coote
    D. Marquess Wellesley
    Answer: A. Tipu Sultan
  292. Which treaty ended the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Treaty of Madras
    B. Treaty of Mangalore
    C. Treaty of Srirangapatna
    D. Treaty of Arcot
    Answer: B. Treaty of Mangalore
  293. What alliance did Hyder Ali form during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. With the French and British
    B. With the Marathas and Nizam
    C. With the Dutch and Portuguese
    D. With the Spanish and Italians
    Answer: B. With the Marathas and Nizam
  294. Which battle was a part of the First Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Battle of Plassey
    B. Battle of Chengam
    C. Battle of Panipat
    D. Battle of Buxar
    Answer: B. Battle of Chengam
  295. What caused Hyder Ali to declare war on the British during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. British attack on Madras
    B. French invasion of Mysore
    C. British refusal to return territories
    D. British attack on Mahe
    Answer: D. British attack on Mahe
  296. What were the primary causes of the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Tipu Sultan’s refusal to accept the Treaty of Mangalore
    B. British dissatisfaction with Tipu’s alignment with the French
    C. Tipu Sultan’s attack on the Marathas
    D. British desire for territorial expansion in South India
    Answer: B. British dissatisfaction with Tipu’s alignment with the French
  297. Who declared war first in the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
    A. Lord Cornwallis
    B. Tipu Sultan
    C. Nizam of Hyderabad
    D. Marathas
    Answer: A. Lord Cornwallis
  298. What was the outcome of the Treaty of Seringapatam (1792)?
    A. Tipu Sultan regained all lost territories
    B. Tipu Sultan paid war indemnity to the Marathas
    C. Tipu Sultan ceded half of his kingdom to the British
    D. Tipu Sultan allied with the French
    Answer: C. Tipu Sultan ceded half of his kingdom to the British
  299. What led to the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?
    A. Tipu Sultan’s rejection of the Subsidiary Alliance
    B. British invasion of Mysore
    C. Marathas’ attack on Seringapatam
    D. Tipu Sultan’s death
    Answer: A. Tipu Sultan’s rejection of the Subsidiary Alliance
  300. How did the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War end?
    A. Tipu Sultan fled to France
    B. Mysore became a British colony
    C. Tipu Sultan died defending Seringapatam
    D. Nizam of Hyderabad became ruler of Mysore
    Answer: C. Tipu Sultan died defending Seringapatam
  301. ଦେବାସୁରର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
    a) ଦେବ + ଅସୁର
    b) ଦେବ + ସୁର
    c) ଦେବା + ସୁର
    d) ଦେବା + ଅସୁର
    Answer: a
  302. ଶ୍ବେତାମ୍ବରର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
    a) ଶ୍ବେତ + ଅମ୍ବର
    b) ଶ୍ବେତ + ମ୍ବର
    c) ଶ୍ବେତା + ଅମ୍ବର
    d) ଶ୍ବେତା + ମ୍ବର
    Answer: a
  303. ନୀଳାଚଳର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
    a) ନୀଳ + ଅଚଳ
    b) ନୀଳ + ଚଳ
    c) ନୀଳା + ଅଚଳ
    d) ନୀଳା + ଚଳ
    Answer: a
  304. ଗ୍ରାମାଞ୍ଚଳର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
    a) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ
    b) ଗ୍ରାମା + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ
    c) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଞ୍ଚଳ
    d) ଗ୍ରାମା + ଞ୍ଚଳ
    Answer: a
  305. ଅନୁଗ୍ରହ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
    a) ନିର୍ମଳ
    b) ନିଗ୍ରହ
    c) ନିବେଦନ
    d) ନିଶା
    Answer: b) ନିଗ୍ରହ
  306. ଅପେକ୍ଷା ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
    a) ଉତ୍ସବ
    b) ଉପେକ୍ଷା
    c) ଉତ୍ତମ
    d) ଉପକର
    Answer: b) ଉପେକ୍ଷା
  307. ଅଭିଜ୍ଞ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
    a) ଅନଭିଜ୍ଞ
    b) ଅଭିପ୍ରାୟ
    c) ଅପରାଧ
    d) ଅଭିବ୍ୟକ୍ତି
    Answer: a) ଅନଭିଜ୍ଞ
  308. ଅସଲ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
    a) ସଫଳ
    b) ନକଲ
    c) ସତ୍ତ୍ଵ
    d) ସଂସାର
    Answer: b) ନକଲ
  309. ବନେଚର ବିଗ୍ରହ ବାକ୍ୟଟି କ’ଣ ହେବ ?
    (a) ବନରେ ଚର
    (b) ବନେ ଚରେ ଯେ
    (c) ବନର ଚର
    (d) ବନକୁ ଚରେ ଯେ
    Answer: (b) ବନେ ଚରେ ଯେ
  310. ବିଶେଷଣ ଓ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦକୁ ନେଇ ଯେଉଁ ସମାସ ଗଠିତ ହୁଏ ତାକୁ କି ସମାସ କୁହାଯାଏ
    (a) ଦ୍ୱିଗୁ
    (b) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
    (c) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
    (d) ତତପୁରୁଷ
    Answer: (b) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
  311. ସୁନାମୁଦି ଏହାର ବିଗ୍ରହ ବାକ୍ୟ କଣ ହେବ ?
    (a) ସୁନା ତିଆରି ମୁଦି
    (b) ସୁନା ପରି ମୁଦି
    (c) ସୁନାର ମୁଦି
    (d) ସୁନା ଓ ମୁଦି
    Answer: (a) ସୁନା ତିଆରି ମୁଦି
  312. ‘ଫତେଇ ହେବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    a) ତାଲି ମାରିବା
    b) ବାରମ୍ବାର ପଚାରିବା
    c) ହାସିବା
    d) ବାରମ୍ବାର ହାରିବା
    Answer: b
  313. ‘ଫସର ଫାଟିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    a) ଫସ ନାଶ ହେବା
    b) ବ୍ୟର୍ଥ ହେବା
    c) ଫସର ରାସ ନିକାଶ କରିବା
    d) ଫସର ଚାଷ କରିବା
    Answer: b
  314. ‘ବାମନ ହୋଇ ଚାନ୍ଦକୁ ହାତ ବଢାଇବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    a) ଚାନ୍ଦ ଦେଖିବା
    b) ବାମନ ହେବା
    c) ଅସମ୍ଭବ ପାଇଁ ଚେଷ୍ଟା
    d) ଚାନ୍ଦରେ ଯିବା
    Answer: c
  315. ‘ବିଛା ମନ୍ତ୍ର ନ ଜାଣି ସାପ ଗାତରେ ହାତ ମାରିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    a) ସାପକୁ ଧରିବା
    b) ବିଛା ମନ୍ତ୍ର ଶିଖିବା
    c) ଧୃଷ୍ଟତାରେ ବିପଦ ବରଣ କରିବା
    d) ସାପରେ ଲାଗିବା
    Answer: c
  316. ‘ବିରାଡି କପାଳକୁ ଶିକା ଚିଡିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    a) ବାନର ଭାବରେ ହିଁଡିବା
    b) ଶିକା ଚିଡିବା
    c) ଇଚ୍ଛା ଅନୁସାରେ ସୁଯୋଗ ମିଳିବା
    d) କପାଳରେ ଲେଖା
    Answer: c
  317. ‘ବସେଇ ଉଠେଇ ନଦେବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
    a) ଉଠିବା ଓ ବସିବା
    b) ଭୁଲିବା
    c) ବିଶ୍ରାମ ନେବା
    d) ଅଥୟ କରିବା
    Answer: d
  318. ନାଗରୀ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
    A) ଆ
    B) ଈ
    C) ଆନୀ
    D) ଆଣୀ
    Answer: B) ଈ
  319. କୋକିଳା କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
    A) ଆ
    B) ଈ
    C) ଆନୀ
    D) ଆଣୀ
    Answer: A) ଆ
  320. କିଶୋର ର ସ୍ତ୍ରୀ ଲିଙ୍ଗ ରୂପ କଣ ?
    A) କିଶୋରା
    B) କିଶୋରୀ
    C) କିଶୋରାଣୀ
    D) କିଶୋରିକା
    Answer: B) କିଶୋରୀ
  321. ଭବାଣୀ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
    A) ଆ
    B) ଈ
    C) ଆନୀ
    D) ଆଣୀ
    Answer: C) ଆନୀ
  322. ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରାଣୀ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
    A) ଆ
    B) ଈ
    C) ଆନୀ
    D) ଆଣୀ
    Answer: D) ଆଣୀ
  323. କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକରେ କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ହୁଏ ?
    (A) ପ୍ରଥମା
    (B) ତୃତୀୟା
    (C) ଦ୍ବତୀୟା
    (D) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
    Answer: (A) ପ୍ରଥମା
  324. ବାକ୍ୟ ମଧ୍ଯରେ କ୍ରିୟାପଦ ସହିତ ସମ୍ପର୍କ ନଥାଇ ଯେଉଁ ପଦର ଅନ୍ୟ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ସହିତ ସମ୍ପର୍କ ଥାଏ ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
    (A) ସର୍ବନାମ ପଦ
    (B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ
    (C) ଅବ୍ୟୟ ପଦ
    (D) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ
    Answer: (B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ
  325. ଯେଉଁ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ବା ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସମଷ୍ଟି ଦ୍ବାରା ସଂଖ୍ୟା, କାରକ ସ୍ବଚିତ ହୁଏ ତାହାକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
    (A) ବିଭକ୍ତ
    (B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ
    (C) ଅବ୍ୟୟ ପଦ
    (D) କାରକ
    Answer:(A) ବିଭକ୍ତ
  326. କାରକର ଚିହ୍ନକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି?
    (A) ବିଭକ୍ତି
    (B) କାରକ
    (C) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
    (D) ଅବ୍ଯକ୍ତ
    Answer:(A) ବିଭକ୍ତି
  327. ଈଶ୍ବର ତୁମକୁ ବିପଦରୁ ରକ୍ଷା କରନ୍ତୁ | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦର କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ହୋଇଛି?
    (A) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
    (B) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
    (C) ତୃତୀୟା
    (D) ଦ୍ବିତୀୟା
    Answer: (B) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
  328. ଧ୍ବନି ମାନଙ୍କର ଲିଖୂତ ରୂପ କଣ ?
    A. ଭାଷା
    B. ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    C. ଧ୍ୱନି
    D. ଶବ୍ଦ
    Answer: B. ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
  329. କ ବର୍ଗ ର ଅନ୍ୟ ନାମ କଣ ?
    A . କଣ୍ଠ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    B ତାଲବ୍ଯ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    C ଓଷ୍ଠ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    D ଦନ୍ଧ୍ୟ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
    Answer: A . କଣ୍ଠ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
  330. Who is the current Chief Minister of Rajasthan?
    A) Vasundhara Raje
    B) Ashok Gehlot
    C) Sachin Pilot
    D) Bhupesh Baghel
    Answer: B) Ashok Gehlot
  331. Who is the Chief Scientist at CSIR-IIIM Jammu?
    A) Dr. R. K. Sinha
    B) Dr. Anil Kukreja
    C) Dr. Zabeer Ahmed
    D) Dr. Anil Sharma
    Answer: C) Dr. Zabeer Ahmed
  332. When was the World Animal Health Organization founded?
    A) 1945
    B) 1924
    C) 1961
    D) 1988
    Answer: B) 1924
  333. Who is the founder of the World Animal Health Organization?
    A) Emmanuel Leclainche
    B) Henri Dunant
    C) Florence Nightingale
    D) Robert Koch
    Answer: A) Emmanuel Leclainche
  334. Where are the headquarters of the World Animal Health Organization located?
    A) Rome
    B) Geneva
    C) New York
    D) Paris
    Answer: D) Paris
  335. Who is the Director General of the World Animal Health Organization?
    A) Tedros Adhanom
    B) Dr. Monique Eloit
    C) Marco Lambertini
    D) Dr. R. S. Sharma
    Answer: B) Dr. Monique Eloit
  336. Who is the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh?
    A) Kamal Nath
    B) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
    C) Jyotiraditya Scindia
    D) Digvijaya Singh
    Answer: B) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
  337. Who is the President of the Asian Cricket Council (ACC)?
    A) N. Srinivasan
    B) Sourav Ganguly
    C) Jay Shah
    D) Anurag Thakur
    Answer: C) Jay Shah
  338. Where are the headquarters of the Asian Cricket Council (ACC) located?
    A) Dubai
    B) Mumbai
    C) Kuala Lumpur
    D) Singapore
    Answer: C) Kuala Lumpur
  339. Who is the Director General of Railway Protection Force (RPF)?
    A) Arun Kumar
    B) Sanjay Chander
    C) S. K. Bhagat
    D) Suresh Chandra
    Answer: B) Sanjay Chander
  340. Where are the headquarters of the World Health Organization (WHO) located?
    A) New York
    B) Vienna
    C) Geneva
    D) Paris
    Answer: C) Geneva
  341. Who is the Director General of the World Health Organization (WHO)?
    A) Dr. David Nabarro
    B) Dr. Margaret Chan
    C) Dr. Gro Harlem Brundtland
    D) Dr. Tedros Adhanom
    Answer: D) Dr. Tedros Adhanom
  342. When was the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) founded?
    A) 15 August 1947
    B) 27 July 1939
    C) 1 February 1977
    D) 10 March 1950
    Answer: B) 27 July 1939
  343. Where are the headquarters of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) located?
    A) Mumbai
    B) Hyderabad
    C) New Delhi
    D) Kolkata
    Answer: C) New Delhi
  344. Who is the Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)?
    A) Kuldiep Singh
    B) Dr. Sujoy Lal Thaosen, IPS
    C) Rajiv Rai Bhatnagar
    D) R. R. Bhatnagar
    Answer: B) Dr. Sujoy Lal Thaosen, IPS
  345. Who is the 50th and current Chief Justice of India?
    A) N. V. Ramana
    B) S. A. Bobde
    C) Ranjan Gogoi
    D) Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
    Answer: D) Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
  346. Who is the current Chairman of Asian Paints Ltd?
    A) Aditya Puri
    B) Deepak Satwalekar
    C) R. Seshasayee
    D) Sanjay Agarwal
    Answer: B) Deepak Satwalekar
  347. Where is the headquarters of the Central Bank of Israel located?
    A) Tel Aviv
    B) Haifa
    C) Jerusalem
    D) Eilat
    Answer: C) Jerusalem
  348. Who is the President of the Handball Association India (HAI)?
    A) Rajeev Mehta
    B) Digvijay Chautala
    C) Anurag Thakur
    D) Narinder Batra
    Answer: B) Digvijay Chautala
  349. Where are the headquarters of the World Wildlife Fund located?
    A) Geneva
    B) Nairobi
    C) Gland
    D) New York
    Answer: C) Gland
  350. When was the World Wildlife Fund founded?
    A) 1970
    B) 1961
    C) 1984
    D) 1957
    Answer: B) 1961
  351. Who is the Director General of the World Wildlife Fund?
    A) Marco Lambertini
    B) Inger Andersen
    C) Patricia Espinosa
    D) Achim Steiner
    Answer: A) Marco Lambertini
  352. The Salal Dam is located on which river in Jammu and Kashmir?
    A) Jhelum
    B) Chenab
    C) Suru
    D) Indus
    Answer: B) Chenab
  353. The Uri Dam is built on which river?
    A) Chenab
    B) Jhelum
    C) Indus
    D) Suru
    Answer: B) Jhelum
  354. On which river is the Baglihar Dam constructed?
    A) Jhelum
    B) Indus
    C) Chenab
    D) Suru
    Answer: C) Chenab
  355. The Cholal Dam is located on which river?
    A) Suru
    B) Chenab
    C) Jhelum
    D) Cholal Choe
    Answer: D) Cholal Choe
  356. Which dam is associated with the Suru river?
    A) Salal Dam
    B) Uri Dam
    C) Chutak Hydroelectric Plant
    D) Nimoo Bazgo Hydroelectric Plant
    Answer: C) Chutak Hydroelectric Plant
  357. The Nimoo Bazgo Hydroelectric Plant is built on which river?
    A) Indus
    B) Jhelum
    C) Chenab
    D) Suru
    Answer: A) Indus
  358. In Jharkhand, the Konar Dam is located on which river?
    A) Damodar
    B) Barakar
    C) Subarnarekha
    D) Konar
    Answer: D) Konar
  359. The Tenughat Dam in Jharkhand is constructed on which river?
    A) Damodar
    B) Barakar
    C) Subarnarekha
    D) Konar
    Answer: A) Damodar
  360. Who won the gold medal in the Hammer throw event at the 21st U-20 Asian Athletics Championship 2024?
    A) Harshit Kumar
    B) Neeraj Chopra
    C) Bajrang Punia
    D) Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
    Answer: A) Harshit Kumar
  361. Who won the men’s and women’s categories at the 16th Tata Consultancy Services World 10K Bengaluru?
    A) Peter Mwaniki and Lilian Kasait
    B) Lando Norris and Iga Swiatek
    C) Magnus Carlsen and Dipa Karmakar
    D) Max Verstappen and Sunil Chhetri
    Answer: A) Peter Mwaniki and Lilian Kasait
  362. Which company was named the Lead Arm sponsor for the USA and South Africa cricket teams during the T20 World Cup in June 2024?
    A) Pepsi
    B) Amul
    C) Coca-Cola
    D) Nestle
    Answer: B) Amul
  363. Which West Indies player was banned for five years by the ICC for breaching anti-corruption codes?
    A) Chris Gayle
    B) Kieron Pollard
    C) Devon Thomas
    D) Jason Holder
    Answer: C) Devon Thomas
  364. Where will the 2025 BWF World Junior Championships be hosted?
    A) New Delhi
    B) Bangalore
    C) Guwahati
    D) Pune
    Answer: C) Guwahati
  365. Which country won both the men’s and women’s titles at the 2024 BWF Thomas & Uber Cup Finals?
    A) Japan
    B) South Korea
    C) Indonesia
    D) China
    Answer: D) China
  366. Who won the Miami Grand Prix 2024?
    A) Lewis Hamilton
    B) Sebastian Vettel
    C) Lando Norris
    D) Max Verstappen
    Answer: C) Lando Norris
  367. Who were the singles champions at the 2024 Madrid Open?
    A) Rafael Nadal and Serena Williams
    B) Novak Djokovic and Naomi Osaka
    C) Andrey Rublev and Iga Swiatek
    D) Roger Federer and Ashleigh Barty
    Answer: C) Andrey Rublev and Iga Swiatek
  368. Which football club won the La Liga 2023-24 season title?
    A) Atletico Madrid
    B) Barcelona
    C) Real Madrid
    D) Sevilla
    Answer: C) Real Madrid
  369. When will the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2024 be held?
    A) January 2024
    B) March 2024
    C) October 2024
    D) December 2024
    Answer: C) October 2024
  370. Which Indian bowler became the first to take 350 wickets in T20 cricket?
    A) Ravichandran Ashwin
    B) Jasprit Bumrah
    C) Yuzvendra Chahal
    D) Bhuvneshwar Kumar
    Answer: C) Yuzvendra Chahal
  371. Which company was named the ‘Official Sponsor’ of the Sri Lanka Men’s Team for the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024?
    A) Nike
    B) Puma
    C) Amul
    D) Adidas
    Answer: C) Amul
  372. Which New Zealand cricketer announced retirement from international cricket after being overlooked for the T20 World Cup?
    A) Ross Taylor
    B) Trent Boult
    C) Martin Guptill
    D) Colin Munro
    Answer: D) Colin Munro
  373. Which foundation partnered with Hockey India for the National Women’s Hockey League 2024?
    A) Tata Foundation
    B) Reliance Foundation
    C) Anandana, The Coca-Cola India Foundation
    D) Infosys Foundation
    Answer: C) Anandana, The Coca-Cola India Foundation
  374. Who secured second place at the Doha Diamond League 2024 in javelin throw?
    A) Neeraj Chopra
    B) Johannes Vetter
    C) Jakub Vadlejch
    D) Andreas Thorkildsen
    Answer: A) Neeraj Chopra
  375. Who won the 2024 Superbet Rapid & Blitz Poland chess tournament?
    A) Vishwanathan Anand
    B) Fabiano Caruana
    C) Magnus Carlsen
    D) Ding Liren
    Answer: C) Magnus Carlsen
  376. Who won the 2024 French MotoGP?
    A) Valentino Rossi
    B) Marc Marquez
    C) Jorge Martin
    D) Francesco Bagnaia
    Answer: C) Jorge Martin
  377. When is the newly proclaimed World Football Day by the United Nations General Assembly?
    A) April 1
    B) May 25
    C) June 15
    D) July 30
    Answer: B) May 25
  378. Who became India’s 85th Grandmaster (GM) in chess?
    A) Vishwanathan Anand
    B) P Shyaamnikhil
    C) Nihal Sarin
    D) R Praggnanandhaa
    Answer: B) P Shyaamnikhil
  379. Which Indian footballer announced retirement from international football with the game against Kuwait?
    A) Sunil Chhetri
    B) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
    C) Sandesh Jhingan
    D) Anirudh Thapa
    Answer: A) Sunil Chhetri
  380. Who topped Forbes’ list of the world’s highest-paid athletes in 2024?
    A) Lionel Messi
    B) LeBron James
    C) Cristiano Ronaldo
    D) Neymar Jr.
    Answer: C) Cristiano Ronaldo
  381. Who set a new world record in the women’s T20 400m event at the World Para Athletics Championships 2024?
    A) Deepthi Jeevanji
    B) Manasi Joshi
    C) Devendra Jhajharia
    D) Mariyappan Thangavelu
    Answer: A) Deepthi Jeevanji
  382. Which Indian badminton pair won the Thailand Open 2024 men’s doubles title?
    A) Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
    B) Prannoy H. S. and Kidambi Srikanth
    C) Saina Nehwal and P. V. Sindhu
    D) Ashwini Ponnappa and Sikki Reddy
    Answer: A) Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
  383. Who won the 2024 Italian Open singles title?
    A) Novak Djokovic
    B) Roger Federer
    C) Alexander Zverev
    D) Rafael Nadal
    Answer: C) Alexander Zverev
  384. Which Indian golfer won the 2024 DGC Open?
    A) Anirban Lahiri
    B) Shiv Kapur
    C) Jeev Milkha Singh
    D) Gaganjeet Bhullar
    Answer: B) Shiv Kapur
  385. Which tennis player won the 2024 Rome Masters men’s singles title?
    A) Daniil Medvedev
    B) Carlos Alcaraz
    C) Novak Djokovic
    D) Stefanos Tsitsipas
    Answer: B) Carlos Alcaraz
  386. Who won the gold medal in the men’s 400m at the Asian Para Games 2024?
    A) Devendra Jhajharia
    B) Mariyappan Thangavelu
    C) Sharad Kumar
    D) Deepthi Jeevanji
    Answer: D) Deepthi Jeevanji
  387. Which country won the 2024 ICC Under-19 Women’s T20 World Cup?
    A) Australia
    B) England
    C) India
    D) South Africa
    Answer: C) India
  388. Which team won the UEFA Champions League 2023-24?
    A) Manchester City
    B) Real Madrid
    C) Bayern Munich
    D) Paris Saint-Germain
    Answer: A) Manchester City
  389. Who won the gold medal in women’s singles at the 2024 Denmark Open Badminton Championship?
    A) Akane Yamaguchi
    B) Carolina Marin
    C) Tai Tzu Ying
    D) P. V. Sindhu
    Answer: D) P. V. Sindhu
  390. Who was the first person to use the word “geography”?
    a. Eratosthenes
    b. Strabo
    c. Ptolemy
    d. William Morris Davis
    ANSWER: a. Eratosthenes
  391. The Earth is comprised of how many continental and oceanic tectonic plates?
    a. 10
    b. 13
    c. 20
    d. 14
    ANSWER: d. 14
  392. Mantle layer is situated between _____________
    a. Crust and Lithosphere
    b. Crust and Core
    c. Core and Lithosphere
    d. Inner Core and Outer Core
    ANSWER: b. Crust and Core
  393. Mantle is composed of _____________
    a. Silicon and Magnesium
    b. Silicon
    c. Magnesium
    d. None of the above
    ANSWER: a. Silicon and Magnesium
  394. After oxygen, which is the most abundant element in the earth’s crust?
    a. Sodium
    b. Silicon
    c. Magnesium
    d. Aluminium
    ANSWER: b. Silicon
  395. Which one of the following is the cause for a change in the season?
    a. Earth’s Rotation and Revolution
    b. Earth’s Rotation
    c. Earth’s Revolution
    d. None of the above
    ANSWER: c. Earth’s Revolution
  396. In which direction does the earth spin on its axis?
    a. West to East
    b. East to West
    c. South to North
    d. North to South
    ANSWER: a. West to East
  397. How long does Earth take to complete one rotation?
    a. 23 Hours, 56 minutes
    b. 23 Hours, 55 minutes
    c. 23 Hours, 54 minutes
    d. 22 Hours, 60 minutes
    ANSWER: a. 23 Hours, 56 minutes
  398. Which is the longest and shortest day in the northern hemisphere?
    a. 21 June, 21 December
    b. 20 June, 21 December
    c. 21 June, 20 December
    d. 20 June, 20 December
    ANSWER: a. 21 June, 21 December
  399. ______________ is the longest and shortest day in the southern hemisphere.
    a. 21 December, 20 June
    b. 20 December, 20 June
    c. 22 December, 21 June
    d. 22 December, 20 June
    ANSWER: c. 22 December, 21 June
  400. The spring tides occur when _______________________________
    a. The Earth and the Moon are in a line
    b. The Earth, the Sun and the Moon are in a line
    c. The Moon and the Sun are in a line
    d. None of the above
    ANSWER: b. The Earth, the Sun and the Moon are in a line
  401. What is the time difference between the Greenwich time and Indian Standard time?
    a. 5
    b. 5 and ½
    c. 5 and ¼
    d. 4 and ½
    ANSWER: b. 5 and ½
  402. What is the number of latitudes and longitudes?
    a. 180 latitudes, 360 meridians of longitudes
    b. 180 latitudes, 180 meridians of longitudes
    c. 90 latitudes, 180 meridians of longitudes
    d. 360 latitudes, 180 meridians of longitudes
    ANSWER: a. 180 latitudes, 360 meridians of longitudes
  403. _____________ is the oldest mountain?
    a. Aravallis
    b. Himalayas
    c. Andes
    d. Alps
    ANSWER: a. Aravallis
  404. Which line demarcates the boundary of India and Pakistan?
    a. Radcliffe Line
    b. 24th Parallel
    c. 38th Parallel
    d. Mc Mohan Line
    ANSWER: a. Radcliffe Line
  405. In terms of area, India is at which position in the world?
    (a) 7th largest
    (b) 4th largest
    (c) 5th largest
    (d) 6th largest
    Correct Answer: (a) 7th largest
    Explanation: In terms of size, India is the seventh largest country in the world. The largest country in the world is Russia. The seven largest countries by area are:
    Russia
    Canada
    China
    United States
    Brazil
    Australia
    India
  406. India and Sri Lanka are separated by which among the following strait?
    (a) Malacca Strait
    (b) Sunda Strait
    (c) Palk Strait
    (d) Strait of Gibraltar
    Correct Answer: (c) Palk Strait
    Explanation: India and Sri Lanka are narrowly separated by the Palk Strait.
  407. The Indian mainland extends between the following latitudes?
    (a) 8°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes
    (b) 9°4’N to 38°6′ N latitudes
    (c) 3°4’N to 32°6′ N latitudes
    (d) 5°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes
    Correct Answer: (a) 8°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes
    Explanation: India lies completely in the Northern Hemisphere. The Indian mainland extends between 8°4’N to 37°6′ N latitudes and from 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E longitudes. India’s latitudinal and longitudinal extent is about 29 degrees. 
  408. The length of India from north to south is which among the following?
    (a) 3,214 km
    (b) 3,414 km
    (c) 4,214 km
    (d) 2,933 km
    Correct Answer: (a) 3,214 km
    Explanation: India measures about 3,214 km from north to south and 2,933 km from east to west. 
  409. The easternmost point of India is located in the state of?
    (a) Assam
    (b) Arunachal Pradesh
    (c) Meghalaya
    (d) Sikkim
    Correct Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh
    Explanation: Kibithu is the easternmost place of India. It is located in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh. The Lohit River enters India at Kibithu. 
  410. The westernmost point of India is located in the state of?
    (a) Maharashtra
    (b) Gujarat
    (c) Rajasthan
    (d) Punjab
    Correct Answer: (b) Gujarat
    Explanation: Guhar Moti is the westernmost place of India. It is located in the Kutch district of Gujarat. 
  411. The standard time meridian of India is?
    (a) 83°30′ E
    (b) 82°30′ E
    (c) 81°30′ E
    (d) 80°30′ E
    Correct Answer: (b) 82°30′ E
    Explanation: The standard time meridian of India is 82°30′ E. It passes through the following states of India: Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Chhattisgarh. 
  412. Broadly by how many hours does the local time of the easternmost point of India differ from that of the westernmost point?
    (a) 1 hour
    (b) 2 hours
    (c) 3 hours
    (d) 4 hours
    Correct Answer: (b) 2 hours
    Explanation: The variation in local time between the eastern and western extremities of India is about two hours.
  413. India accounts for the following percent of the world’s total land area?
    (a) 3.42 percent
    (b) 4.42 percent
    (c) 5.42 percent
    (d) 2.42 percent
    Correct Answer: (d) 2.42 percent
    Explanation: In terms of size, India is the seventh largest country in the world. Its total area is 3.28 million sq. km. It accounts for 2.42 percent of the world’s total land area. 
  414. Which one of the following countries shares the longest land border with India?
    (a) Bangladesh
    (b) China
    (c) Pakistan
    (d) Myanmar
    Correct Answer: (a) Bangladesh
    Explanation: Bangladesh shares the longest land border with India, spanning approximately 4,096 kilometers.
  415. Type of climate in India is ?
    (a) Temperate
    (b) Continental
    (c) Tropical Evergreen
    (d) Tropical Monsoon
    Correct Answer: (d) Tropical Monsoon
    Explanation:
    Climate is the average weather conditions in a place over a long period of time.
    India has a tropical monsoon type of climate.
    This type of climate is experienced in the tropical area roughly between 20° N and 20° S.
    The word ‘monsoon’ is derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means ‘Season’. 
  416. Major rainfall occurs in India due to ?
    (a) Southwest monsoon winds
    (b) Northwest monsoon winds
    (c) Northeast monsoon winds
    (d) None of the above
    Correct Answer: (a) Southwest monsoon winds
    Explanation:
    Southwest monsoon winds cause widespread rain over most parts of India.
    Since these winds are sea bearing and blow over warm water bodies before reaching land, they are moisture laden and cause plentiful rainfall in India. 
  417. The cause of western disturbances is ?
    (a) Westerly Jet stream
    (b) Easterly Jet stream
    (c) Both of the above
    (d) None of the above
    Correct Answer: (a) Westerly Jet stream
    Explanation:
    Jet streams are a narrow belt of high altitude (above 12,000 m) winds in the troposphere. Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
    Jet streams in the upper air system influence the climate of India.
    The Westerly Jet stream is responsible for bringing western disturbances from the Mediterranean region into the Indian subcontinent. It causes winter rain in the northwestern plains of India.
    This rain is considered to be very beneficial for the wheat crops of northern plains.
    These depressions are generally followed by cold waves which bring down temperatures considerably. 
  418. The El – Nino Effect causes ?
    (a) Lower rainfall in India
    (b) Higher rainfall in India
    (c) Cyclones in India
    (d) Has no impact
    Correct Answer: (a) Lower rainfall in India
    Explanation:
    Weather conditions in India are influenced by the El-Nino effect.
    Irregular warming of tropical Pacific waters is known as the El-Nino effect.
    It affects the global pattern of pressure and wind systems including the southwest monsoon winds in the Indian Ocean.
    Due to the El-Nino effect, India receives lesser than expected rainfall and sometimes drought-like situations. 
  419. When India has winter, the sun vertically shines over ?
    (a) Tropic of Capricorn
    (b) Tropic of Cancer
    (c) Equator
    (d) None of the above
    Correct Answer: (a) Tropic of Capricorn
  420. Which of the following caves is an example of an apsidal vault-roof chaitya hall?
    a) Ellora Cave No. 16
    b) Ajanta Cave No. 9
    c) Elephanta Cave
    d) Karla Cave
    Answer: b) Ajanta Cave No. 9
  421. The highest number of cave excavations, more than 200, is found at which site?
    a) Kanheri
    b) Ellora
    c) Junnar
    d) Ajanta
    Answer: c) Junnar
  422. Which of the following sites has the largest rock-cut chaitya hall?
    a) Bhaja
    b) Pitalkhora
    c) Karla
    d) Kanheri
    Answer: c) Karla
  423. What is the distinguishing feature of the caves at Kondivite in Mumbai?
    a) Apsidal vault-roof chaitya halls
    b) Pillarless halls
    c) Chaitya arch
    d) Absence of a chaitya arch
    Answer: d) Absence of a chaitya arch
  424. Which period does the Konkan Maurya inscription, indicating continued cave activity, correspond to?
    a) 322 AD
    b) 400 AD
    c) 1st century BC
    d) 2nd century AD
    Answer: b) 400 AD
  425. Which is the only remaining example of 1st century BC and 5th century AD paintings?
    a) Ellora
    b) Mahabalipuram
    c) Ajanta
    d) Badami
    Answer: c) Ajanta
  426. Who was the chief patron of Ajanta Cave No. 16?
    a) Upendragupta
    b) Varahadeva
    c) Buddhabhadra
    d) Mathuradasa
    Answer: b) Varahadeva
  427. Which cave at Ellora is known for its rock-cut temple carved out of a single rock?
    a) Cave No. 12
    b) Cave No. 14
    c) Cave No. 16
    d) Cave No. 19
    Answer: c) Cave No. 16 (Kailashleni)
  428. Which of the following is not a prominent theme in the Brahmanical caves at Ellora?
    a) Andhakasurvadha
    b) Ravana shaking Mt. Kailas
    c) Padmapani
    d) Kalyanasundara
    Answer: c) Padmapani
  429. Where are the biggest rock-cut stupas in India found?
    a) Badami
    b) Guntapalle
    c) Anakapalli
    d) Udaigiri-Khandagiri
    Answer: c) Anakapalli
  430. What is the name of the technique used in ancient Indian bronze sculpting, known from the time of the Indus Valley Civilization?
    a) Lost Wax Technique
    b) Stone Carving
    c) Metal Forging
    d) Sand Casting
    Answer: a) Lost Wax Technique
  431. Bronze is primarily an alloy of which two metals?
    a) Copper and Zinc
    b) Copper and Tin
    c) Copper and Iron
    d) Copper and Nickel
    Answer: b) Copper and Tin
  432. The statue of the Dancing Girl from Mohenjo Daro is an example of which civilization’s art?
    a) Mesopotamian
    b) Indus Valley
    c) Egyptian
    d) Greek
    Answer: b) Indus Valley
  433. The Chola bronze art, which is highly sought after today, was developed during which period?
    a) 8th – 10th century CE
    b) 10th – 12th century CE
    c) 12th – 14th century CE
    d) 14th – 16th century CE
    Answer: b) 10th – 12th century CE
  434. Which famous bronze image from the Chola period depicts Shiva as the ‘Lord of the Dance’?
    a) Ardhanarisvara
    b) Kalyanasundara Murti
    c) Nataraja
    d) Vaikuntha Vishnu
    Answer: c) Nataraja
  435. In the Nataraja bronze sculpture, what does Shiva’s upper right-hand hold?
    a) A flame
    b) A Damaru (percussion instrument)
    c) A trident
    d) A lotus
    Answer: b) A Damaru (percussion instrument)
  436. Which region’s bronze sculptures show the influence of the 3rd century Amaravati style from Andhra Pradesh?
    a) Bengal
    b) Bihar
    c) Maharashtra
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: c) Maharashtra
  437. During which period did the Nalanda School of Bronze emerge?
    a) 5th century CE
    b) 7th century CE
    c) 9th century CE
    d) 11th century CE
    Answer: c) 9th century CE
  438. What is the unique feature of the bronze sculptures found in Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir from the 8th to 10th centuries?
    a) Detailed facial expressions
    b) Use of gold and silver inlays
    c) Different types of iconography of Vishnu images
    d) Larger-than-life sizes
    Answer: c) Different types of iconography of Vishnu images
  439. Which patron is noted for her support of Chola bronze work, particularly in the 10th century?
    a) Rani Durgavati
    b) Sembiyan Maha Devi
    c) Rani Rudrama Devi
    d) Ahilyabai Holkar
    Answer: b) Sembiyan Maha Devi
  440. Which districts in Maharashtra are the Katkari tribe primarily found?
    a) Pune, Nagpur, and Nashik
    b) Raigad, Palghar, Ratnagiri, and Thane
    c) Mumbai, Kolhapur, and Aurangabad
    d) Solapur, Amravati, and Satara
    Answer: b) Raigad, Palghar, Ratnagiri, and Thane
  441. The Katkari people are also known as:
    a) Gond
    b) Bhil
    c) Kathodis
    d) Santhal
    Answer: c) Kathodis
  442. The name ‘Katkari’ is derived from which activity?
    a) Hunting
    b) Making and bartering ‘Catechu’ from Khair tree
    c) Fishing
    d) Pottery
    Answer: b) Making and bartering ‘Catechu’ from Khair tree
  443. Apart from agricultural labor, what other activities do Katkari people engage in for their livelihood?
    a) Mining and weaving
    b) Selling firewood, fishing, coal making, and brick manufacturing
    c) Construction work and metalwork
    d) Teaching and healthcare
    Answer: b) Selling firewood, fishing, coal making, and brick manufacturing
  444. Which languages are spoken by the Katkari tribe?
    a) Hindi and Gujarati
    b) Marathi and Katkari language
    c) Telugu and Kannada
    d) Bengali and Odia
    Answer: b) Marathi and Katkari language
  445. The festival ‘Undir Navmi’ celebrated by the Katkari tribe is dedicated to which animal?
    a) Elephant
    b) Cow
    c) Rodent
    d) Tiger
    Answer: c) Rodent
  446. How did the Katkari tribe adapt their business during the COVID-19 pandemic?
    a) They relied on government aid exclusively
    b) They shifted to online mediums to market their products
    c) They ceased all business activities
    d) They migrated to urban areas for jobs
    Answer: b) They shifted to online mediums to market their products
  447. What is Giloy, which the Katkari tribe markets?
    a) A type of grain
    b) A medicinal plant
    c) A type of fish
    d) A variety of fruit
    Answer: b) A medicinal plant
  448. Under which scheme did the Katkari youth Sunil Pawar expand the market for local produce online?
    a) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
    b) Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY)
    c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
    d) Digital India Mission
    Answer: b) Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY)
  449. What classification does the Katkari tribe fall under as per the Ministry of Home Affairs?
    a) Scheduled Caste
    b) Scheduled Tribe
    c) Other Backward Class
    d) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)
    Answer: d) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)
  450. Which international organization is known for its role in promoting peace and security worldwide?
    A. World Health Organization (WHO)
    B. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    C. United Nations (UN)
    D. World Bank
    Answer: C. United Nations (UN)