Odia govt jobs   »   Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC...

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-6

The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.

Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-6 PDF Download

Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-6

  1. During the Somavamshi dynasty, the Mahasandhivigrahika held the position of:
    [A] Chief Minister
    [B] Commander in chief
    [C] Diplomat
    [D] Minister of war and peace
    Answer: D [Minister of war and peace]
  2. In the Bhauma-Kara period, Odisha had a commercial relationship with which regions?
    [A] Ceylon
    [B] China
    [C] South East Asia
    [D] All of the above
    Answer: D [All of the above]
  3. What was the role of the Mahakshapatalika during the Somavamshi dynasty?
    [A] Chief Minister
    [B] Preparing charter
    [C] Commander in chief
    [D] Minister of war and peace
    Answer: B [Preparing charter]
  4. Which industry was most significant during the Bhauma-Kara period?
    [A] Agriculture
    [B] Cloth manufacturing
    [C] Shipbuilding
    [D] Pottery
    Answer: B [Cloth manufacturing]
  5. What is the primary source of irrigation in Odisha?
    [A] Canals
    [B] Wells and Tubewells
    [C] Tank
    [D] None of the above
    Answer: B [Wells and Tubewells]
  6. Which lake in Odisha is known for its horse-shoe shape?
    [A] Chilika
    [B] Kolab
    [C] Ansupa
    [D] Tampara
    Answer: C [Ansupa]
  7. What is the length of Ansupa lake?
    [A] 1 km
    [B] 3 km
    [C] 5 km
    [D] 7 km
    Answer: C [5 km]
  8. Which of the following is NOT a major source of irrigation in Odisha?
    [A] Canals
    [B] Wells and Tubewells
    [C] Tanks
    [D] Rivers
    Answer: D [Rivers]
  9. Which river rises from the Amarkantak plateau along with the Narmada, the Son, and Arnadoh?
    [A] Narmada
    [B] Son
    [C] Mahanadi
    [D] Arnadoh
    Answer: C [Mahanadi]
  10. From which district of Chhattisgarh does the Mahanadi River rise?
    [A] Raigarh
    [B] Raipur
    [C] Dhamtari
    [D] Bilaspur
    Answer: B [Raipur]
  11. What is the total length of the Mahanadi River before it meets the Bay of Bengal?
    [A] 651 km
    [B] 751 km
    [C] 851 km
    [D] 951 km
    Answer: C [851 km]
  12. Which of the following is NOT a main tributary of the Mahanadi River?
    [A] Seonath
    [B] Jonk
    [C] Tapti
    [D] Mand
    Answer: C [Tapti]
  13. Which two states does the Mahanadi River flow through?
    [A] Chhattisgarh and Bihar
    [B] Chhattisgarh and Odisha
    [C] Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
    [D] Chhattisgarh and West Bengal
    Answer: B [Chhattisgarh and Odisha]
  14. What is the total length of the Mahanadi River?
    [A] 600 kilometers
    [B] 750 kilometers
    [C] 900 kilometers
    [D] 1050 kilometers
    Answer: C [900 kilometers]
  15. Which project is associated with the Mahanadi River and was the first major multipurpose river valley project after India’s independence in 1947?
    [A] Sardar Sarovar Dam
    [B] Bhakra Nangal Dam
    [C] Hirakud Dam
    [D] Tehri Dam
    Answer: C [Hirakud Dam]
  16. What recognition have seven items from Odisha, including Similipal Kai chutney and Kapdaganda shawl, received?
    a) UNESCO World Heritage status
    b) Geographical Indication (GI) label
    c) National Cultural Heritage designation
    d) Protected Designation of Origin (PDO) status
    Answer: b) Geographical Indication (GI) label
  17. Which unique ingredient is used in the preparation of Similipal Kai chutney?
    a) Red chili peppers
    b) Red weaver ants
    c) Saffron
    d) Lemongrass
    Answer: b) Red weaver ants
  18. What do the embroidered Kapdaganda shawls represent?
    a) Traditional dance forms of Odisha
    b) Folk tales from Odisha
    c) Cultural heritage of Odisha
    d) Religious practices in Odisha
    Answer: c) Cultural heritage of Odisha
  19. What distinguishes products with a Geographical Indication (GI) label?
    a) They are mass-produced for global markets
    b) They are exclusively manufactured by large corporations
    c) They are linked to a specific geographical area and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin
    d) They are not subject to any quality standards
    Answer: c) They are linked to a specific geographical area and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin
  20. Who is responsible for conferring the Geographical Indication (GI) status in India?
    a) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
    b) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
    c) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
    d) Ministry of Textiles
    Answer: c) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  21. Which factor does NOT determine the characteristics of soil?
    a) Parent rock materials
    b) Climate
    c) Vegetation
    d) Population density
    Answer: d) Population density
  22. What is the primary reason for the heterogeneity of parent rock materials in Odisha?
    a) Volcanic activity
    b) Glacial erosion
    c) Tectonic movement
    d) Weathering and erosion processes
    Answer: d) Weathering and erosion processes
  23. Which classification system divides Odisha soils into two groups based on relief features?
    a) Topographic classification
    b) Climatic classification
    c) Formation-based classification
    d) Relief-based classification
    Answer: d) Relief-based classification
  24. Which soil type in Odisha is characterized by the decomposition of silicate during rain?
    a) Laterite Soil
    b) Red and Yellow Soil
    c) Black Soil
    d) Brown Forest Soil
    Answer: a) Laterite Soil
  25. What is the predominant characteristic of Black Soil in Odisha?
    a) Low pH
    b) High nitrogen content
    c) Sandy texture
    d) Low potassium content
    Answer: a) Low pH
  26. Which district in Odisha is NOT mentioned as having Black Soil?
    a) Puri
    b) Ganjam
    c) Keonjhar
    d) Sambalpur
    Answer: c) Keonjhar
  27. What type of soil is formed by a mixture of eroded materials and is heterogeneous in character?
    a) Laterite Soil
    b) Residual Soil
    c) Red Soil
    d) Transported Soil
    Answer: d) Transported Soil
  28. What is the primary crop grown in areas with Red and Yellow Soil in Odisha?
    a) Wheat
    b) Rice
    c) Jowar
    d) Cotton
    Answer: b) Rice
  29. Which soil type covers the largest area of Odisha?
    a) Black Soil
    b) Red Soil
    c) Laterite Soil
    d) Brown Forest Soil
    Answer: b) Red Soil
  30. Which crop is NOT typically grown in Red Soil areas of Odisha?
    a) Rice
    b) Finger millets
    c) Sugarcane
    d) Wheat
    Answer: d) Wheat
  31. When was Kalinga conquered by Mahapadmananda?
    a) 261 BCE
    b) 100 BCE
    c) 350 BCE
    d) 350 CE
    Answer: c) 350 BCE
  32. During which year did the Kalinga War occur, leading to its conquest by Asoka?
    a) 100 BCE
    b) 261 BCE
    c) 350 BCE
    d) 639 CE
    Answer: b) 261 BCE
  33. Who established the Mahameghavahana dynasty around 100 BCE?
    a) Asoka
    b) Samudragupta
    c) Mahapadmananda
    d) Meghavahana
    Answer: d) Meghavahana
  34. In which year did Samudragupta conquer Kalinga?
    a) 261 BCE
    b) 350 BCE
    c) 100 BCE
    d) 350 CE
    Answer: d) 350 CE
  35. When did Hiuen-Tsang visit Odra/Udra?
    a) 639 CE
    b) 650 CE
    c) 845 CE
    d) 882 CE
    Answer: a) 639 CE
  36. During which year was the Parashurameshvara temple built by Sailodbhava rulers?
    a) 639 CE
    b) 650 CE
    c) 845 CE
    d) 882 CEAnswer: b) 650 CE
  37. Who was the first female ruler of the region, reigning in 845 CE?
    a) Tribhuvana Mahadevi
    b) Parashurameshvara
    c) Hiuen-Tsang
    d) Janmejaya I
    Answer: a) Tribhuvana Mahadevi
  38. In which year did Janmejaya I establish the Somavamsis Dynasty?
    a) 639 CE
    b) 650 CE
    c) 845 CE
    d) 882 CE
    Answer: d) 882 CE
  39. When was the Lingaraj temple built by Somavamsi rulers?
    a) 350 BCE
    b) 261 BCE
    c) 1100 CE
    d) 350 CE
    Answer: c) 1100 CE
  40. Which ruler conquered Kalinga around 350 BCE?
    a) Mahapadmananda
    b) Asoka
    c) Meghavahana
    d) Samudragupta
    Answer: a) Mahapadmananda
  41. During which dynasty’s reign was the Parashurameshvara temple built?
    a) Mahameghavahana dynasty
    b) Somavamsis Dynasty
    c) Sailodbhava rulers
    d) Somavamsi rulers
    Answer: c) Sailodbhava rulers
  42. Who visited Odra/Udra around 639 CE?
    a) Parashurameshvara
    b) Tribhuvana Mahadevi
    c) Janmejaya I
    d) Hiuen-Tsang
    Answer: d) Hiuen-Tsang
  43. In which century was the Kalinga War fought?
    a) 3rd century BCE
    b) 1st century BCE
    c) 7th century CE
    d) 9th century CE
    Answer: a) 3rd century BCE
  44. King Jajati Keshari who built the Lingaraj temple around 1100 CE wasof which dynasty?
    a) Mahapadmananda
    b) Asoka
    c) Meghavahana
    d) Somavamsi
    Answer: d) Somavamsi
  45. During whose reign was the first female ruler, Tribhuvana Mahadevi, in power?
    a) Mahapadmananda
    b) Samudragupta
    c) Sailodbhava rulers
    d) Somavamsis Dynasty
    Answer: d) Somavamsis Dynasty
  46. Which ruler of the Kalinga Kingdom is mentioned in the Buddhist text Mahagovinda Suttanta?
    a) Manimat
    b) Virasena
    c) Chitrangada
    d) Sattabhu
    Answer: d) Sattabhu
  47. Who founded the Second Kalinga dynasty according to the Chullakalinga Jataka and Kalingabodhi Jataka?
    a) Mahakalinga
    b) Dandaki
    c) Chullakalinga
    d) Kalinga II
    Answer: c) Chullakalinga
  48. Which ruler of the Suryavamsha of Kalinga is known for being exiled and establishing the first kingdom Dheeva Maari?
    a) Virasena
    b) Sudatta
    c) Brahmaadittiya
    d) Avakinnayo Karakandu
    Answer: a) Brahmaadittiya
  49. Who briefly annexed Kalinga under the Nanda Empire?
    a) Mahapadma Nanda
    b) Pandhuka
    c) Dashasidkhaka
    d) Mahendra
    Answer: a) Mahapadma Nanda
  50. Who was the founder of the Mahameghavahana dynasty?
    a) Sobhanaraja
    b) Mahamegha Vahana
    c) Vasu
    d) Kharavela
    Answer: b) Mahamegha Vahana
  51. Which ruler of the Mahameghavahana dynasty is most well known?
    a) Vasupala
    b) Kharavela
    c) Vakradeva
    d) VadukaAnswer: b) Kharavela
  52. Which dynasty succeeded the Mahameghavahana Empire and ruled until 350 CE?
    a) Murunda dynasty
    b) Vishnukundina Dynasty
    c) Somavamshi dynasty
    d) Nala dynasty
    Answer: c) Somavamshi dynasty
  53. Which dynasty originated in South Kosala and eventually controlled most of modern Odisha?
    a) Rajarsitulyakula
    b) Sharabhapuriya dynasty
    c) Bhaumakara dynasty
    d) Mathara dynasty
    Answer: c) Bhaumakara dynasty
  54. Which dynasty controlled the region known as South Toshali or Kalinga-rashtra during the second half of the 6th century?
    a) Vigraha dynasty
    b) Mudgalas dynasty
    c) Somvanshi dynasty
    d) Sharabhapuriya dynasty
    Answer: a) Vigraha dynasty
  55. Which dynasty controlled the region of North Toshali, with the river Mahanadi as the border between North and South Toshali?
    a) Rajarsitulyakula
    b) Nandodbhavas of Airavatta Mandala
    c) Bhaumakara dynasty
    d) Sharabhapuriya dynasty
    Answer: b) Nandodbhavas of Airavatta Mandala
  56. Who is considered the earliest known independent king of the Eastern Ganga dynasty?
    a) Mittavarman
    b) Indravarman I
    c) Samantavarman
    d) HastivarmanAnswer: b) Indravarman I
  57. Which ruler of the Eastern Ganga dynasty is famous for building the Konark temple?
    a) Rajaraja Deva I
    b) Anangabhima Deva II
    c) Narasimha Deva I
    d) Bhanu Deva I
    Answer: c) Narasimha Deva I
  58. Which dynasty ruled parts of Odisha between the 8th and 10th centuries, known as Toshala?
    a) Somavamshi dynasty
    b) Eastern Ganga dynasty
    c) Bhauma-Kara dynasty
    d) Vishnukundina Dynasty
    Answer: c) Bhauma-Kara dynasty
  59. Who is credited with reuniting the Bhauma-Kara kingdom and beginning the unification of historically distinct regions like Odra, Toshala, Kongoda, and Utkala?
    a) Shantikara I
    b) Tribhuvana Mahadevi I
    c) Shivakara I
    d) Rajamalla
    Answer: b) Tribhuvana Mahadevi I
  60. Which dynasty ruled parts of present-day Odisha between the 9th and 12th centuries and is also known as the Keshari dynasty?
    a) Somavamshi dynasty
    b) Eastern Ganga dynasty
    c) Bhauma-Kara dynasty
    d) Vishnukundina Dynasty
    Answer: a) Somavamshi dynasty
  61. Who was the Mughal emperor during the time when Sulaiman Khan Karrani established Muslim rule in Odisha?
    A) Babur
    B) Akbar
    C) Jahangir
    D) Shah Jahan
    Answer: B) Akbar
  62. Which ancient Indian king is known for his rock edicts promoting Buddhist principles?
    A) Ashoka
    B) Chandragupta Maurya
    C) Bindusara
    D) Kanishka
    Answer: A) Ashoka
  63. Which river is associated with the ancient city of Kalinga?
    A) Ganges
    B) Godavari
    C) Mahanadi
    D) Yamuna
    Answer: C) Mahanadi
  64. Who founded the Gajapati dynasty in Odisha?
    A) Emperor Ashoka
    B) Emperor Akbar
    C) Emperor Kapilendra Deva
    D) Emperor Chandragupta Maurya
    Answer: C) Emperor Kapilendra Deva
  65. In which century was the Gajapati dynasty established in Odisha?
    A) 10th century
    B) 12th century
    C) 15th century
    D) 17th century
    Answer: C) 15th century
  66. What was the title of Emperor Kapilendra Deva, the founder of the Gajapati dynasty?
    A) Maharaja
    B) Chola
    C) Gajapati
    D) Sultan
    Answer: C) Gajapati
  67. Who was the leader of the Sambalpur revolt, which ended with his death in Asirgarh Jail?
    A) Surendra Sai
    B) Chhabila Sai
    C) Satya Bhakta
    D) Nana Saheb
    Answer: A) Surendra Sai
  68. On which date did the Salt Satyagraha, led by Gopabandhu Chaudhury, reach Inchudi?
    A) 6th April
    B) 8th April
    C) 12th April
    D) 16th April
    Answer: C) 12th April
  69. What was the chronological order of the following events?
    i) Formation of Utkal Union Conference
    ii) Formation of Utkal Union Samillani
    iii) Peasant revolt at Kanika
    iv) Formation of Satyabadi school
    A) iii) ii) iv) i)
    B) i) ii) iv) iii)
    C) i) ii) iii) iv)
    D) iii) i) iv) ii)
    Answer: B) i) ii) iv) iii)
  70. Who led the Salt Satyagraha in Odisha in 1930?
    A) Mahatma Gandhi
    B) Gopabandhu Chaudhury
    C) Subhas Chandra Bose
    D) Bhagat Singh
    Answer: B) Gopabandhu Chaudhury
  71. What was the objective of the Utkal Union Conference formed in 1903?
    A) To demand separate statehood for Odisha
    B) To promote agricultural reforms
    C) To fight against British imperialism
    D) To unify various social and political groups in Odisha
    Answer: D) To unify various social and political groups in Odisha
  72. Which place was the center of the peasant revolt at Kanika in 1922?
    A) Sambalpur
    B) Cuttack
    C) Puri
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: D) Ganjam
  73. What was the significance of the Satyabadi School formed in 1909?
    A) It promoted traditional Indian art forms
    B) It advocated for social reforms and education in Odisha
    C) It was a center for revolutionary activities against the British rule
    D) It focused on promoting Sanskrit literature
    Answer: B) It advocated for social reforms and education in Odisha
  74. Who was known as the “Lion of Sambalpur” for his leadership in the revolt against the British?
    A) Surendra Sai
    B) Gopabandhu Chaudhury
    C) Madhusudan Das
    D) Lala Lajpat Rai
    Answer: A) Surendra Sai
  75. Where is the Animal Disease Research Institute (ADRI) located in Odisha?
    A) Balasore
    B) Kandhamal
    C) Cuttack
    D) Bhadrak
    Answer: C) Cuttack
  76. Over which river is the Patrapur bridge situated in Odisha?
    A) Alakananda
    B) Brahmani
    C) Rushikulya
    D) Baitarani
    Answer: B) Brahmani
  77. Which waterfalls in Odisha is also known as “Matsya Tirtha”?
    A) Badaghagara
    B) Hundru
    C) Duduma
    D) Bhimkund
    Answer: C) Duduma
  78. Where is Badaghagara waterfall located in Odisha?
    A) Cuttack district
    B) Mayurbhanj district
    C) Keonjhar district
    D) Kendujhar district
    Answer: D) Kendujhar district
  79. Which district in Odisha is known for the famous Sun Temple at Konark?
    A) Puri
    B) Cuttack
    C) Khordha
    D) Ganjam
    Answer: A) Puri
  80. In which district of Odisha is the famous Hirakud Dam located?
    A) Sambalpur
    B) Balangir
    C) Bargarh
    D) Angul
    Answer: A) Sambalpur
  81. For how many more years has the Odisha government extended the KALIA scheme?
    A) 1 year
    B) 2 years
    C) 3 years
    D) 4 years
    Answer: C) 3 years
  82. What does KALIA stand for?
    A) Krushak Assistance for Land Improvement and Agriculture
    B) Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
    C) Krishi Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
    D) Krishi Assistance for Land Improvement and Agriculture
    Answer: B) Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
  83. What is the total budget outlay sanctioned for the KALIA scheme over the next three years?
    A) Rs 5,029.70 crore
    B) Rs 6,029.70 crore
    C) Rs 7,029.70 crore
    D) Rs 8,029.70 crore
    Answer: B) Rs 6,029.70 crore
  84. How much additional financial assistance will landless agricultural households receive under the extended KALIA scheme?
    A) Rs 1,000
    B) Rs 1,500
    C) Rs 2,000
    D) Rs 2,500
    Answer: C) Rs 2,000
  85. What is the total amount allocated by the Centre for Odisha’s railway infrastructure development for the 2024-25 fiscal year?
    A) ₹10,000 crore
    B) ₹10,536 crore
    C) ₹11,000 crore
    D) ₹9,500 crore
    Answer: B) ₹10,536 crore
  86. What was the average annual outlay for Odisha in the railway sector between 2009 and 2014?
    A) ₹10,000 crore
    B) ₹838 crore
    C) ₹12,000 crore
    D) ₹500 crore
    Answer: B) ₹838 crore
  87. How many kilometers of new tracks were laid in Odisha in the fiscal year 2023-24?
    A) 100km
    B) 300km
    C) 473km
    D) 200km
    Answer: C) 473km
  88. Which state in India has recently declared the Gupteswar Forest as a Biodiversity-Heritage Site?
    A) West Bengal
    B) Odisha
    C) Kerala
    D) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: B) Odisha
  89. What has the Gupteswar Forest been declared as per the recent government notification?
    A) Wildlife Sanctuary
    B) National Park
    C) Biodiversity-Heritage Site (BHS)
    D) Tiger Reserve
    Answer: C) Biodiversity-Heritage Site (BHS)
  90. Where is the Gupteswar Forest located within Odisha?
    A) Koraput district
    B) Puri district
    C) Cuttack district
    D) Sundargarh district
    Answer: A) Koraput district
  91. When did Odisha become a separate province by the Government of British India?
    A) 1936
    B) 1947
    C) 1950
    D) 1962
    Answer: A) 1936
  92. What was significant about Odisha’s separation as a province in 1936?
    A) It was based on religious lines
    B) It was based on linguistic lines
    C) It was based on cultural lines
    D) It was based on geographical lines
    Answer: B) It was based on linguistic lines
  93. Who was the first pre-Independence Leader of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Krushna Chandra Gajapati
    B) Harekrushna Mahatab
    C) Nandini Satpathy
    D) Mukunda Prasad Das
    Answer: A) Krushna Chandra Gajapati
  94. What is the current strength of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) 100 members
    B) 120 members
    C) 147 members
    D) 200 members
    Answer: C) 147 members
  95. According to Article 169 of the Indian Constitution, what type of legislature does Odisha have?
    A) Bicameral
    B) Unicameral
    C) Tricameral
    D) Quadricameral
    Answer: B) Unicameral
  96. Who inaugurated the building of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Mahatma Gandhi
    B) Jawaharlal Nehru
    C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
    D) Biju Patnaik
    Answer: C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
  97. What is the term of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) 2 years
    B) 3 years
    C) 4 years
    D) 5 years
    Answer: D) 5 years
  98. Who was the first post-Independence Leader of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Krushna Chandra Gajapati
    B) Harekrushna Mahatab
    C) Nandini Satpathy
    D) Mukunda Prasad Das
    Answer: B) Harekrushna Mahatab
  99. What is the primary duty of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Judicial Review
    B) Passing Bills
    C) Executive Orders
    D) Foreign Affairs
    Answer: B) Passing Bills
  100. Who presides over all the meetings of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Chief Minister
    B) Governor
    C) Speaker
    D) Deputy Speaker
    Answer: C) Speaker
  101. What is the minimum age requirement to become a member of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) 18 years
    B) 21 years
    C) 25 years
    D) 30 years
    Answer: C) 25 years
  102. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Odisha Legislative Assembly to have either Unicameral or Bicameral Legislature?
    A) Article 169
    B) Article 370
    C) Article 356
    D) Article 371
    Answer: A) Article 169
  103. Who was the first post-Independence Speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
    A) Mukunda Prasad Das
    B) Nanda Kishore Das
    C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
    D) Biju Patnaik
    Answer: B) Nanda Kishore Das
  104. What type of legislature does Odisha have?
    A) Bicameral
    B) Unicameral
    C) Tricameral
    D) Quadricameral
    Answer: B) Unicameral
  105. What is the role of the Odisha Legislative Assembly in framing laws?
    A) Judicial Review
    B) Enforcement
    C) Passing Bills
    D) Investigating Crimes
    Answer: C) Passing Bills
  106. Who is the Chief Executive head of Odisha state?
    A) Chief Minister
    B) Governor
    C) President
    D) Prime Minister
    Answer: B) Governor
  107. According to the Indian Constitution, who appoints the Governor of a state?
    A) Prime Minister
    B) Chief Minister
    C) President
    D) State Legislative Assembly
    Answer: C) President
  108. Who was the first post-Independence Governor of Odisha?
    A) John Austin Hubback
    B) Kailash Nath Katju
    C) Chandulal Madhavlal Trivedi
    D) Harekrushna Mahatab
    Answer: B) Kailash Nath Katju
  109. What is the minimum age requirement for becoming Chief Minister of Odisha?
    A) 18 years
    B) 21 years
    C) 25 years
    D) 30 years
    Answer: C) 25 years
  110. Who was the first woman Chief Minister of Odisha?
    A) Nandini Satpathy
    B) Harekrushna Mahatab
    C) Naveen Patnaik
    D) Janaki Ballabh Patnaik
    Answer: A) Nandini Satpathy
  111. Who is the longest-serving Chief Minister of Odisha?
    A) Harekrushna Mahatab
    B) Nabakrushna Choudhury
    C) Naveen Patnaik
    D) Biju Patnaik
    Answer: C) Naveen Patnaik
  112. What is the tenure of Shri Harekrushna Mahatab as Chief Minister of Odisha?
    A) 4 years
    B) 2 years
    C) 5 years
    D) 3 years
    Answer: B) 2 years
  113. Who was the Chief Minister of Odisha when India got independence in 1947?
    A) Harekrushna Mahatab
    B) Nandini Satpathy
    C) Krushna Chandra Gajapati Narayan Deo
    D) Biju Patnaik
    Answer: C) Krushna Chandra Gajapati Narayan Deo
  114. Who is responsible for appointing all important officials of the state in Odisha?
    A) Chief Minister
    B) President
    C) Governor
    D) Prime Minister
    Answer: C) Governor
  115. What is the primary role of the Executive branch of the Government?
    A) Making laws
    B) Interpreting laws
    C) Enforcing laws
    D) Reviewing laws
    Answer: C) Enforcing laws
  116. Who becomes the representative of the President when an Emergency is enforced in Odisha?
    A) Chief Minister
    B) Advocate General
    C) Governor
    D) Chairman of State Public Service Commission
    Answer: C) Governor
  117. What is the significance of the separation of powers in the Government?
    A) It centralizes power in one branch.
    B) It prevents the abuse of power by any one branch.
    C) It limits the power of the Legislature.
    D) It reduces the role of the Judiciary.
    Answer: B) It prevents the abuse of power by any one branch.
  118. Who holds the real powers in the Executive dealings of a state?
    A) Governor
    B) Chief Minister
    C) President
    D) State Legislature
    Answer: B) Chief Minister
  119. What is the function of the Chief Minister of Odisha according to the Indian Constitution?
    A) He/she is the nominal head of the state.
    B) He/she executes all Executive actions of the state.
    C) He/she appoints all important officials of the state.
    D) He/she represents the President during an Emergency.
    Answer: B) He/she executes all Executive actions of the state.
  120. According to Article 213 of the Indian Constitution, who has the power to make laws through ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature?
    A) Governor
    B) Chief Minister
    C) President
    D) Prime Minister
    Answer: A) Governor
  121. Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to its frequent floods?
    A) Ganga
    B) Yamuna
    C) Brahmaputra
    D) Kosi
    Answer: D) Kosi
  122. The Thar Desert is located in which Indian state?
    A) Rajasthan
    B) Gujarat
    C) Punjab
    D) Haryana
    Answer: A) Rajasthan
  123. What is the highest peak in India?
    A) Kanchenjunga
    B) Nanda Devi
    C) Mount Everest
    D) K2
    Answer: A) Kanchenjunga
  124. Which Indian state is known as the “Land of Five Rivers”?
    A) Punjab
    B) Haryana
    C) Uttar Pradesh
    D) Bihar
    Answer: A) Punjab
  125. Which river is known as the “Lifeline of Kerala”?
    A) Godavari
    B) Krishna
    C) Kaveri
    D) Periyar
    Answer: D) Periyar
  126. The Aravalli Range is the oldest mountain range in India. Which state does it primarily traverse?
    A) Rajasthan
    B) Madhya Pradesh
    C) Maharashtra
    D) Gujarat
    Answer: A) Rajasthan
  127. Which of the following is not a tributary of the Ganga River?
    A) Yamuna
    B) Ghaghara
    C) Brahmaputra
    D) Son
    Answer: C) Brahmaputra
  128. The Western Ghats are also known as?
    A) Sahyadris
    B) Purvanchal
    C) Aravalli
    D) Vindhya
    Answer: A) Sahyadris
  129. Which Indian state is not situated in the Eastern Ghats region?
    A) Odisha
    B) Tamil Nadu
    C) Andhra Pradesh
    D) Karnataka
    Answer: D) Karnataka
  130. Which of the following is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in India’s Western Ghats?
    A) Kaziranga National Park
    B) Sundarbans National Park
    C) Keoladeo National Park
    D) Western Ghats
    Answer: D) Western Ghats
  131. Which of the following Indian states does not share a border with Bangladesh?
    A) West Bengal
    B) Assam
    C) Mizoram
    D) Manipur
    Answer: D) Manipur
  132. The Jog Falls, one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India, is located in which state?
    A) Karnataka
    B) Maharashtra
    C) Tamil Nadu
    D) Kerala
    Answer: A) Karnataka
  133. The Indian state of Sikkim shares its border with which of the following countries?
    A) Nepal
    B) Bhutan
    C) China
    D) All of the above
    Answer: D) All of the above
  134. Which Indian city is located on the banks of the Brahmaputra River?
    A) Guwahati
    B) Patna
    C) Kolkata
    D) Varanasi
    Answer: A) Guwahati
  135. The Konkan Coast stretches along which Indian states?
    A) Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka
    B) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa
    C) Kerala, Karnataka, Goa
    D) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
    Answer: A) Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka
  136. Which Indian state is known as the “Spice Garden of India”?
    A) Kerala
    B) Karnataka
    C) Tamil Nadu
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: A) Kerala
  137. The famous hill station of Ooty is located in which Indian state?
    A) Tamil Nadu
    B) Karnataka
    C) Kerala
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: A) Tamil Nadu
  138. Which river is known as the “Dakshin Ganga” (South Ganga) in India?
    A) Godavari
    B) Krishna
    C) Kaveri
    D) Tungabhadra
    Answer: C) Kaveri
  139. The Dachigam National Park, known for its population of the Hangul (Kashmir stag), is located in which Indian state?
    A) Jammu and Kashmir
    B) Himachal Pradesh
    C) Uttarakhand
    D) Arunachal Pradesh
    Answer: A) Jammu and Kashmir
  140. Which Indian state is known as the “Land of the Rising Sun”?
    A) Arunachal Pradesh
    B) Nagaland
    C) Mizoram
    D) Manipur
    Answer: A) Arunachal Pradesh
  141. Which of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve in India?
    A) Sundarbans
    B) Nanda Devi
    C) Dudhwa
    D) Kaziranga
    Answer: D) Kaziranga
  142. Which of the following is the largest freshwater lake in India?
    A) Wular lake
    B) Dal Lake
    C) Vembanad Lake
    D) Loktak Lake
    Answer: A) Wular lake
  143. The Deccan Plateau is primarily located in which Indian states?
    A) Telangana, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
    B) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
    C) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
    D) Bihar, West Bengal, Odisha, Jharkhand
    Answer: A) Telangana, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
  144. Which of the following Indian states does not have a coastline?
    A) Maharashtra
    B) Gujarat
    C) Telangana
    D) Kerala
    Answer: C) Telangana
  145. The hill station of Munnar is located in which Indian state?
    A) Kerala
    B) Tamil Nadu
    C) Karnataka
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: A) Kerala
  146. Which Indian state is known as the “Land of White Elephants”?
    A) Assam
    B) Meghalaya
    C) Thailand
    D) Mizoram
    Answer: C) Thailand
  147. Which river is known as the “Tributary of Death” due to its dangerous currents?
    A) Brahmaputra
    B) Yamuna
    C) Shyok River
    D) Betwa
    Answer: C) Shyok River
  148. The Silent Valley National Park is located in which Indian state?
    A) Kerala
    B) Tamil Nadu
    C) Karnataka
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: A) Kerala
  149. Which Indian city is situated on the banks of the Sabarmati River?
    A) Ahmedabad
    B) Surat
    C) Vadodara
    D) Rajkot
    Answer: A) Ahmedabad
  150. The famous “Valley of Flowers” National Park is located in which Indian state?
    A) Himachal Pradesh
    B) Uttarakhand
    C) Jammu and Kashmir
    D) Sikkim
    Answer: B) Uttarakhand
  151. Which of the following diseases are caused due to a virus?
    [A] Ebola
    [B] AIDS
    [C] SARS
    [D] All the above
    Correct Answer: [D] All the above
  152. Name the virus that is transmitted through the biting of infected animals, birds, and insects to a human?
    [A] Rabies Virus
    [B] Ebola Virus
    [C] Flavivirus
    [D] All the above
    Correct Answer: [C] Flavivirus
  153. Based on host range, viruses are classified into:
    [A] Bacteriophage
    [B] Insect virus
    [C] Stem Virus
    [D] Both A and B
    Correct Answer:[D] Both A and B
  154. In the host cell, replication of RNA virus took place in…
    [A] Nucleus
    [B] Cytoplasm
    [C] Mitochondria
    [D] Centriole
    Correct Answer: [B] Cytoplasm
  155. Which of the following statement is correct about viruses?
    [A] Viruses do not contain a ribosome.
    [B] Viruses can make protein.
    [C] Viruses can be categorised by their shapes.
    [D] Both A and C are correct
    Correct Answer: [D] Both A and C are correct
  156. Name the virus that covers himself with a modified section of the cell membrane and create a protective lipid envelope?
    [A] Influenza virus
    [B] HIV
    [C] Neither A nor B
    [D] Both A and B
    Correct Answer: [D] Both A and B
  157. A virus can spread through:
    [A] Contaminated food or water
    [B] Touch
    [C] Coughing
    [D] All the above
    Correct Answer: [D] All the above
  158. After which period virus replicates in the body and starts to affect the host?
    [A] Incubation period
    [B] Uncoating
    [C] Penetration
    [D] None of the above
    Correct Answer: [A] Incubation period
  159. Double-stranded DNA is found in which viruses?
    [A] Poxviruses
    [B] Poliomyelitis
    [C] Influenza viruses
    [D] None of the above
    Correct Answer: [A] Poxviruses
  160. A virus is made up of a DNA or RNA genome inside a protein shell known as:
    [A] Capsid
    [B] Host
    [C] Envelope
    [D] Zombies
    Correct Answer: [A] Capsid
  161. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental force in nature?
    [A] Gravity
    [B] Magnetism
    [C] Strong nuclear force
    [D] Electromagnetic force
    Correct Answer: [B] Magnetism
  162. What is the chemical symbol for the element with atomic number 6?
    [A] Fe
    [B] C
    [C] Au
    [D] H
    Correct Answer: [B] C
  163. Which of the following is NOT a renewable source of energy?
    [A] Solar
    [B] Wind
    [C] Coal
    [D] Hydroelectric
    Correct Answer: [C] Coal
  164. What is the unit of electric current?
    [A] Watt
    [B] Volt
    [C] Ampere
    [D] Ohm
    Correct Answer: [C] Ampere
  165. Which of the following is NOT a type of electromagnetic radiation?
    [A] X-rays
    [B] Microwaves
    [C] Sound waves
    [D] Gamma rays
    Correct Answer: [C] Sound waves
  166. Which type of eclipse occurs when the Moon moves through the outer part of the Earth’s shadow?
    [A] Partial lunar Eclipse
    [B] Penumbral lunar Eclipse
    [C] Total lunar Eclipse
    [D] Central lunar Eclipse
    Correct Answer: B [Penumbral lunar Eclipse]
  167. Where is the Asteroid Belt situated?
    [A] Between Jupiter and Saturn
    [B] Between Mars and Jupiter
    [C] Between Saturn and Neptune
    [D] Between Mercury and Venus
    Correct Answer: B [Between Mars and Jupiter]
  168. What is the process by which green plants and some other organisms use sunlight to synthesize foods with carbon dioxide and water?
    [A] Respiration
    [B] Photosynthesis
    [C] Fermentation
    [D] Combustion
    Correct Answer: B [USA]
  169. In which country is the Johnson Space Center’s Thermal Vacuum Chamber located?
    [A] Russia
    [B] USA
    [C] Australia
    [D] Israel
    Correct Answer: B [Photosynthesis]
  170. What is the SI unit of electric current?
    [A] Volt
    [B] Watt
    [C] Ampere
    [D] Ohm
    Correct Answer: C [Ampere]
  171. In which country is the Johnson Space Center’s Thermal Vacuum Chamber located?
    [A] Russia
    [B] USA
    [C] Australia
    [D] Israel
    Correct Answer: B [USA]
  172. Which of the following Vitamin is essential for the formation of collagen?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin B
    [C] Vitamin C
    [D] Vitamin D
    Correct Answer: C [Vitamin C]
  173. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Vitamin C?
    [A] Only Vitamin C is to be taken externally, all others are produced in the human body.
    [B] Vitamin C is the only vitamin which is also a hormone.
    [C] Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C.
    [D] Vitamin C is a water-soluble vitamin.
    Correct Answer: B [Vitamin C is the only vitamin which is also a hormone.]
  174. What is the range of masses involved in the study of Physics?
    [A] 10^-19 kg to 10^38 kg
    [B] 10^-30 kg to 10^55 kg
    [C] 10^-30 kg to 10^30 kg
    [D] 10^-19 kg to 10^55 kg
    Correct Answer: B [10^-30 kg to 10^55 kg]
  175. The Kinetic energy of a satellite is maximum in which of the following conditions?
    [A] when the satellite is at perigee
    [B] when the satellite is at apogee
    [C] it is equal at perigee and apogee
    [D] None of the above
    Correct Answer: A [when the satellite is at perigee]
  176. What is the SI unit of viscosity?
    [A] candela
    [B] poiseiulle
    [C] Newton/m
    [D] No units
    Correct Answer: B [poiseiulle]
  177. Which of the following is NOT a type of electromagnetic radiation?
    [A] Gamma rays
    [B] X-rays
    [C] Sound waves
    [D] Ultraviolet rays
    Correct Answer: C [Sound waves]
  178. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
    [A] Volt
    [B] Ampere
    [C] Coulomb
    [D] Ohm
    Correct Answer: C [Coulomb]
  179. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
    [A] Coal
    [B] Natural Gas
    [C] Solar
    [D] Petroleum
    Correct Answer: C [Solar]
  180. What is the speed of light in a vacuum?
    [A] 3 x 10^6 m/s
    [B] 3 x 10^7 m/s
    [C] 3 x 10^8 m/s
    [D] 3 x 10^9 m/s
    Correct Answer:[C] 3 x 10^8 m/s
  181. Which syndrome is caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21?
    [A] Turner syndrome
    [B] Down syndrome
    [C] Klinefelter syndrome
    [D] Cri du chat syndrome
    Correct Answer: B [Down syndrome]
    Notes: Down’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21.
  182. Which spice is derived from the aromatic dried flower buds of a tree?
    [A] Black pepper
    [B] Clove
    [C] Cumin
    [D] Cardamom
    Correct Answer: B [Clove]
    Notes: Cloves are aromatic dried flower buds of a tree, primarily harvested in Indonesia, Madagascar, Zanzibar, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
  183. Which vitamin is known as the “antisterility vitamin”?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: C [Vitamin E]
    Notes: Vitamin E is called the antisterility vitamin and is a fat-soluble vitamin found naturally in some foods.
  184. Which infectious disease is caused by a virus and affects the salivary glands?
    [A] Measles
    [B] Rubella
    [C] Mumps
    [D] Chickenpox
    Correct Answer: C [Mumps]
    Notes: Mumps is a viral infection that affects the salivary glands and is easily preventable by vaccination.
  185. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: D [Vitamin K]
    Notes: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and is found in foods like green leafy vegetables and dairy products.
  186. Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?
    [A] Influenza
    [B] Tuberculosis
    [C] AIDS
    [D] Hepatitis A
    Correct Answer: B [Tuberculosis]
    Notes: Tuberculosis is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
  187. Which organ in the human body produces insulin?
    [A] Liver
    [B] Pancreas
    [C] Kidney
    [D] Spleen
    Correct Answer: B [Pancreas]
    Notes: Insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels, is produced by the pancreas.
  188. Which of the following is NOT a primary color in the subtractive color model?
    [A] Red
    [B] Green
    [C] Blue
    [D] Yellow
    Correct Answer: D [Yellow]
    Notes: In the subtractive color model, the primary colors are cyan, magenta, and yellow.
  189. Which vitamin is commonly found in nuts, mangoes, papayas, and oily fish?
    [A] Vitamin B1
    [B] Vitamin C
    [C] Vitamin D
    [D] Vitamin A
    Correct Answer: D [Vitamin A]
    Notes: Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is commonly found in nuts, mangoes, papayas, tomatoes, leafy greens, oily fish, apricots, etc. Deficiency symptoms include dry skin and trouble seeing in the dark.
  190. What is the scientific name for Vitamin B1?
    [A] Riboflavin
    [B] Thiamine
    [C] Niacin
    [D] Pantothenic acid
    Correct Answer: B [Thiamine]
    Notes: Vitamin B1 is scientifically known as thiamine and is commonly found in corn, cashews, milk, dates, fresh fruits, peas, beans, etc. Deficiency symptoms include weakness and problems moving around.
  191. Which vitamin deficiency can lead to hair loss and feeling tired?
    [A] Vitamin B3
    [B] Vitamin B6
    [C] Vitamin B2
    [D] Vitamin B9
    Correct Answer: C [Vitamin B2]
    Notes: Vitamin B2, also known as riboflavin, can lead to hair loss and feeling tired if deficient. It is commonly found in cheese, yogurt, spinach, red meat, almonds, etc.
  192. Which vitamin is found in leafy greens, citrus fruits, and beans?
    [A] Vitamin B12
    [B] Vitamin B9
    [C] Vitamin C
    [D] Vitamin E
    Correct Answer: B [Vitamin B9]
    Notes: Vitamin B9, also known as folic acid, is found in leafy greens, citrus fruits, beans, beetroot, etc. Deficiency symptoms include weakness, constant tiredness, and nerve problems.
  193. What deficiency symptom is associated with Vitamin C?
    [A] Hair loss
    [B] Fatigue
    [C] Muscle pain
    [D] Skin roughness
    Correct Answer: D [Skin roughness]
    Notes: Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, deficiency symptoms include skin roughness, loss of appetite, and delayed wound healing. It is found in citrus fruits, goat milk, chestnuts, broccoli, grapefruit, etc.
  194. Which vitamin is commonly found in cod liver oil and egg yolk?
    [A] Vitamin D
    [B] Vitamin E
    [C] Vitamin K
    [D] Vitamin A
    Correct Answer: A [Vitamin D]
    Notes: Vitamin D, also known as calciferol, is commonly found in cod liver oil, beef, chicken, cereals, egg yolk, etc. Deficiency symptoms include digestive problems and difficulty eating certain foods.
  195. Which vitamin deficiency leads to problems with bone health and growth?
    [A] Vitamin C
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin K
    [D] Vitamin B12
    Correct Answer: C [Vitamin K]
    Notes: Vitamin K, also known as phytonadione, deficiency symptoms include weak bones and retarded growth. It is commonly found in mangoes, lamb, beef, grapes, tomatoes, etc.
  196. Which vitamin deficiency can result in feeling tired and experiencing dizziness?
    [A] Vitamin B6
    [B] Vitamin B12
    [C] Vitamin B5
    [D] Vitamin B3
    Correct Answer: B [Vitamin B12]
    Notes: Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to fatigue and dizziness. It is commonly found in poultry, eggs, fish, milk, etc.
  197. What is the common name for Vitamin A?
    [A] Retinol
    [B] Thiamine
    [C] Riboflavin
    [D] Niacin
    Correct Answer: A [Retinol]
    Note: Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is commonly found in nuts, mangoes, papayas, tomatoes, leafy greens, oily fish, apricots, etc. Deficiency symptoms include dry skin and trouble seeing in the dark.
  198. Which vitamin is sourced from broccoli, sweet potatoes, mushrooms, and beans?
    [A] Vitamin B5
    [B] Vitamin B6
    [C] Vitamin B7
    [D] Vitamin B9
    Correct Answer: A [Vitamin B5]
    Note: Vitamin B5, also known as pantothenic acid, is sourced from foods like broccoli, sweet potatoes, mushrooms, beans, etc. Deficiency symptoms include headache, fatigue, irritability, and gastrointestinal issues.
  199. Which vitamin deficiency can result in hair thinning, brittle nails, and itchy skin?
    [A] Vitamin B7
    [B] Vitamin B12
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin D
    Correct Answer: A [Vitamin B7]
    Note: Vitamin B7, also known as biotin, deficiency symptoms include thinning hair, brittle nails, and itchy skin. It is found in avocado, sweet potato, nuts, seeds, eggs, fish, etc.
  200. Which vitamin deficiency can lead to muscle pain, impaired nerve function, and trouble seeing?
    [A] Vitamin B9
    [B] Vitamin E
    [C] Vitamin C
    [D] Vitamin B6
    Correct Answer: B [Vitamin E]
    Note: Vitamin E, also known as tocopherol, deficiency symptoms include muscle pain, impaired nerve function, and trouble seeing. It is found in pumpkin, mangoes, guava, potatoes, nuts, seeds, etc.
  201. Which vitamin deficiency can cause fatigue and dizziness?
    [A] Vitamin B12
    [B] Vitamin B1
    [C] Vitamin B3
    [D] Vitamin B6
    Correct Answer: A [Vitamin B12]
    Note: Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to fatigue and dizziness. It is commonly found in poultry, eggs, fish, milk, etc.
  202. Which vitamin’s scientific name is Pyridoxine?
    [A] Vitamin B1
    [B] Vitamin B6
    [C] Vitamin B12
    [D] Vitamin C
    Correct Answer: B [Vitamin B6]
    Note: Pyridoxine is the scientific name for Vitamin B6.
  203. What is the scientific name for Vitamin B9?
    [A] Thiamine
    [B] Folic Acid
    [C] Pantothenic Acid
    [D] Biotin
    Correct Answer: B [Folic Acid]
    Note: Vitamin B9 is scientifically known as Folic Acid.
  204. Which vitamin’s scientific name is Tocopherol?
    [A] Vitamin B5
    [B] Vitamin B7
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: C [Vitamin E]
    Note: Tocopherol is the scientific name for Vitamin E.
  205. What is the scientific name for Vitamin D?
    [A] Retinol
    [B] Calciferol
    [C] Ascorbic Acid
    [D] Phytonadione
    Correct Answer: B [Calciferol]
    Note: Vitamin D is scientifically known as Calciferol.
  206. Which vitamin’s scientific name is Ascorbic Acid?
    [A] Vitamin B2
    [B] Vitamin C
    [C] Vitamin B12
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: B [Vitamin C]
    Note: Ascorbic Acid is the scientific name for Vitamin C.
  207. What is the scientific name for Vitamin B1?
    [A] Riboflavin
    [B] Pyridoxine
    [C] Thiamine
    [D] Niacin
    Correct Answer: C [Thiamine]
    Note: Vitamin B1 is scientifically known as Thiamine.
  208. Which vitamin’s scientific name is Cobalamin?
    [A] Vitamin B12
    [B] Vitamin B3
    [C] Vitamin B9
    [D] Vitamin D
    Correct Answer: A [Vitamin B12]
    Note: Cobalamin is the scientific name for Vitamin B12.
  209. What is the scientific name for Vitamin B5?
    [A] Pantothenic Acid
    [B] Biotin
    [C] Pyridoxine
    [D] Folic Acid
    Correct Answer: A [Pantothenic Acid]
    Note: Vitamin B5 is scientifically known as Pantothenic Acid.
  210. Which vitamin’s scientific name is Phytonadione?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin K
    [C] Vitamin B6
    [D] Vitamin ECorrect Answer: B [Vitamin K]
    Note: Phytonadione is the scientific name for Vitamin K.
  211. Who edited the book “Law and Spirituality: Reconnecting the Bond”?
    a) Salman Rushdie
    b) Raman Mittal and Seema Singh
    c) Sam Pitroda
    d) Duvvuri Subbarao
    Answer: b) Raman Mittal and Seema Singh
  212. Which author is releasing a memoir titled “Knife”?
    a) Sam Pitroda
    b) Salman Rushdie
    c) Madhumita Murgia
    d) Shane Watson
    Answer: b) Salman Rushdie
  213. Who authored the book “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”?
    a) Raman Mittal
    b) Salman Rushdie
    c) Duvvuri Subbarao
    d) Sam Pitroda
    Answer: c) Duvvuri Subbarao
  214. What is the title of Sam Pitroda’s latest book?
    a) The Idea of Democracy
    b) Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI
    c) The Winner’s Mindset
    d) Knife
    Answer: a) The Idea of Democracy
  215. Whose book “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI” has been shortlisted for the Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction?
    a) Salman Rushdie
    b) Sam Pitroda
    c) Madhumita Murgia
    d) S. Raman
    Answer: c) Madhumita Murgia
  216. Who authored the book “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond”?
    a) Sam Pitroda
    b) Madhumita Murgia
    c) S. Raman
    d) Shane Watson
    Answer: c) S. Raman
  217. Which author translated the first Magahi novel “Phool Bahadur” into English?
    a) Abhay K
    b) Sam Pitroda
    c) Seema Singh
    d) Soumya Awasthi
    Answer: a) Abhay K
  218. Where was Parshottam Rupala’s book “Sagar Parikrama” released?
    a) Delhi, India
    b) Mumbai, India
    c) Rajkot, Gujarat, India
    d) London, UK
    Answer: c) Rajkot, Gujarat, India
  219. Who received the book “India’s Nuclear Titans”?
    a) Salman Rushdie
    b) Madhumita Murgia
    c) S. Jaishankar
    d) Duvvuri Subbarao
    Answer: c) S. Jaishankar
  220. Who authored the book “The Winner’s Mindset”?
    a) Salman Rushdie
    b) Sam Pitroda
    c) Shane Watson
    d) Soumya Awasthi
    Answer: c) Shane Watson
  221. Which book explores the tensions between the RBI and the Government?
    a) “Law and Spirituality: Reconnecting the Bond”
    b) “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”
    c) “The Idea of Democracy”
    d) “The Winner’s Mindset”
    Answer: b) “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”
  222. Which book discusses the current state of democracy?
    a) “Law and Spirituality: Reconnecting the Bond”
    b) “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”
    c) “The Idea of Democracy”
    d) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
    Answer: c) “The Idea of Democracy”
  223. Who authored the book “India’s Nuclear Titans”?
    a) Soumya Awasthi and Shrabana Barua
    b) Raman Mittal and Seema Singh
    c) Shane Watson
    d) S. Jaishankar
    Answer: a) Soumya Awasthi and Shrabana Barua
  224. Which book recounts the experience of being stabbed at a public event?
    a) “The Winner’s Mindset”
    b) “Knife”
    c) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
    d) “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond”
    Answer: b) “Knife”
  225. Which book is shortlisted for the Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction?
    a) “The Idea of Democracy”
    b) “India’s Nuclear Titans”
    c) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
    d) “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond”
    Answer: c) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
  226. Who won the Booker Prize for the novel “Prophet Song”?
    A) Paul Lynch
    B) Salman Rushdie
    C) Margaret Atwood
    D) Kazuo Ishiguro
    Answer: A) Paul Lynch
  227. Which country must the winning novel of the Booker Prize be published in?
    A) Ireland
    B) United States
    C) Australia
    D) United Kingdom
    Answer: D) United Kingdom
  228. Who won the International Booker Prize for the book “Time Shelter”?
    A) Georgi Gospodinov
    B) Angela Rodel
    C) Georgi Gospodinov & Angela Rodel
    D) Olga Tokarczuk
    Answer: A) Georgi Gospodinov & Angela Rodel
  229. What is the requirement for the winning book of the International Booker Prize to be eligible for consideration?
    A) Must be originally written in English
    B) Must be published in the United States
    C) Must be translated into English
    D) Must be published in any language
    Answer: C) Must be translated into English
  230. How often is the International Booker Prize awarded since 2016?
    A) Biennially
    B) Annually
    C) Quarterly
    D) Every five years
    Answer: B) Annually
  231. Who authored the book “An Uncommon Love: The Early Life of Sudha and Narayana Murthy”?
    A) Sanjeev Joshi
    B) Dr. Rajen Saikia
    C) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
    D) Arup Kumar Dutta
    Answer: C) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
  232. Which book is authored by M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh?
    A) Gandhi: A Life in Three Campaigns
    B) Modi: Energising A Green Future
    C) Four Stars of Destiny
    D) Sanskriti ke Ayaam
    Answer: A) Gandhi: A Life in Three Campaigns
  233. Who wrote the book “Modi: Energising A Green Future”?
    A) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam Kumar Sinha
    B) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
    C) Manorama Mishra
    D) Vairamuthu
    Answer: A) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam Kumar Sinha
  234. Which book is authored by Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya?
    A) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
    B) Political History of Assam (1947-1971) – Volume 1
    C) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
    D) Fertilising the Future: Bharat’s March Towards Fertiliser Self-Sufficiency
    Answer: D) Fertilising the Future: Bharat’s March Towards Fertiliser Self-Sufficiency
  235. Who is the author of “Four Stars of Destiny”?
    A) Manorama Mishra
    B) Vairamuthu
    C) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
    D) Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti
    Answer: C) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
  236. Which book was released by the Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority?
    A) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
    B) Political History of Assam (1947-1971) – Volume 1
    C) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
    D) Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan
    Answer: C) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
  237. Who authored the book “Gandhi: A Life in Three Campaigns”?
    A) M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh
    B) Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya
    C) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
    D) Arup Kumar Dutta
    Answer: A) M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh
  238. Which book is authored by Arup Kumar Dutta?
    A) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
    B) Political History of Assam (1947-1971) – Volume 1
    C) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
    D) Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan
    Answer: D) Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan
  239. Who are the authors of the book “Ram Mandir Rashtra Mandir Ek Sajhi Virast”?
    A) Sanjeev Joshi
    B) Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti
    C) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
    D) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam Kumar Sinha
    Answer: B) Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti
  240. Which book is authored by Vairamuthu?
    A) Sanskriti ke Ayaam
    B) Maha Kavithai
    C) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
    D) Ram Mandir Rashtra Mandir Ek Sajhi Virast
    Answer: B) Maha Kavithai
  241. How many classical dances are recognized by Sangeet Natak Akademi?
    (a) 6 dances.
    (b) 8 dances.
    (c) 10 dances.
    (d) 16 dances.
    Answer: (b) 8 dances.
  242. Kuchipudi is the classical dance of
    (a) Odisha.
    (b) Jharkhand.
    (c) West Bengal.
    (d) Andhra Pradesh.
    Answer: (d) Andhra Pradesh.
  243. ‘Pung’ is a percussion instrument. From which state is this?
    (a) Assam.
    (b) Chhattisgarh.
    (c) Manipur.
    (d) Mizoram.
    Answer: (c) Manipur.
  244. ‘Yakshagaana’ is a theatre from one of the south Indian states. Which state is referred to here?
    (a) Kerala.
    (b) Karnataka.
    (c) Tamil Nadu.
    (d) Andhra Pradesh.
    Answer: (b) Karnataka.
  245. Which of the following Indian paintings is also referred to as ‘Mithila Art’?
    (a) Madhubani Painting.
    (b) Pattachitra.
    (c) Warli Folk Painting.
    (d) Rajasthani Miniature Painting.
    Answer: (a) Madhubani Painting.
    Additional Questions:
  246. Which of the following dance is not related to harvest?
    (a) Bihu.
    (b) Ponung.
    (c) Parab.
    (d) Popir.
    Answer: (d) Popir.
  247. ‘Ovi’ is a folk song of one of the Indian states. Which state is referred to here?
    (a) Uttar Pradesh.
    (b) Haryana.
    (c) Madhya Pradesh.
    (d) Maharashtra.
    Answer: (d) Maharashtra.
  248. The novel ‘Clear Light of Day’ (1980) is written by
    (a) Anita Desai.
    (b) Mulk Raj Anand.
    (c) R.K. Narayan.
    (d) Kamala Das.
    Answer: (a) Anita Desai.
  249. ‘Chandrakanta’ is considered to be the first work of prose in Hindi. Who wrote this?
    (a) Jaishankar Prasad.
    (b) Munshi Premchand.
    (c) Devaki Nandan Khatri.
    (d) R.K. Narayan.
    Answer: (c) Devaki Nandan Khatri.
  250. Which one of the following statements is correct?
    (a) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Cauvery river.
    (b) Bhimbetaka cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Krishna river.
    (c) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.
    (d) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river.
    Answer: (c) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river.
  251. In India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ are associated with:
    A) Tribal languages.
    B) Award-winning play.
    C) Musical instruments.
    D) Dance forms of Northeast India.
    Answer: A) Tribal languages.
  252. “Whosoever praises his religious sector, or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.” This advice was given by:
    A) Chandragupta Maurya.
    B) Harshavardhana.
    C) Akbar.
    D) Ashoka.
    Answer: D) Ashoka.
  253. Which of the following kingdoms had the notable feature of building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ in temple construction?
    A) Bahamani.
    B) Cholas.
    C) Vijayanagara.
    D) Rashtrakuta.
    Answer: C) Vijayanagara.
  254. Swetambaras is a religious sect of:
    A) Buddhism.
    B) Jainism.
    C) Shaivism.
    D) Vaishnavism.
    Answer: B) Jainism.
  255. How many languages are recognized as “classical languages” in India so far?
    A) 7 languages.
    B) 3 languages.
    C) 9 languages.
    D) 6 languages.
    Answer: D) 6 languages.
  256. Nirvana in Buddhism is best explained by the statement:
    A) A state of bliss and rest.
    B) The elimination of the flame of desire.
    C) A mental state beyond all comprehension.
    D) The complete ignorance of self.
    Answer: B) The elimination of the flame of desire.
  257. During which period did temple architecture in India begin and reach its climax?
    A) Mauryan Period.
    B) Cholas Period.
    C) Gupta Period.
    D) Mughal Period.
    Answer: C) Gupta Period.
  258. The temple of Koranganatha at Srinivasanallur is an example of:
    A) Chola architecture.
    B) Gupta architecture.
    C) Pallava architecture.
    D) Rashtrakutas architecture.
    Answer: A) Chola architecture.
  259. The highest point of Mughal architecture was achieved during the reign of:
    A) Akbar.
    B) Jahangir.
    C) Shah Jahan.
    D) Aurangazeb.
    Answer: C) Shah Jahan.
  260. Who is considered the founder of Rampur Sahaswan Gharana of Hindustani Music?
    A) Ustad Alladiya Khan.
    B) Ustad Inayat Khan.
    C) Ustad Hassu Khan.
    D) Ustad Nathu Khan.
    Answer: B) Ustad Inayat Khan.
  261. Which language has been recently included as one of the nine classical languages in India under the New Education Policy?
    a) Farsi (Persian)
    b) Arabic
    c) French
    d) Mandarin
    Answer: a) Farsi (Persian)
  262. What is the origin of Kathputli, a prominent puppet form in India?
    a) Andhra Pradesh
    b) Kerala
    c) Rajasthan
    d) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: c) Rajasthan
  263. Which puppet form involves the use of leather puppets casting shadows on a screen?
    a) Kathputli
    b) Gombeyatta
    c) Tholu Bommalata
    d) Pavakoothu
    Answer: c) Tholu Bommalata
  264. What is the characteristic feature of Gombeyatta puppetry?
    a) String manipulation
    b) Shadow casting
    c) Dynamic movements with rods
    d) Intricate detailing
    Answer: c) Dynamic movements with rods
  265. Which state is known for the puppet form called Pavakoothu?
    a) Karnataka
    b) Kerala
    c) Himachal Pradesh
    d) West Bengal
    Answer: b) Kerala
  266. What does the term “Sutradhar” symbolize in Indian classical theater?
    a) Puppeteer
    b) Narrator
    c) Puppet form
    d) Shadow puppetry
    Answer: b) Narrator
  267. Bommalattam puppetry originates from which Indian state?
    a) Tamil Nadu
    b) Rajasthan
    c) Kerala
    d) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: a) Tamil Nadu
  268. Putul Nach, a puppet form, is native to which Indian state?
    a) West Bengal
    b) Tamil Nadu
    c) Rajasthan
    d) Kerala
    Answer: a) West Bengal
  269. What distinguishes Kondapalli Bommalu puppets?
    a) Wooden puppets with intricate detailing
    b) Lightweight wooden puppets with vibrant colors
    c) Leather puppets casting shadows
    d) Wooden glove puppets covered in cloth
    Answer: b) Lightweight wooden puppets with vibrant colors
  270. Which puppetry style combines elements of glove puppets and rod puppets?
    a) Pavakoothu
    b) Bommalattam
    c) Koothu and Bommalattam
    d) Gombeyatta
    Answer: c) Koothu and Bommalattam
  271. Which Indian state has the highest population density according to Census 2011?
    a) Uttar Pradesh
    b) Bihar
    c) Kerala
    d) Arunachal Pradesh
    Answer: b) Bihar
  272. Among the Indian states, which has the lowest population density as per Census 2011?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Gujarat
    c) Arunachal Pradesh
    d) Kerala
    Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh
  273. Which union territory has the least population based on Census 2011?
    a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    b) Lakshadweep
    c) Chandigarh
    d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
    Answer: b) Lakshadweep
  274. Which Indian state holds the highest population according to Census 2011?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Uttar Pradesh
    c) Bihar
    d) Kerala
    Answer: b) Uttar Pradesh
  275. Among the Indian states, which has the lowest population according to Census 2011?
    a) Sikkim
    b) Goa
    c) Nagaland
    d) Mizoram
    Answer: a) Sikkim
  276. Which Indian state boasts the highest sex ratio according to Census 2011?
    a) Kerala
    b) Tamil Nadu
    c) Haryana
    d) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: a) Kerala
  277. Among the Indian states, which has the lowest sex ratio according to Census 2011?
    a) Haryana
    b) Punjab
    c) Uttar Pradesh
    d) Bihar
    Answer: a) Haryana
  278. Which Indian state has the highest literacy rate according to Census 2011?
    a) Bihar
    b) Kerala
    c) Tamil Nadu
    d) Maharashtra
    Answer: b) Kerala
  279. Among the Indian states, which has the lowest literacy rate according to Census 2011?
    a) Bihar
    b) Uttar Pradesh
    c) Rajasthan
    d) Madhya Pradesh
    Answer: a) Bihar
  280. What is the population density of Bihar as per Census 2011?
    a) High
    b) Low
    c) Medium
    d) Very high
    Answer: a) High
  281. Which Indian state has the highest population growth rate according to Census 2011?
    a) Kerala
    b) Bihar
    c) Uttar Pradesh
    d) Maharashtra
    Answer: b) Bihar
  282. Among the Indian states, which has the highest population growth rate according to Census 2011?
    a) Kerala
    b) Bihar
    c) Uttar Pradesh
    d) Maharashtra
    Answer: b) Bihar
  283. What is the literacy rate for males in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 65.46%
    b) 74%
    c) 82.14%
    d) 88.23%
    Answer: c) 82.14%
  284. What is the literacy rate for females in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 65.46%
    b) 74%
    c) 82.14%
    d) 88.23%
    Answer: a) 65.46%
  285. What is the overall literacy rate in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 65.46%
    b) 74%
    c) 82.14%
    d) 88.23%
    Answer: b) 74%
  286. What is the difference between the literacy rates of males and females in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 16.68%
    b) 16.68 percentage points
    c) 82.14%
    d) 65.46%
    Answer: b) 16.68 percentage points
  287. What was the total population of India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 1,210,854,977
    b) 1,091,354,977
    c) 1,310,854,977
    d) 1,200,854,977
    Answer: a) 1,210,854,977
  288. What was the sex ratio in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 940 females per 1,000 males
    b) 1,000 females per 940 males
    c) 1,000 males per 940 females
    d) 914 females per 1,000 males
    Answer: a) 940 females per 1,000 males
  289. What was the child sex ratio in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 940 females per 1,000 males
    b) 1,000 females per 940 males
    c) 1,000 males per 914 females
    d) 914 females per 1,000 males
    Answer: d) 914 females per 1,000 males
  290. What was the literacy rate in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 84.04%
    b) 74.04%
    c) 64.04%
    d) 94.04%
    Answer: b) 74.04%
  291. What was the percentage of the urban population in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 31.2%
    b) 41.2%
    c) 21.2%
    d) 51.2%
    Answer: a) 31.2%
  292. What was the median age of the Indian population according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) 27.2 years
    b) 37.2 years
    c) 17.2 years
    d) 47.2 years
    Answer: a) 27.2 years
  293. What was the most spoken language in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) English
    b) Hindi
    c) Bengali
    d) Tamil
    Answer: b) Hindi
  294. Which of the following religions is NOT listed as one of the major religions in India according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) Hinduism
    b) Islam
    c) Buddhism
    d) Sikhism
    Answer: c) Buddhism
  295. Which state had the highest number of residents after Uttar Pradesh according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Bihar
    c) West Bengal
    d) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: a) Maharashtra
  296. Which state had the highest number of residents after Uttar Pradesh according to the Census of India 2011?
    a) Maharashtra
    b) Bihar
    c) West Bengal
    d) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: a) Maharashtra
  297. According to Census 2011, which state has negative population growth?
    (A) Kerala
    (B) Nagaland
    (C) Goa
    (D) Tamil Nadu
    Answer: B – Nagaland
  298. Which state had the highest population growth rate according to Census 2011?
    (A) Meghalaya
    (B) Madhya Pradesh
    (C) Bihar
    (D) Chhattisgarh
    Answer: A – Meghalaya
  299. What was India’s population growth rate from 2001 to 2011 according to Census 2011?
    (A) 7.28%
    (B) 21.8%
    (C) 11.25%
    (D) 17.72%
    Answer: D – 17.72%
  300. Which union territory had the highest population growth rate between 2001 to 2011 according to Census 2011?
    (A) Daman and Diu
    (B) Puducherry
    (C) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
    (D) Delhi
    Answer: C – Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Railway Excellence Batch For RPF Constable & SI,NTPC & Group -D Exams | Online Live Classes by Adda 247

Odisha District Court Exam 2024 For Jr Clerk/Copyist, Typist & Stenographer | Online Live Classes by Adda 247