The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September -1 Download PDF
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: September -1
- Which minerals are commonly used in the production of fuels?
(a) Gold and uranium
(b) Coal, natural gas, and petroleum
(c) Iron and aluminium
(d) Calcium and phosphorus
Ans: (b) Coal, natural gas, and petroleum - What is the primary role of the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) To provide oxygen for respiration
(b) To shield Earth from harmful ultraviolet rays
(c) To support plant growth
(d) To regulate the Earth’s temperature
Answer: (b) To shield Earth from harmful ultraviolet rays - How thick is the Earth’s atmosphere approximately?
(a) 320 km
(b) 400 km
(c) 480 km
(d) 600 km
Answer: (c) 480 km - Which gas makes up about 78% of the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Argon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon Dioxide
Answer: (c) Nitrogen - What is the percentage of oxygen in the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) 21%
(b) 78%
(c) 0.93%
(d) 0.04%
Answer: (a) 21% - Where is the ozone layer located within the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (b) Stratosphere - What phenomenon occurs in the mesosphere?
(a) Weather changes
(b) Absorption of ultraviolet radiation
(c) Burning of meteoroids
(d) Reflection of radio waves
Answer: (c) Burning of meteoroids - At which layer does the temperature start to increase with altitude due to the absorption of UV radiation?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (b) Stratosphere - What is the main component of the Earth’s atmosphere that is used in light bulbs?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon Dioxide
Answer: (c) Argon - In which atmospheric layer do satellites primarily orbit?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (d) Thermosphere - What is the role of dust particles in the atmosphere?
(a) Absorb UV radiation
(b) Reflect radio waves
(c) Act as hygroscopic nuclei for cloud formation
(d) Regulate atmospheric pressure
Answer: (c) Act as hygroscopic nuclei for cloud formation - What is another name for extra-tropical cyclones?
(a) Tropical storms
(b) Mid-latitude storms
(c) Hurricane systems
(d) Trade wind cyclones
Answer: (b) Mid-latitude storms
Explanation: Extra-tropical cyclones are also known as mid-latitude storms or baroclinic storms. - Where do extra-tropical cyclones typically form?
(a) Near the equator
(b) Along the polar front
(c) In the tropics
(d) At the equatorial low
Answer: (b) Along the polar front
Explanation: Extra-tropical cyclones form along the polar front, which is a boundary between cold polar air and warmer air from the mid-latitudes. - In the Northern Hemisphere, which direction does the cold air move relative to the front?
(a) From the south
(b) From the west
(c) From the north
(d) From the east
Answer: (c) From the north
Explanation: In the Northern Hemisphere, cold air moves from the north of the front, while warm air blows from the south. - What happens when the cold front overtakes the warm front?
(a) The warm front intensifies
(b) The warm air is lifted entirely, leading to an occluded front
(c) The cold front slows down
(d) The cyclone strengthens
Answer: (b) The warm air is lifted entirely, leading to an occluded front
Explanation: When the cold front moves faster than the warm front, it lifts the warm air, leading to the formation of an occluded front and the eventual dissipation of the cyclone. - How do extra-tropical cyclones affect precipitation?
(a) They cause rainfall only ahead of the warm front
(b) They cause rainfall only along the cold front
(c) They cause rainfall both ahead of the warm front and along the cold front
(d) They do not cause rainfall
Answer: (c) They cause rainfall both ahead of the warm front and along the cold front
Explanation: Rainfall occurs ahead of the warm front due to the warm air climbing over the cold air and along the cold front as the warm air is pushed upward. - What type of clouds typically develop along the cold front of an extra-tropical cyclone?
(a) Stratus clouds
(b) Cumulus clouds
(c) Cirrus clouds
(d) Nimbostratus clouds
Answer: (b) Cumulus clouds
Explanation: Cumulus clouds typically develop along the cold front due to the upward movement of warm air. - How long can extra-tropical cyclones last?
(a) 1 to 3 days
(b) 3 to 7 days
(c) 7 to 10 days
(d) 15 to 20 days
Answer: (d) 15 to 20 days
Explanation: Extra-tropical cyclones can last for a duration of 15 to 20 days, unlike tropical cyclones which typically last no more than 7 days. - Which of the following is a key difference between tropical cyclones and extra-tropical cyclones?
(a) Tropical cyclones form only over land
(b) Extra-tropical cyclones have higher wind velocities
(c) Tropical cyclones move from east to west
(d) Extra-tropical cyclones form only in tropical regions
Answer: (c) Tropical cyclones move from east to west
Explanation: Tropical cyclones generally move from east to west, while extra-tropical cyclones move from west to east. - Which cyclone type affects a larger area?
(a) Tropical cyclone
(b) Temperate cyclone
(c) Neither
(d) Both equally
Answer: (b) Temperate cyclone
Explanation: Temperate cyclones, or extra-tropical cyclones, affect a much larger area compared to tropical cyclones. - Where can extra-tropical cyclones form?
(a) Only over seas with temperatures above 26-27°C
(b) Only over land
(c) Both over land and sea
(d) Only in the tropics
Answer: (c) Both over land and sea
Explanation: Extra-tropical cyclones can form over both land and sea, unlike tropical cyclones which form only over seas with warm temperatures. - In ancient times, what was Odisha known as?
(a) Magadha
(b) Kalinga
(c) Dantapur
(d) Maurya
Ans: (b) Kalinga - Which famous war was fought by Asoka of the Mauryan Empire in Kalinga?
(a) Battle of Kurukshetra
(b) Battle of Plassey
(c) Kalinga War
(d) Battle of Panipat
Ans: (c) Kalinga War - According to Buddhist literature, what was the capital city of Kalinga?
(a) Magadha
(b) Pataliputra
(c) Dantapur
(d) Udayagiri
Ans: (c) Dantapur - Which ruler integrated Kalinga into the Magadha empire around 350 BC?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Asoka
(c) Dhanananda
(d) Mahapadmananda
Ans: (d) Mahapadmananda - What do the pre-Mauryan black polished potteries and punch-marked coins found in Asurgarh and Sonepur indicate?
(a) The artistic skills of the Kalinga people
(b) Flourishing economic condition during the Nanda rule
(c) The influence of Buddhism
(d) The military strength of Kalinga
Ans: (b) Flourishing economic condition during the Nanda rule - What significant historical inscription was discovered at Udayagiri in Bhubaneswar?
(a) Rock Edict XIII
(b) Hatigumpha inscription
(c) Junagadh inscription
(d) Nasik inscription
Ans: (b) Hatigumpha inscription - Who founded the Maurya Empire by defeating the last Nanda ruler, Dhanananda?
(a) Bindusara
(b) Chandragupta Maurya
(c) Asoka
(d) Kautilya
Ans: (b) Chandragupta Maurya - Why did Emperor Asoka attack Kalinga?
(a) To spread Buddhism
(b) To gain power over overseas trade
(c) To unite India under one rule
(d) To avenge a previous defeat
Ans: (b) To gain power over overseas trade - What was the aftermath of the Kalinga War for Emperor Asoka?
(a) He expanded his empire further
(b) He adopted Buddhism and renounced violence
(c) He established a new capital in Kalinga
(d) He faced a rebellion from his ministers
Ans: (b) He adopted Buddhism and renounced violence - Which two separate Kalinga edicts of Asoka describe the Mauryan administration in Kalinga?
(a) Dhauli and Jaugarh
(b) Nasik and Junagadh
(c) Udayagiri and Ratnagiri
(d) Sarnath and Sanchi
Ans: (a) Dhauli and Jaugarh - Who was the first to establish Muslim rule in Odisha?
(a) Aurangzeb
(b) Daud Khan Karrani
(c) Sulaiman Khan Karrani
(d) Qutlu Khan Lohani
Ans: (c) Sulaiman Khan Karrani - In which year was Daud Khan Karrani defeated in the battle of Tukario?
(a) 1570
(b) 1575
(c) 1580
(d) 1585
Ans: (b) 1575 - The Treaty of Katak resulted in which of the following?
(a) Mughal control over Odisha
(b) Independence of Bengal
(c) Retention of Odisha by Daud Khan Karrani
(d) Complete annexation by Mughals
Ans: (c) Retention of Odisha by Daud Khan Karrani - Who was the Rajput General under Akbar that initiated Mughal rule in Odisha?
(a) Qutlu Khan Lohani
(b) Mansingh
(c) Ahmed Beg
(d) Zaman Teharani
Ans: (b) Mansingh - Under Akbar’s reign, how many sarkars was Odisha divided into?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: (c) 5 - Which Governor declared himself independent and assumed the title of ‘Qutlu Shah’?
(a) Nasir Khan
(b) Muhammad Baqar Khan
(c) Qutlu Khan Lohani
(d) Zaman Teharani
Ans: (c) Qutlu Khan Lohani - Under whose reign was Odisha made into a separate Subah?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Ans: (b) Jahangir - During Shah Jahan’s rule, where was the administrative seat of Odisha?
(a) Puri
(b) Cuttack
(c) Bhadrak
(d) Raj Mahendry Dandpat
Ans: (b) Cuttack - Who was appointed the Governor of Odisha under Aurangzeb?
(a) Mansingh
(b) Muhammad Baqar Khan
(c) Khan-i-Duran
(d) Kalyan Mal
Ans: (c) Khan-i-Duran - Which rebel king of Khurda was defeated during Aurangzeb’s period?
(a) Mukundadeva I
(b) Nasir Khan
(c) Qutlu Khan Lohani
(d) Ahmed Beg
Ans: (a) Mukundadeva I - What was the Paika Rebellion also known as?
(a) Sepoy Mutiny
(b) Khurda Rebellion
(c) Santhal Rebellion
(d) Indigo Rebellion
Ans: (b) Khurda Rebellion - In which year did the Paika Rebellion take place?
(a) 1804
(b) 1817
(c) 1825
(d) 1857
Ans: (b) 1817 - Who was the leader of the Paika Rebellion?
(a) Jayee Rajguru
(b) Mukunda Dev II
(c) Bakshi Jagabandhu
(d) Prananatha Patnaik
Ans: (c) Bakshi Jagabandhu - What was the main cause of the Paika Rebellion?
(a) Introduction of new salt laws
(b) Heavy land revenue policy
(c) Monopoly on trade
(d) Forced conversion
Ans: (b) Heavy land revenue policy - Who was considered the first martyr of the early freedom struggle against British rule in Odisha?
(a) Bakshi Jagabandhu
(b) Mukunda Dev II
(c) Jayee Rajguru
(d) Mirhaidar Ali
Ans: (c) Jayee Rajguru - Which tribes accepted Bakshi Jagabandhu as their leader during the Paika Rebellion?
(a) Santhals and Gonds
(b) Banapur and Ghumusar tribes
(c) Oraons and Mundas
(d) Bhils and Khasis
Ans: (b) Banapur and Ghumusar tribes - What did the Paikas do on 29th March, 1817, in Khurda?
(a) Signed a peace treaty
(b) Established a new kingdom
(c) Burnt government buildings and sacked the treasury
(d) Surrendered to British forces
Ans: (c) Burnt government buildings and sacked the treasury - Who was the prominent Muslim fighter that supported Bakshi Jagabandhu during the Paika Rebellion?
(a) Mirhaidar Ali
(b) Sachi Routray
(c) Prananatha Patnaik
(d) Gokul Mohan Rai Chudamani
Ans: (a) Mirhaidar Ali - What administrative change did the British introduce after the Paika Rebellion?
(a) Complete autonomy to local rulers
(b) Reduction in salt prices
(c) Employment of Oriyas in government services
(d) Abolition of land revenue
Ans: (c) Employment of Oriyas in government services - In which year did Bakshi Jagabandhu surrender to the British?
(a) 1817
(b) 1825
(c) 1830
(d) 1857
Ans: (b) 1825 - What was the primary objective of the Chang’e-6 mission?
(a) To explore the moon’s surface for potential human colonization.
(b) To perform the first human sampling and return mission from the far side of the moon.
(c) To establish a lunar base for long-term research.
(d) To test new spacecraft technologies for future missions.
Answer: (b) To perform the first human sampling and return mission from the far side of the moon. - Where did the Chang’e-6 spacecraft land on the moon?
(a) The moon’s equator
(b) The near side of the moon
(c) The South Pole-Aitken Basin on the far side of the moon
(d) The Sea of Tranquility
Answer: (c) The South Pole-Aitken Basin on the far side of the moon - Which mission marked China’s first successful landing on the far side of the moon?
(a) Chang’e-5
(b) Chang’e-6
(c) Chang’e-3
(d) Chang’e-4
Answer: (d) Chang’e-4 - What new scientific analysis has pushed back the origin of the Tamil-Brahmi script?
(a) Carbon Dating
(b) Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) dating
(c) Thermoluminescence Dating
(d) Uranium-Series Dating
Answer: (b) Accelerator Mass Spectrometry (AMS) dating - According to recent findings, what is the revised origin date of the Tamil-Brahmi script?
(a) 5th Century BCE
(b) 6th Century BCE
(c) 7th Century BCE
(d) 8th Century BCE
Answer: (c) 7th Century BCE - Which location provides the earliest date for the Tamil-Brahmi script according to the new findings?
(a) Madurai
(b) Chennai
(c) Sivagalai in Thoothukudi district
(d) Coimbatore
Answer: (c) Sivagalai in Thoothukudi district - What does the new date for the Tamil-Brahmi script challenge?
(a) The introduction of Brahmi scripts during the Gupta period
(b) The belief that Brahmi scripts were introduced during Asokan times
(c) The timeline of the Sangam era
(d) The origin of the Sanskrit language
Answer: (b) The belief that Brahmi scripts were introduced during Asokan times - What kind of evidence was found that shows the penetration and level of literacy during Early Historic times in Tamil Nadu?
(a) Ancient coins
(b) Inscribed potsherds
(c) Stone inscriptions
(d) Ancient manuscripts
Answer: (b) Inscribed potsherds - How does the revised date of the Tamil-Brahmi script impact India’s historical timeline?
(a) It shortens the timeline of the Sangam era by three hundred years
(b) It pushes back the Sangam era by three hundred years
(c) It confirms the previously accepted dates for the Sangam era
(d) It has no impact on the historical timeline
Answer: (b) It pushes back the Sangam era by three hundred years - What recent findings have contributed to the momentum for rewriting India’s history from Tamil Nadu?
(a) Findings from ancient texts discovered in 2019
(b) Archaeological discoveries from 2021
(c) Scientific analyses from 2019 and 2021
(d) Reports on ancient trade routes from 2022
Answer: (c) Scientific analyses from 2019 and 2021 - What was the recent concern raised by the opposition regarding postal ballots?
(a) Delay in postal ballot delivery
(b) Prioritization of postal ballot counting before EVM counting
(c) Increase in postal ballot fraud
(d) Decrease in postal ballot availability
Answer: (b) Prioritization of postal ballot counting before EVM counting - Who is eligible to vote via postal ballot?
(a) Only senior citizens
(b) Only government employees
(c) Service voters and essential service workers
(d) Only absentee voters
Answer: (c) Service voters and essential service workers - Which of the following is NOT a category of eligible postal ballot voters?
(a) Senior citizens aged 80 and above
(b) Electors on election duty
(c) Students studying abroad
(d) Persons with Disabilities (PwDs)
Answer: (c) Students studying abroad - What are Virus-like Particles (VLPs)?
(a) Infectious viruses used for vaccine development
(b) Non-infectious molecules that resemble viruses
(c) Synthetic viruses created for research purposes
(d) Particles that cause viral infections
Answer: (b) Non-infectious molecules that resemble viruses - What significant advancement did scientists at the Institute of Advanced Virology achieve?
(a) Discovery of a new virus
(b) Development of infectious virus particles
(c) Creation of non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles (VLPs)
(d) Invention of a new antiviral drug
Answer: (c) Creation of non-infectious Nipah virus-like particles (VLPs) - Which of the following diseases is NOT mentioned as being targeted by VLPs-based vaccines?
(a) HPV
(b) Hepatitis B
(c) Malaria
(d) Tuberculosis
Answer: (d) Tuberculosis - In the context of VLPs, what is the primary purpose of mimicking real viral molecules?
(a) To cause disease symptoms for research
(b) To enhance the virulence of the virus
(c) To trigger an immune response without causing disease
(d) To produce actual viruses for laboratory testing
Answer: (c) To trigger an immune response without causing disease - Which of the following groups is eligible for postal voting due to preventive detention?
(a) Railway workers
(b) Government officials
(c) Individuals under preventive detention orders
(d) Media personnel
Answer: (c) Individuals under preventive detention orders - For which assembly elections was postal voting available for Persons with Disabilities (PwDs)?
(a) 2015 Delhi Assembly elections
(b) 2020 Delhi Assembly elections
(c) 2019 Lok Sabha elections
(d) 2021 West Bengal Assembly elections
Answer: (b) 2020 Delhi Assembly elections - How do VLPs contribute to immunity against real viruses?
(a) By causing mild infections that build immunity
(b) By directly treating viral infections
(c) By mimicking viral structures to stimulate an immune response
(d) By blocking viral entry into cells
Answer: (c) By mimicking viral structures to stimulate an immune response - What was the percentage increase in Nitrous Oxide (N2O) emissions between 1980 and 2020?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
Answer: (c) 40% - Which country is the largest emitter of Nitrous Oxide (N2O)?
(a) India
(b) The US
(c) Brazil
(d) China
Answer: (d) China - What proportion of Nitrous Oxide emissions in the past decade was attributed to agriculture according to the Global Carbon Project?
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 74%
(d) 80%
Answer: (c) 74% - Which of the following is NOT a primary source of Nitrous Oxide emissions?
(a) Nitrogen fertilizers
(b) Animal manure
(c) Industrial processes
(d) Fossil fuel combustion
Answer: (d) Fossil fuel combustion - N2O is how many times more potent than CO2 over 100 years?
(a) 100 times
(b) 150 times
(c) 200 times
(d) 273 times
Answer: (d) 273 times - To keep global temperature rise below 2 degrees Celsius, by what percentage must N2O emissions from human activities decrease by 2050 from 2019 levels?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%
Answer: (c) 20% - Which project has recently concluded its first phase and organized an event named “Phenome India Unboxing 1.0”?
(a) Phenome India
(b) India Health Initiative
(c) CSIR Cardio-Metabolic Study
(d) India Wellness Project
Answer: (a) Phenome India - The Phenome India-CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK) aims to develop risk prediction models specifically for which group?
(a) Western populations
(b) Indian population
(c) Global population
(d) Asian populations
Answer: (b) Indian population - Which of the following diseases is NOT a focus of the Phenome India project?
(a) Diabetes
(b) Liver diseases
(c) Cardiac diseases
(d) Cancer
Answer: (d) Cancer - The Phenome India project promotes which model of healthcare?
(a) Reactive Medicine
(b) Preventive Healthcare
(c) Precision Medicine
(d) Standardized Medicine
Answer: (c) Precision Medicine - Which feature of the Indian Constitution is described as being the “lengthiest written constitution in the world”?
(a) Shortest written constitution
(b) Unwritten constitution
(c) Lengthiest written constitution
(d) Partly written constitution
Ans: (c) Lengthiest written constitution - The Indian Constitution has drawn provisions from various sources. Which country’s constitution influenced the Indian Parliament’s system of government?
(a) American Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Canadian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Ans: (b) British Constitution - Which term best describes the Indian Constitution’s nature as a combination of rigidity and flexibility?
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Rigid with a unitary bias
(d) Blend of rigidity and flexibility
Ans: (d) Blend of rigidity and flexibility - The Indian Constitution is federal in form but unitary in spirit. Who made this statement?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) K. C. Wheare
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) M. N. Roy
Ans: (b) K. C. Wheare - What kind of government system does the Indian Constitution adopt at both the Center and the States?
(a) Presidential System
(b) Federal System
(c) Parliamentary System
(d) Unitary System
Ans: (c) Parliamentary System - Which part of the Indian Constitution outlines the Fundamental Rights of citizens?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Ans: (c) Part III - What is the main purpose of the Directive Principles of State Policy mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Ensure political justice
(b) Ensure social and economic justice
(c) Establish religious laws
(d) Define the structure of the government
Ans: (b) Ensure social and economic justice - In which year were the Fundamental Duties added to the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1976
(d) 2002
Ans: (c) 1976 - What principle does Indian Secularism embody according to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Preference to one religion
(b) Suppression of all religions
(c) Equal treatment of all religions
(d) Government-led religious activities
Ans: (c) Equal treatment of all religions - Which Constitutional Amendment Acts introduced the third tier of governance in the Indian Constitution?
(a) 42nd and 44th Amendments
(b) 61st and 73rd Amendments
(c) 73rd and 74th Amendments
(d) 86th and 97th Amendments
Ans: (c) 73rd and 74th Amendments - What does the Preamble to the Indian Constitution primarily provide?
a) A summary of the Constitution’s provisions
b) An introduction outlining the philosophy and objectives
c) A list of fundamental rights
d) The detailed structure of the government
Answer: b) An introduction outlining the philosophy and objectives - According to the Preamble, what is the source of authority of the Indian Constitution?
a) The Parliament
b) The Supreme Court
c) The President of India
d) The People of India
Answer: d) The People of India - Which term was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?
a) Sovereign
b) Socialist
c) Republic
d) Democratic
Answer: b) Socialist - When was the Preamble to the Indian Constitution adopted?
a) January 26, 1950
b) November 26, 1949
c) January 22, 1947
d) July 4, 1947
Answer: b) November 26, 1949 - What does the term ‘Secular’ in the Preamble signify?
a) India respects only one religion
b) All religions are equally respected and protected by the state
c) The state follows a specific religion
d) The government does not intervene in religious matters
Answer: b) All religions are equally respected and protected by the state - In which case did the Supreme Court first recognize the Preamble as part of the Constitution?
a) Berubari Case
b) Kesavananda Bharati Case
c) Golaknath Case
d) Minerva Mills Case
Answer: b) Kesavananda Bharati Case - What was the primary objective of including the term ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble?
a) To promote private sector dominance
b) To achieve socialist goals through democratic means
c) To ensure only public sector dominance
d) To eliminate all private enterprises
Answer: b) To achieve socialist goals through democratic means - Which objective is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble?
a) Justice
b) Liberty
c) Fraternity
d) Economic Development
Answer: d) Economic Development - How does the Preamble describe the nature of the Indian state?
a) Authoritarian and centralized
b) Federal and hierarchical
c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic Republic
d) Imperial and monarchical
Answer: c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic Republic - What is the significance of the term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble?
a) The state is governed by a monarch
b) The head of state is elected by the people
c) The head of state is appointed by the Parliament
d) The state follows a theocratic system
Answer: b) The head of state is elected by the people - What was the central contention of the Supreme Court in the Shankari Prasad case (1951)?
(a) The Parliament’s power of amending the Constitution does not extend to Fundamental Rights.
(b) The Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights.
(c) The Constitution cannot be amended by the Parliament.
(d) Fundamental Rights are immune to any form of constitutional amendment.
Answer: (b) The Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution under Article 368 includes the power to amend Fundamental Rights. - What was the significant dissenting opinion in the Sajjan Singh case (1965)?
(a) Fundamental Rights could be amended if deemed necessary by the Parliament.
(b) The Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution including Fundamental Rights.
(c) Fundamental Rights should not be subject to amendment as they are essential for democracy.
(d) The Parliament’s amending power is unlimited and cannot be restricted by the judiciary.
Answer: (c) Fundamental Rights should not be subject to amendment as they are essential for democracy. - What was the main outcome of the Golaknath case (1967)?
(a) Fundamental Rights could be amended by the Parliament.
(b) Fundamental Rights are transcendental and cannot be amended by Parliament.
(c) Article 368 gives the power to Parliament to amend the Constitution completely.
(d) The Constitution should be rewritten to include Fundamental Rights.
Answer: (b) Fundamental Rights are transcendental and cannot be amended by Parliament. - What did the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) establish about the basic structure doctrine?
(a) The Parliament can rewrite the Constitution if necessary.
(b) No part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, is beyond Parliament’s amending power.
(c) The basic structure of the Constitution cannot be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment.
(d) The judiciary has no role in scrutinizing constitutional amendments.
Answer: (c) The basic structure of the Constitution cannot be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment. - In the Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain case (1975), why was Clause (4) of Article 329-A struck down?
(a) It was contrary to the principles of federalism.
(b) It was beyond Parliament’s amending power as it destroyed the basic features of the Constitution.
(c) It violated the principle of separation of powers.
(d) It was inconsistent with the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer: (b) It was beyond Parliament’s amending power as it destroyed the basic features of the Constitution. - What were the two features added to the basic structure doctrine in the Minerva Mills case (1980)?
(a) Judicial review and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
(b) Federal structure and secularism.
(c) Separation of powers and sovereignty.
(d) Democracy and equality.
Answer: (a) Judicial review and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). - What did the Waman Rao case (1981) clarify regarding amendments to the 9th Schedule?
(a) All amendments to the 9th Schedule are invalid.
(b) Amendments to the 9th Schedule are valid only if they do not conflict with the basic structure doctrine.
(c) Amendments to the 9th Schedule made before April 24, 1973, are valid, while those made after that date are subject to scrutiny.
(d) The 9th Schedule amendments are entirely immune to judicial review.
Answer: (c) Amendments to the 9th Schedule made before April 24, 1973, are valid, while those made after that date are subject to scrutiny. - What did the Indra Sawhney v. Union of India case (1992) add to the basic structure doctrine?
(a) The principle of equal protection under the law.
(b) The rule of law.
(c) The need for periodic review of reservations.
(d) The importance of economic equality.
Answer: (b) The rule of law. - In the S.R. Bommai case (1994), what was emphasized about the misuse of Article 356?
(a) Article 356 can be used for any purpose as deemed necessary by the central government.
(b) The misuse of Article 356 can be checked if it is directed against an element of the basic structure of the Constitution.
(c) Article 356 is not subject to judicial review.
(d) State policies violating basic structure are not a valid ground for invoking Article 356.
Answer: (b) The misuse of Article 356 can be checked if it is directed against an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. - Which case established that Parliament can only amend, but not destroy, the Constitution?
(a) Shankari Prasad case.
(b) Golaknath case.
(c) Kesavananda Bharati case.
(d) Minerva Mills case.
Answer: (c) Kesavananda Bharati case. - The Public Service Commissions in the Indian Constitution are influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Canada
Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935 - The Office of Governor in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Canada
Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935 - The Judiciary in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Canada
Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935 - The Administrative Details in the Indian Constitution are influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Canada
Ans: (c) Government of India Act 1935 - The provision for equal protection under the law in the Indian Constitution is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (a) USA - The President of India as the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces is influenced by:
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland
Ans: (a) USA - The World Book and Copyright Day is observed on:
(a) 22nd April
(b) 23rd April
(c) 24th April
(d) 25th April
Ans: (b) 23rd April - The World Malala Day is observed on:
(a) 11th July
(b) 12th July
(c) 13th July
(d) 14th July
Ans: (b) 12th July - Nelson Mandela International Day is observed on:
(a) 17th July
(b) 18th July
(c) 19th July
(d) 20th July
Ans: (b) 18th July - The International Day of World’s Indigenous People is observed on:
(a) 8th August
(b) 9th August
(c) 10th August
(d) 11th August
Ans: (b) 9th August - The International Labour Organisation (ILO) has its headquarters in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Washington DC, United States
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (a) Geneva, Switzerland - The Ramsar site Renuka Lake is located in which state?
(a) Haryana
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Bihar
Ans: (b) Himachal Pradesh - The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Paris, France
(d) Vienna, Austria
Ans: (c) Paris, France - Khijadiya, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (a) Gujarat - The World Trade Organisation (WTO) has its headquarters in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Washington DC, United States
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (a) Geneva, Switzerland - Sultanpur National Park, a Ramsar site, is located in which state?
(a) Bihar
(b) Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Assam
Ans: (b) Haryana - The headquarters of the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICR(c) is located in:
(a) Geneva, Switzerland
(b) New York, USA
(c) Washington DC, United States
(d) Paris, France
Ans: (a) Geneva, Switzerland - The Ramsar site Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
(a) Haryana
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Bihar
Ans: (b) Himachal Pradesh - Who introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Minto I
Ans: (b) Lord Cornwallis - Which treaty was associated with the Third Mysore War?
(a) Treaty of Salbai
(b) Treaty of Seringapatam
(c) Treaty of Amritsar
(d) Treaty of Sagauli
Ans: (b) Treaty of Seringapatam - Who was responsible for the introduction of the Subsidiary Alliance System?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Amherst
Ans: (c) Lord Wellesley - Which Act is associated with Lord William Bentinck’s tenure?
(a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) Regulating Act of 1773
(c) Pitt’s India Act
(d) Government of India Act of 1858
Ans: (a) Charter Act of 1833 - What was the main outcome of the First Afghan War?
(a) Treaty of Amritsar
(b) Treaty of Lahore
(c) Treaty of Seringapatam
(d) Treaty of Peshawar
Ans: (d) Treaty of Peshawar - When is Andhra Pradesh Foundation Day celebrated?
(a) November 1
(b) January 21
(c) May 1
(d) June 2
Ans: (a) November 1 - Which state was formed on February 20, 1987?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Goa
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (a) Arunachal Pradesh - Which act led to the formation of Haryana?
(a) States Reorganisation Act, 1956
(b) Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
(c) Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960
(d) North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971
Ans: (b) Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 - On which date is Karnataka Foundation Day celebrated?
(a) November 1
(b) May 30
(c) January 24
(d) December 1
Ans: (a) November 1 - Which country shares the shortest border with India?
(a) Nepal
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Bhutan
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer: (b) Afghanistan - What is the capital of Bangladesh?
(a) Thimphu
(b) Dhaka
(c) Yangon
(d) Islamabad
Answer: (b) Dhaka - Which Indian states border Bangladesh?
(a) West Bengal, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, Assam
(b) West Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (a) West Bengal, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, Assam - Who is the new Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of Odisha as of July 2024?
(a) Nikunj Bihari Dhal
(b) R Santhanagopalan
(c) Pitambar Acharya
(d) Mohan Majhi
Ans: (b) R Santhanagopalan - Who has been appointed as the Additional Chief Secretary to Chief Minister Mohan Majhi?
(a) Pitambar Acharya
(b) R Santhanagopalan
(c) Nikunj Bihari Dhal
(d) Bhabani Shankar Bhoi
Ans: (c) Nikunj Bihari Dhal - Who is the newly-appointed Advocate General of Odisha?
(a) Nikunj Bihari Dhal
(b) Bhabani Shankar Bhoi
(c) Pitambar Acharya
(d) R Santhanagopalan
Ans: (c) Pitambar Acharya - Under which article of the Constitution of India is the office of the Advocate General for States established?
(a) Article 165
(b) Article 178
(c) Article 93
(d) Article 94
Ans: (a) Article 165 - What is the main role of the Advocate General in a state?
(a) Conducting elections
(b) Advising the state government on legal matters
(c) Managing state finances
(d) Overseeing infrastructure projects
Ans: (b) Advising the state government on legal matters - Which plan aims at the holistic development of the eastern region of India, including Odisha?
(a) Make in India
(b) Purvodaya
(c) Digital India
(d) Skill India
Ans: (b) Purvodaya - What does the Purvodaya plan focus on in the eastern region?
(a) Space exploration
(b) Infrastructure development
(c) Tourism only
(d) Healthcare only
Ans: (b) Infrastructure development - Who was the king during the first agitation in Khurda against British rule?
(a) Mukunda Deva I
(b) Mukunda Deva II
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Raja Gopabandhu Das
Ans: (b) Mukunda Deva II - What form did the early agitation against British rule take in Odisha?
(a) Peaceful protests
(b) Negotiations
(c) Armed resistance
(d) Cultural revival
Ans: (c) Armed resistance - Which of the following terms best describes the initial phase of the freedom struggle in Odisha?
(a) Collaboration
(b) Cooperation
(c) Resistance
(d) Submission
Ans: (c) Resistance - What is the birthdate of Aykrushana Mohapatra, also known as Jayee Rajguru, a prominent freedom fighter from Odisha?
(a) 29th October, 1769
(b) 29th October, 1739
(c) 29th November, 1739
(d) 29th September, 1769
Ans: (b) 29th October, 1739 - In which village was Jayee Rajguru born?
(a) Puri
(b) Biraharekrushnapur
(c) Chandipur
(d) Bhubaneswar
Ans: (b) Biraharekrushnapur - What was Jayee Rajguru’s original name?
(a) Aykrushana Mohapatra
(b) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra
(c) Haramani Devi
(d) Chand Rajguru
Ans: (b) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra - What is the name of the first freedom fighter from Odisha, also known as the “first martyr” for the cause of Indian independence?
(a) Jayakrushna Rajguru Mahapatra
(b) Biraharekrushnapur Rajguru
(c) Jayee Rajguru
(d) Puri Mahapatra
Ans: (c) Jayee Rajguru - How many Lok Sabha constituencies does Odisha have?
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 21
(d) 24
Ans: (c) 21 - How many Rajya Sabha members are elected from Odisha by Members of the Odisha State Legislature?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans: (c) 10 - How many members comprise the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 147
(d) 200
Ans: (c) 147 - How many Assembly Constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
(a) 24
(b) 33
(c) 50
(d) 60
Ans: (b) 33 - Which famous dam reservoir is located in the Western region of Odisha?
(a) Rourkela Dam
(b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Sambalpur Dam
(d) Bargarh Dam
Ans: (b) Hirakud Dam - What type of forest tree vegetation is predominant in the Western region of Odisha?
(a) Teak Forests
(b) Sal Forests
(c) Pine Forests
(d) Tropical Dry Deciduous forests
Ans: (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous forests - Which hill range in the Western region of Odisha is renowned for its rich medicinal flora?
(a) Similipal Hill Range
(b) Mahendragiri Hill Range
(c) Gandhamardan Hill Range
(d) Niyamgiri Hill Range
Ans: (c) Gandhamardan Hill Range - What type of forest cover can be found in the Western region of Odisha?
(a) Evergreen Forests
(b) Mangrove Forests
(c) Semi-Evergreen Forests
(d) Tropical Rainforests
Ans: (c) Semi-Evergreen Forests - Which forest range is famous for its large wildlife population in the Western region of Odisha?
(a) Badarama Forest Range
(b) Similipal Forest Range
(c) Lakhari Valley Sanctuary
(d) Chandaka Forest Range
Ans: (c) Lakhari Valley Sanctuary - The Ghumsar Uprising was led by which leader?
(a) Surendra Sai
(b) Madhubandhu Acharya
(c) Chakara Bissoyi
(d) Laxman Naik
Ans: (c) Chakara Bissoyi - The Bhuyan Uprising in Odisha occurred during which year?
(a) 1848
(b) 1855
(c) 1860
(d) 1869
Ans: (b) 1855 - The great famine of 1866 in Odisha was also known as?
(a) Chakara Famine
(b) Garjan Famine
(c) Na-Anka Famine
(d) Konark Famine
Ans: (c) Na-Anka Famine - The estimated death toll of the 1866 famine in Odisha was about how many?
(a) 100,000
(b) 500,000
(c) 1,000,000
(d) 1,500,000
Ans: (c) 1,000,000 - Which socio-religious movement started in Odisha during the British colonial period?
(a) Brahmo Movement
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Mahima Dharma
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d) All of the above - The Portuguese established their settlements in Odisha around which year?
(a) 1525
(b) 1625
(c) 1725
(d) 1825
Ans: (b) 1625 - In which district did the Portuguese establish their settlements in Odisha?
(a) Ganjam
(b) Puri
(c) Balasore
(d) Cuttack
Ans: (c) Balasore - What was the primary change brought about by the Regulating Act of 1773?
(a) It introduced a dual government in Bengal.
(b) It established a Board of Control to oversee the Company’s affairs.
(c) It allowed the British Parliament to regulate civil, military, and revenue affairs in the Company’s territories.
(d) It abolished the position of the Governor-General in Bengal.
Answer: (c) It allowed the British Parliament to regulate civil, military, and revenue affairs in the Company’s territories. - What significant reform was introduced by the Pitt’s India Act of 1784?
(a) It ended the Dual Government and established direct British administration in Bengal.
(b) It created a Board of Control to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.
(c) It reconstituted the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
(d) It granted complete autonomy to the Company’s territories in India.
Answer: (b) It created a Board of Control to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India. - Which Act marked the end of the Dual Government in Bengal?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1813
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (a) Regulating Act of 1773 - What was the main feature of the Charter Act of 1813?
(a) It abolished the Company’s control over the Indian administration.
(b) It allowed the British Parliament to directly administer India.
(c) It continued the control of the Company over the government and revenues of India.
(d) It re-designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
Answer: (c) It continued the control of the Company over the government and revenues of India. - What was the significance of the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) It abolished the dual government system in favor of direct British rule.
(b) It gave exclusive legislative powers to the Governor-General of Bengal.
(c) It established the Board of Control to oversee the administration.
(d) It reconstituted the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
Answer: (d) It reconstituted the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. - What was the role of the Board of Control as established by the Pitt’s India Act of 1784?
(a) To administer the civil, military, and revenue affairs in India directly.
(b) To guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India.
(c) To manage the dual government system in Bengal.
(d) To regulate trade policies of the East India Company.
Answer: (b) To guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India. - Which Act allowed the British Parliament to have supervisory authority over the presidencies of Bombay and Madras?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1813
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (a) Regulating Act of 1773 - Which legislative Act was responsible for re-designating the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1813
(d) Charter Act of 1833
Answer: (d) Charter Act of 1833 - In which year did the British Parliament pass the Regulating Act?
(a) 1772
(b) 1773
(c) 1784
(d) 1813
Answer: (b) 1773 - The Charter Act of 1813 primarily maintained the Company’s control over which aspect of India?
(a) Military affairs
(b) Civil administration
(c) Government and revenues
(d) Legislative powers
Answer: (c) Government and revenues - Who instituted the Ryotwari system?
(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Holt Mackenzie
(c) Sir Thomas Munro
(d) Robert Clive
Answer: (c) Sir Thomas Munro - In which regions was the Ryotwari system primarily practiced?
(a) North-West Frontier, Punjab
(b) Madras, Bombay, Assam, Coorg
(c) Bengal, Bihar, Orissa
(d) Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (b) Madras, Bombay, Assam, Coorg - What was the rate of tax on dryland under the Ryotwari system?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
Answer: (b) 50% - The Mahalwari system was introduced by which British official?
(a) Sir Thomas Munro
(b) Robert Clive
(c) Holt Mackenzie
(d) Warren Hastings
Answer: (c) Holt Mackenzie - What was the state share of revenue in the Mahalwari system?
(a) 50%
(b) 55%
(c) 60%
(d) 66%
Answer: (d) 66% - How were the taxes assessed in the Mahalwari system?
(a) Per landholder
(b) Per Mahal (village group)
(c) Per individual crop
(d) Per acre of land
Answer: (b) Per Mahal (village group) - What was a major difference between the Ryotwari and Zamindari systems?
(a) The role of middlemen
(b) Tax rates
(c) Revenue collection methods
(d) Ownership rights
Answer: (a) The role of middlemen - Under the Ryotwari system, what happened if peasants failed to pay taxes?
(a) They were given an extension
(b) They were evicted
(c) Their lands were leased
(d) Their tax rates were reduced
Answer: (b) They were evicted - The Mahalwari system is considered a Modified Zamindari system because:
(a) It was more beneficial to the peasants
(b) Village headman acted as a Zamindar
(c) Taxes were collected in kind
(d) Revenue was collected directly by the British
Answer: (b) Village headman acted as a Zamindar - What was one major consequence of the British land revenue systems?
(a) Reduction in food insecurity
(b) Increase in private land ownership
(c) Decrease in farmer indebtedness
(d) Elimination of bonded labor
Answer: (b) Increase in private land ownership - Who established the Calcutta Madrassa and in what year?
(a) Jonathan Duncan, 1791
(b) William Carey, 1793
(c) Warren Hastings, 1781
(d) Thomas Babington Macaulay, 1835
Answer: (c) Warren Hastings, 1781 - What was the primary purpose of the missionaries in supporting Western education in India?
(a) To spread rational thinking and scientific principles
(b) To assist in the administration of land
(c) To Christianize and ‘civilize’ the natives
(d) To establish universities
Answer: (c) To Christianize and ‘civilize’ the natives - When did the Charter Act of 1813 come into effect, and what was its significant provision regarding education?
(a) 1791, sanctioned Rs.2 lakh for education
(b) 1813, sanctioned Rs.1 lakh for education
(c) 1835, established the General Committee of Public Instruction
(d) 1854, introduced the Wood’s Despatch
Answer: (b) 1813, sanctioned Rs.1 lakh for education - What was the major conflict within the government regarding the type of education to be provided to Indians?
(a) Language of instruction
(b) Number of schools to be established
(c) Role of missionaries
(d) Funding for education
Answer: (a) Language of instruction - Who was appointed as the Chairman of the General Committee of Public Instruction in 1835, and what was his stance on Indian learning?
(a) Thomas Babington Macaulay, who had contempt for Indian learning
(b) James Prinsep, who supported Indian learning
(c) Sir Charles Wood, who favored traditional education
(d) Henry Thomas Colebrooke, who opposed Western education
Answer: (a) Thomas Babington Macaulay, who had contempt for Indian learning - What was the significance of Wood’s Despatch of 1854?
(a) It established universities in India
(b) It called for the regularization of the education system from primary to university levels
(c) It emphasized the need for scientific and technical education
(d) It founded the Calcutta Medical College
Answer: (b) It called for the regularization of the education system from primary to university levels - Which of the following universities was NOT established by the recommendations of Wood’s Despatch?
(a) University of Madras
(b) University of Bombay
(c) University of Punjab
(d) University of Allahabad
Answer: (c) University of Punjab - According to Macaulay’s minutes, what was his view on the traditional Indian education system?
(a) It was necessary and should be preserved
(b) It was defective and unholy
(c) It should be integrated with Western education
(d) It was superior to Western education
Answer: (b) It was defective and unholy - What was a major criticism of British efforts towards education in India?
(a) High literacy rates among women
(b) Strong emphasis on scientific education
(c) The government’s primary concern was to create a class of clerks rather than to promote widespread education
(d) The rapid spread of Indian languages in schools
Answer: (c) The government’s primary concern was to create a class of clerks rather than to promote widespread education - What was the state of literacy in British India by 1921?
(a) 70%
(b) 84%
(c) 92%
(d) 94%
Answer: (c) 92% - Which of the following is a famous Indian folk painting style from Bihar?
(a) Warli
(b) Madhubani
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Kalamkari
Ans: (b) Madhubani - The Warli painting style originates from which Indian state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (b) Maharashtra - Which painting style is known for its use of natural dyes and depicts themes from Hindu mythology?
(a) Tanjore
(b) Phad
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Gond
Ans: (c) Pattachitra - Kalamkari paintings are primarily associated with which Indian state?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Ans: (b) Andhra Pradesh - Which of the following is not a type of Madhubani painting?
(a) Bharni
(b) Katchni
(c) Tantrik
(d) Gond
Ans: (d) Gond - The Kalighat painting style originated in which Indian city?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai
Ans: (c) Kolkata - Which art form involves narrative scroll painting from Rajasthan?
(a) Kalamkari
(b) Phad
(c) Warli
(d) Pattachitra
Ans: (b) Phad - Which Indian folk painting style uses a series of dots and dashes to create images?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Warli
(c) Gond
(d) Kalighat
Ans: (c) Gond - The Kerala mural paintings predominantly use which colors?
(a) Indigo, ochre, and grey
(b) Red, yellow, and green
(c) Ochre-red, yellow-ochre, bluish-green, white
(d) Black, white, and mustard
Ans: (c) Ochre-red, yellow-ochre, bluish-green, white - What is the primary medium used in Pichhwai paintings?
(a) Canvas
(b) Cloth
(c) Wood
(d) Paper
Ans: (b) Cloth - In which Indian state did the miniature painting style significantly develop under Mughal patronage?
(a) Punjab
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
Ans: (c) Rajasthan - Who is one of the most famous artists associated with the Kalighat painting style?
(a) Raja Ravi Varma
(b) M.F. Husain
(c) Jamini Roy
(d) Amrita Sher-Gil
Ans: (c) Jamini Roy - Gond paintings were traditionally made using which natural materials?
(a) Charcoal, colored soil, plant sap
(b) Synthetic dyes, acrylics, watercolors
(c) Oil paints, enamel, pastels
(d) Ink, graphite, clay
Ans: (a) Charcoal, colored soil, plant sap - Which Indian art form is known for its detailed portrayal of battles and adventures?
(a) Phad
(b) Warli
(c) Kalamkari
(d) Pichhwai
Ans: (a) Phad - Kerala murals date back to which centuries?
(a) 5th and 6th
(b) 7th and 8th
(c) 9th and 10th
(d) 11th and 12th
Ans: (b) 7th and 8th - Which Indian art form is known for its monochromatic hues?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Warli
(c) Kalamkari
(d) Gond
Ans: (b) Warli - Pattachitra painting is closely associated with which temple in Odisha?
(a) Lingaraj Temple
(b) Konark Sun Temple
(c) Jagannath Temple
(d) Mukteshvara Temple
Ans: (c) Jagannath Temple - The painting style known for intricate and detailed miniature work introduced by Mughals is called?
(a) Phad
(b) Warli
(c) Miniature
(d) Madhubani
Ans: (c) Miniature - Which traditional art form involves wall paintings in Kerala temples?
(a) Pichhwai
(b) Pattachitra
(c) Kerala murals
(d) Gond
Ans: (c) Kerala murals - Which painting style is traditionally done on cloth scrolls depicting stories of deities and local heroes?
(a) Kalamkari
(b) Phad
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Warli
Ans: (b) Phad - Which state is known for its Pichhwai paintings?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Odisha
Ans: (c) Rajasthan - The folk art that uses rice paste on mud walls to depict daily activities of a tribe is known as?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Warli
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Kalamkari
Ans: (b) Warli - Which painting style involves the use of a pen for intricate details and is associated with Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Pattachitra
(b) Gond
(c) Kalamkari
(d) Warli
Ans: (c) Kalamkari - Madhubani paintings are traditionally done by which community?
(a) Gond tribe
(b) Warli tribe
(c) Maithili community
(d) Patuas
Ans: (c) Maithili community - The painting style that evolved in the 19th century in Kolkata and is known for its depiction of mythological deities is?
(a) Phad
(b) Kalighat
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Warli
Ans: (b) Kalighat - Which traditional art form is characterized by the use of vibrant colors and depictions of Lord Krishna?
(a) Phad
(b) Kalamkari
(c) Pichhwai
(d) Madhubani
Ans: (c) Pichhwai - Which painting style is known for its depiction of local deities and heroes in Rajasthan?
(a) Warli
(b) Phad
(c) Pattachitra
(d) Kalighat
Ans: (b) Phad - The traditional art form from Odisha known for its mythological themes and bold outlines is?
(a) Pattachitra
(b) Warli
(c) Kalamkari
(d) Gond
Ans: (a) Pattachitra - Which painting style is associated with temple art and narratives in Kerala?
(a) Pichhwai
(b) Gond
(c) Kerala murals
(d) Phad
Ans: (c) Kerala murals - The painting style that combines Islamic, Persian, and Indian elements and is known for its fine brushwork is?
(a) Madhubani
(b) Miniature
(c) Warli
(d) Kalighat
Ans: (b) Miniature - Which country will host the 2025 Men’s Asia Cup in T20 format?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Ans: (a) India - Who became the first Asian men to be inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame in 2024?
(a) Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi
(b) Vijay Amritraj and Mahesh Bhupathi
(c) Leander Paes and Vijay Amritraj
(d) Rohan Bopanna and Somdev Devvarman
Ans: (c) Leander Paes and Vijay Amritraj - Who is the brand ambassador for MotoGP India as announced by Eurosport India?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Shikhar Dhawan
(c) MS Dhoni
(d) Rohit Sharma
Ans: (b) Shikhar Dhawan - Where has Chennai Super Kings set up their third international Super Kings Academy?
(a) London
(b) Sydney
(c) New York
(d) Toronto
Ans: (b) Sydney - What is India’s position in the latest FIFA men’s rankings released in 2024?
(a) 100th
(b) 110th
(c) 124th
(d) 130th
Ans: (c) 124th - How many venues will be used for the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) 45
Ans: (b) 35 - Which of the following is NOT a new sport added to the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Breaking (Breakdancing)
(b) Sport Climbing
(c) Skateboarding
(d) Baseball
Ans: (d) Baseball - What medal did Manu Bhaker win in the women’s 10m air pistol event at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) None
Ans: (c) Bronze - Who secured a bronze medal in the 10m Air Pistol Mixed Team event at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Manu Bhaker and Abhishek Verma
(b) Manu Bhaker and Saurabh Chaudhary
(c) Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot Singh
(d) Manu Bhaker and Rahi Sarnobat
Ans: (c) Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot Singh - Who won the 2024 Formula 1 Rolex Belgian Grand Prix after George Russell’s disqualification?
(a) Max Verstappen
(b) Lewis Hamilton
(c) Charles Leclerc
(d) Sergio Perez
Ans: (b) Lewis Hamilton - Which team won the maiden Women’s Asia Cup title in 2024?
(a) India
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh
Ans: (c) Sri Lanka - Who secured their first Formula 2 victory at the Hungarian Grand Prix in 2024?
(a) Jehan Daruvala
(b) Kush Maini
(c) Mick Schumacher
(d) Guanyu Zhou
Ans: (b) Kush Maini - Which team did Argentina defeat to clinch their second consecutive Copa America title in 2024?
(a) Brazil
(b) Uruguay
(c) Chile
(d) Colombia
Ans: (d) Colombia - Who retired from international football following the conclusion of Euro 2024?
(a) Lionel Messi
(b) Cristiano Ronaldo
(c) Thomas Müller
(d) Sergio Ramos
Ans: (c) Thomas Müller - Which team won the World Championship of Legends 2024?
(a) Australia Legends
(b) West Indies Legends
(c) India Legends
(d) Pakistan Legends
Ans: (c) India Legends - Who won the Men’s Singles title at Wimbledon 2024?
(a) Novak Djokovic
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Roger Federer
(d) Carlos Alcaraz
Ans: (d) Carlos Alcaraz - Who won the Women’s Singles title at Wimbledon 2024?
(a) Ashleigh Barty
(b) Simona Halep
(c) Barbora Krejčíková
(d) Iga Swiatek
Ans: (c) Barbora Krejčíková - Which doubles pair won the Mixed Doubles title at Wimbledon 2024?
(a) Barbora Krejčíková & Nikola Mektić
(b) Hsieh Su-Wei & Jan Zielinski
(c) Taylor Townsend & Katerina Siniakova
(d) Gabriela Dabrowski & Erin Routliffe
Ans: (b) Hsieh Su-Wei & Jan Zielinski - Who announced their retirement from Test cricket in 2024?
(a) Stuart Broad
(b) James Anderson
(c) Tim Southee
(d) Pat Cummins
Ans: (b) James Anderson - Which company has partnered with the Indian Olympic Association for the Paris Olympics 2024 as the Official Footwear Partner?
(a) Adidas
(b) Nike
(c) Puma
(d) Reebok
Ans: (c) Puma - Who is the principal sponsor for the Indian contingent at the 2024 Paris Olympics?
a) Tata Group
(b) Reliance Industries
(c) Adani Group
(d) Infosys
Ans: (c) Adani Group - Who has been appointed as India’s Chef-De-Mission for the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Abhinav Bindra
(b) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
(c) Gagan Narang
(d) Pullela Gopichand
Ans: (c) Gagan Narang - Who won the ICC Men’s Player of the Month for June 2024?
(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Rohit Sharma
(c) Jasprit Bumrah
(d) Rishabh Pant
Ans: (c) Jasprit Bumrah - How many athletes are in India’s squad for the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) 100
(b) 110
(c) 117
(d) 120
Ans: (c) 117 - Which sport has the largest representation from India at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Shooting
(b) Hockey
(c) Boxing
(d) Athletics
Ans: (d) Athletics - Who are the flag bearers for India at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Mary Kom and Manpreet Singh
(b) Sharath Kamal Achanta and P.V. Sindhu
(c) Saina Nehwal and Bajrang Punia
(d) Vinesh Phogat and Neeraj Chopra
Ans: (b) Sharath Kamal Achanta and P.V. Sindhu - Which event did Carlos Alcaraz win at Wimbledon 2024?
(a) Men’s Singles
(b) Men’s Doubles
(c) Mixed Doubles
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Men’s Singles - Who did Barbora Krejčíková defeat to win the Women’s Singles title at Wimbledon 2024?
(a) Simona Halep
(b) Iga Swiatek
(c) Ashleigh Barty
(d) Jasmine Paolini
Ans: (d) Jasmine Paolini - Which Indian athlete won a bronze medal in the women’s 10m air pistol event at the Paris Olympics 2024?
(a) Manu Bhaker
(b) Vinesh Phogat
(c) Sakshi Malik
(d) Mirabai Chanu
Ans: (a) Manu Bhaker - Which Indian tennis legends were inducted into the International Tennis Hall of Fame in 2024?
(a) Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi
(b) Vijay Amritraj and Leander Paes
(c) Sania Mirza and Mahesh Bhupathi
(d) Leander Paes and Ramesh Krishnan
Ans: (b) Vijay Amritraj and Leander Paes - Noise is measured in which unit?
(a) Watt
(b) Faraday
(c) Pascal
(d) Decibel
Answer: (d) Decibel - The SI unit of electric charge is?
(a) Volt
(b) Ohm
(c) Coulomb
(d) Watt
Answer: (c) Coulomb - For what is Mohs scale used?
(a) To measure brightness of a substance
(b) To measure viscosity of a liquid
(c) To measure elasticity of a material
(d) To measure hardness of minerals
Answer: (d) To measure hardness of minerals - An anemometer measures which of the following?
(a) Speed of light
(b) Speed of wind
(c) Speed of water current
(d) Speed of satellites
Answer: (b) Speed of wind - Humidity of air is measured by?
(a) Hygrometer
(b) Nanometer
(c) Glucometer
(d) Barometer
Answer: (a) Hygrometer - The mass of an object?
(a) changes from place to place
(b) remains same everywhere
(c) is equal to its weight
(d) is greater at mountains
Answer: (b) remains same everywhere - Newton’s first law is also known as?
(a) Law of friction
(b) Law of moments
(c) Law of Inertia
(d) Law of motion
Answer: (c) Law of Inertia - Rocket propulsion technology works on which of the following scientific principles?
(a) Laws of reflection of sound
(b) Newton’s law of motion
(c) Law of thermodynamics
(d) Law of conservation of mass
Answer: (b) Newton’s law of motion - If a ball is thrown up, which of the following does not change?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Potential energy
(d) Distance
Answer: (a) Acceleration - Acceleration is?
(a) Inversely proportional to force
(b) Inversely proportional to mass
(c) Directly proportional to mass
(d) Directly proportional to force
Answer: (b) Inversely proportional to mass - Who among the following coined the term ‘cell’?
(a) Theodor Schwann
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Oswald Avery
(d) Gerhard Domagk
Answer: (b) - The suicidal bags of the cell are:
(a) Lysosomes
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Dictyosomes
(d) Phagosomes
Answer: (a) - In which part of the cell are proteins made?
(a) Reticulum
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Lysosome
Answer: (c) - Name the scientist who proposed the cell theory.
(a) Schleiden and Schwann
(b) Lamarck
(c) Treviranus
(d) Whittaker and Stanley
Answer: (a) - Which cell organelle is also called the ‘power house of a cell’?
(a) Lysosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Golgi Apparatus
(d) Plastids
Answer: (b) - The cell wall of a plant is composed of:
(a) Lipoprotein
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Cellulose
(d) Lipids
Answer: (c) - What is contained in Chlorophyll?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Manganese
(d) Magnesium
Answer: (d) - Which part of a plant cell traps sunlight to make sugar?
(a) Chloroplast
(b) Leucoplast
(c) Chromoplast
(d) Starch grain
Answer: (a) - Which of the following is not connective tissue?
(a) Bone
(b) Cartilage
(c) Blood
(d) Skeletal muscle
Answer: (d) - Skeletal muscles are attached to the skeleton by tough connective tissues called ……………
(a) Cartilage
(b) Neurons
(c) Ligament
(d) Tendons
Answer: (d) - People living in high altitudes (like mountains) usually have a _________?
(a) smaller number of Red Blood Cells
(b) larger number of Red Blood Cells
(c) smaller number of White Blood Cells
(d) larger number of White Blood Cells
Ans. (b) larger number of Red Blood Cells - The blue colour of clear sky is due to_______________?
(a) Reflection of light
(b) Refraction of light
(c) Diffraction of light
(d) Dispersion of light
Ans. (d) Dispersion of light - A device that converts mechanical energy into electric energy is called_______?
(a) Motor
(b) Transformer
(c) Coil
(d) Generator
Ans. (d) Generator - _________ is anything that takes up space and has mass.
(a) Matter
(b) Gravity
(c) Energy
(d) Plasma
Ans. (a) Matter - All matter is made of ___________?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Vibrations
(d) Atoms
Ans. (d) Atoms - What are considered the building blocks of matter?
(a) Molecules
(b) Protons
(c) Elements
(d) Atoms
Ans. (d) Atoms - What are the three subatomic particles of an atom?
(a) Protons, Neutrons & Electrons
(b) Protons, Nucleus & Electrons
(c) Protons, Nucleus & Elements
(d) Elements, Nucleus & Protons
Ans. (a) Protons, Neutrons & Electrons - The protons and neutrons are found in the center of the atom, which is called the _________of the atom?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Headquarters
(c) Hub
(d) None of These
Ans. (a) Nucleus - _____________ are positively (+) charged particles?
(a) Neutrons
(b) Electrons
(c) Protons
(d) None of These
Ans. (c) Protons - ___________ are negatively (-) charged particles of an atom?
(a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) None of These
Ans. (c) Electrons - ସମାସ ବାକ୍ୟ ନଥାଇ ସମାସ ହେଲେ ତାକୁ କି ସମାସ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
(b) ଦ୍ବିଗୁ
(c) ନିତ୍ୟ
(d) ନଞ୍ଜ ତତ୍ପୁରୁଷ
Ans:(c) ନିତ୍ୟ - ଅବ୍ୟୟପଦ ପୂର୍ବପଦ ରୂପେ ରହି ଅନ୍ୟୁପଦ ସହିତ ସମାନ ହେଲେ ଓ ଅବ୍ୟୟ ପଦର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ଥିଲେ ଯେଉଁ ସମାସ ହୁଏ ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି |
(a) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
(b) ଦ୍ବନ୍ଦ୍ବ
(c) ଅବ୍ୟୟୀଭାବ
(d) ତତପୁରୁଷ
Ans: (c) ଅବ୍ୟୟୀଭାବ - ଯେଉଁ ସମାସରେ ସମସ୍ତ ପଦ ସମସ୍ୟମାନ ପଦମାନଙ୍କ ଭିତରୁ କାହାରି ଅର୍ଥକୁ ନ ବୁଝାଇ ଅନ୍ୟକୁ ବୁଝାଏ ତାକୁ କି ସମାସ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
(b) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
(c) ଦ୍ବିଗୁ
(d) ଦ୍ବନ୍ଦ୍ବ
Ans: (a) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
ଯୌଗିକ ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ସରଳ ବାକ୍ୟ ରେ ପରିଣତ କର ? - ରାତି ହେଲା ଏବଂ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(a) ରାତିହେବାରୁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(b) ରାତି ହେଲା ତେଣୁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(c) ରାତି ହେଲା ସେଥିପାଇଁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
(d) ଯେବେ ରାତି ହେଲା ସେତେବେଳେ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ ।
Ans. (a)ରାତିହେବାରୁ ପକ୍ଷିମାନେ ନିଜନିଜ ବସାକୁ ଫେରିଲେ । - “ଅଧାରୁ ବେଶୀ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅତ୍ୟାଧିକ
(b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧାଧିକ
(c) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(d) ଅତିକଠୋର
Ans: (b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧାଧିକ - “ଅଧିକ ଘଞ୍ଚ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(b) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
(c) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
(d) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ
Ans: (a) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ - “ଅଧିକ ନିଦ୍ରା ଯିବା ସ୍ଵଭାବ ଯାହାର” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(b) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
(c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
(d) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧାଧିକ
Ans: (c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ - “ଅଧିକ ଉକ୍ତି” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
(b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧାଧିକ
(c) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(d) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
Ans: (a) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି - “ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟରେ ପ୍ରବର୍ତ୍ତାନ୍ତି ଯେ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
(b) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ
(c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
(d) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
Ans: (b) ଅଧ୍ୟାପକ - “ଆଗରେ ଜନ୍ମ ନେଇଛି ଯେ” – ଗୋଟିଏ ପଦରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
(a) ଅଗ୍ରସର
(b) ଅଗ୍ରଜ
(c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
(d) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
Ans: (b) ଅଗ୍ରଜ - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) ଉତ୍କର୍ଷ
(b) ଉତ୍କର୍ସତା
(c) ଉତ୍କର୍ଷତା
(d) ଉତ୍କର୍ଷତ୍ୱ
Ans: (a) ଉତ୍କର୍ଷ - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) ପୁରାସ୍କାର
(b) ପୁରସ୍କାର
(c) ପୁରଷ୍କାର
(d) ପୂରସ୍କାର
Ans: (b) ପୁରସ୍କାର - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ରତମ
(b) କ୍ଷୂଦ୍ରତମ
(c) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ରତ୍ତ୍ୱମ
(d) କ୍ଷୂଦ୍ରତ୍ତ୍ୱମ
Ans: (a) କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ରତମ - କେଉଁଟି କୁକୁଡ଼ା ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ?
(a) ଜୀମୁତ
(b) କାଳଜ୍ଞ
(c) ଘୁକାରି
(d) ଧୂଳିଜଂଘ
Ans: (b) କାଳଜ୍ଞ - କେଉଁଟି ଘୋଡ଼ା ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ?
(a) ତୁରଙ୍ଗ
(b) ଜୀମୁତ
(c) କାଳଜ୍ଞ
(d) ଘୁକାରି
Ans: (a) ତୁରଙ୍ଗ - ମୃଗାଙ୍କ କାହାର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ?
(a) ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର
(b) କୁକୁଡ଼ା
(c) ଚଢେଇ
(d) ଛେଳି
Ans: (a) ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବାଛ ?
(a) ଚତୁଷ୍ପଦ
(b) ଚତୁସ୍ପାଦ
(c) ଚତୁଃସ୍ପଦ
(d) ଚତୁଷ୍ପାଦ
Ans: (a) ଚତୁଷ୍ପଦ - ମହୀରୁଦ କାହାର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ?
(a) ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର
(b) କୁକୁଡ଼ା
(c) ଚଢେଇ
(d) ଗଛ
Ans: (d) ଗଛ - ଉଭୟ ପଦର ଅର୍ଥ ର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ରହିଲେ କି ସମାସ ହୁଏ ?
(a) ଦ୍ଵନ୍ଦ
(b) କର୍ମଧାରାୟ
(c) ଦ୍ୱିଗୁ
(d) ତତପୁରୁଷ
Ans: (a) ଦ୍ଵନ୍ଦ - ‘ତାଳୁରେ ତେନ୍ତୁଳିଆ ବିଛା କାମୁଡ଼ିବା’ – ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଦେହ ଖରାପ ହେବା
(b) ମୁଣ୍ଡ ବିନ୍ଧିବା
(c) ବିଛା କାମୁଡ଼ିବା
(d) ଘୋର ଚିନ୍ତାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ ହେବା
Ans. (d) ଘୋର ଚିନ୍ତାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ ହେବା - ‘ଦକ୍ଷଯଜ୍ଞ’ ରୂଢିଟିର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଗୁପ୍ତରେ ଅନିଷ୍ଟ କରିବା
(b) ତୁମୁଳ କାଣ୍ଡ
(c) ଯଜ୍ଞ କରିବା
(d) ପୂଜା କରିବା
Ans. (b) ତୁମୁଳ କାଣ୍ଡ - ‘ପୟୋଦ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ଅର୍ଥ କ’ଣ?
(a) ଅଗ୍ନି
(b) ପବନ
(c) ଜଳ
(d) ମେଘ
Ans. (d) ମେଘ - ‘ କ୍ଷତ୍ରିୟ’ ଶବ୍ଦର ପ୍ରକୃତି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର |
(a) ରାଜବଂଶ
(b) ଯେ କ୍ଷତ ରୁ ତ୍ରାଣ କରେ
(c) ଯେ କ୍ଷେତରେ କାମକରେ
(d) ଏକ ଜାତି
Ans. (b) ଯେ କ୍ଷତ ରୁ ତ୍ରାଣ କରେ - ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ଏକ ଦେଶଜ ଶବ୍ଦ?
(a) ରେଳବାଇ
(b) ସିରସ୍ତା
(c) ମାଖନ୍
(d) ମୁର୍ଦ୍ଦାର
. Ans. (c) ମାଖନ୍ - ‘ବଦ’ ଧାତୁ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଇଥିବା ଉପସର୍ଗଯୁକ୍ତ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ।
(a) ଅପବାଦ
(b) ଅବସ୍ଥାନ
(c) ଅପକାର
(d) ଆଗମନ
Ans. (a) ଅପବାଦ - ‘ଗଳଗ୍ରହ’ ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ ନିରୂପଣ କର?
(a) ପ୍ରିୟ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି
(b) ଶ୍ରମିକ
(c) ଅବସ୍ଥିତ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି
(d) ଶିଶୁ
Ans. (c) ଅବସ୍ଥିତ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି - ‘ଦିନକୁ ରାତି କରିବା’ ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ ନିରୂପଣ କର ।
(a) ଏପଟସେପଟ ହେବା
(b) ଓଲଟାଇବା
(c) ସତକୁ ମିଛରେ ପରିଣତ କରିବା
(d) ତିଳକୁ ତାଳ କରିବା
Ans. (c) ସତକୁ ମିଛରେ ପରିଣତ କରିବା - ଗୁଣବାଚକ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟର ଗୁଣ କହିଲେ କ’ଣ ବୁଝାଏ?
(a) ଭଲ ଗୁଣ
(b) ମନ୍ଦ ଗୁଣ
(c) ଉଭୟ ଭଲ ଓ ମନ୍ଦ ଗୁଣ
(d) ବିଶେଷ ଗୁଣ
Ans.(c) ଉଭୟ ଭଲ ଓ ମନ୍ଦ ଗୁଣ - ଉନ୍ନତି ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ଅବିନାଶ
(b) ଅବନତି
(c) ଅଭିଜ୍ଞ
(d) ଅନନ୍ତ
Ans: (b) ଅବନତି - ଆନନ୍ଦ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
(a) ନିରାଶା
(b) ନିରାନନ୍ଦ / ବିଷାଦ
(c) ନିରୁଦବେଗ
(d) ନିର୍ମାଳ
Ans: (b) ନିରାନନ୍ଦ / ବିଷାଦ - How much has been allocated for Programme Expenditure in the Odisha Budget 2024-25?
(a) Rs. 1,25,000 crore
(b) Rs. 1,50,000 crore
(c) Rs. 1,55,000 crore
(d) Rs. 1,60,000 crore
Ans: (c) Rs. 1,55,000 crore - What is the capital outlay for 2024-25 in the Odisha Budget?
(a) Rs. 55,000 crore
(b) Rs. 57,000 crore
(c) Rs. 58,195 crore
(d) Rs. 60,000 crore
Ans: (c) Rs. 58,195 crore - How much has been allocated for the Agriculture and Allied sector in the Odisha Budget 2024-25?
(a) Rs. 30,000 crore
(b) Rs. 32,000 crore
(c) Rs. 33,919 crore
(d) Rs. 35,000 crore
Ans: (c) Rs. 33,919 crore - Who recently announced plans to enforce exclusive use of Odia in all official communications in Odisha?
(a) Naveen Patnaik
(b) Mohan Charan Majhi
(c) Jagannath Mohapatra
(d) Biswa Bhusan Harichandan
Ans: (b) Mohan Charan Majhi - What significant amendment was introduced in the Orissa Official Language Act in 2018?
(a) Allowing the use of Hindi in addition to Odia
(b) Introducing penalties for non-compliance
(c) Making English the sole official language
(d) Allowing use of Odia numerals only
Ans: (b) Introducing penalties for non-compliance - Which committee has been established to advance medical education in Odia in Odisha?
(a) Medical Education Enhancement Committee
(b) Odia Language Medical Committee
(c) Committee to Promote Medical Education in Odia
(d) Odisha Medical Language Development Committee
Ans: (c) Committee to Promote Medical Education in Odia - What is the main objective of the Committee to Promote Medical Education in Odia?
(a) Develop new medical colleges
(b) Translate essential MBBS course materials into Odia
(c) Improve hospital infrastructure
(d) Increase medical admissions
Ans: (b) Translate essential MBBS course materials into Odia - Which university signed an MoU with Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL) for joint research and training?
(a) Utkal University
(b) KIIT University
(c) SOA University
(d) Berhampur University
Ans: (c) SOA University - Where is the headquarters of Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL) located?
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Ans: (b) Chennai - What unique safari is planned to be established near the Similipal Tiger Reserve in Odisha?
(a) White tiger safari
(b) Bengal tiger safari
(c) Melanistic tiger safari
(d) Snow leopard safari
Ans: (c) Melanistic tiger safari - How many hectares will the melanistic tiger safari near Similipal Tiger Reserve span?
(a) 100 hectares
(b) 150 hectares
(c) 200 hectares
(d) 250 hectares
Ans: (b) 150 hectares - What is the estimated budget for the coastal highway project in Odisha?
(a) Rs 5,000 crore
(b) Rs 8,000 crore
(c) Rs 10,000 crore
(d) Rs 12,000 crore
Ans: (b) Rs 8,000 crore - Which project is set to be revived to connect seven coastal districts of Odisha?
(a) Coastal Highway Project
(b) Odisha Expressway Project
(c) Eastern Corridor Road Project
(d) Green Corridor Initiative
Ans: (a) Coastal Highway Project - How many coal mines in Odisha have recently been finalized for development under Coal Mining Development and Production Agreements?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans: (c) Three - Which river system is the focus of Odisha’s ambitious irrigation project, Brutang?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Godavari
(c) Brahmani
(d) Krishna
Ans: (a) Mahanadi - What was the overall SDG score of Odisha in the 2023-24 SDG Index?
(a) 61
(b) 66
(c) 71
(d) 75
Ans: (b) 66 - Which Odisha initiative is aimed at providing free rooftop solar installations to households?
(a) Surya Shakti Yojana
(b) Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana
(c) Solar Power for All Scheme
(d) Green Energy Initiative
Ans: (b) Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana - When is the Subhadra Yojana scheduled to be launched?
(a) August 15
(b) September 17
(c) October 2
(d) November 1
Ans: (b) September 17 - What is the name of Odisha’s first Kaushal Bhawan inaugurated by the Chief Minister?
(a) Kaushal Training Center
(b) Skill Development Hub
(c) Kaushal Bhawan
(d) Talent Development Center
Ans: (c) Kaushal Bhawan - How many additional Kaushal Bhawans are planned to be established in Odisha?
(a) Five
(b) Seven
(c) Nine
(d) Twelve
Ans: (c) Nine - Which prestigious hotels are enlisted as placement partners for the Kaushal Bhawan?
(a) Taj, Marriott, Hilton
(b) Taj, Mayfair, Ginger
(c) Radisson, Hyatt, Oberoi
(d) Leela, Hyatt, ITC Hotels
Ans: (b) Taj, Mayfair, Ginger - What is the significant goal of the PM SHRI Schools initiative?
(a) Enhance infrastructure
(b) Implement NEP-2020 curriculum
(c) Increase school admissions
(d) Provide free textbooks
Ans: (b) Implement NEP-2020 curriculum - Which Odisha project aims to address urban flooding with a significant investment?
(a) Bhubaneswar Flood Management Initiative
(b) Cuttack Flood Control Project
(c) Urban Flood Management Initiative
(d) Smart City Flood Solution
Ans: (c) Urban Flood Management Initiative - What is the investment amount announced for railway projects in Odisha over the next five years?
(a) ₹50,000 crore
(b) ₹75,000 crore
(c) ₹1 lakh crore
(d) ₹1.5 lakh crore
Ans: (c) ₹1 lakh crore - Which company won the Kalinga Energy Excellence Award for its Lanjigarh alumina refinery?
(a) Hindalco
(b) Vedanta Aluminium
(c) Nalco
(d) Jindal Aluminium
Ans: (b) Vedanta Aluminium - What is the focus of the Brutang Irrigation Project?
(a) Enhancing water supply
(b) Providing irrigation for 23,000 hectares
(c) Urban water management
(d) Constructing dams
Ans: (b) Providing irrigation for 23,000 hectares - What innovative pavement solution has been developed by IIT Bhubaneswar?
(a) Reinforced concrete pavements
(b) Pervious concrete pavements
(c) High-strength asphalt pavements
(d) Flexible composite pavements
Ans: (b) Pervious concrete pavements - Where will the melanistic tigers for the new safari come from?
(a) Nandankanan Zoo and Ranthambore
(b) Nandankanan Zoo and Ranchi
(c) Kanha National Park and Ranthambore
(d) Jim Corbett National Park and Ranchi
Ans: (b) Nandankanan Zoo and Ranchi - Which new scheme is set to provide Rs 50,000 cash vouchers to women in Odisha?
(a) Subhadra Yojana
(b) Mahila Vikas Yojana
(c) Empowerment Cash Scheme
(d) Sakhi Yojana
Ans: (a) Subhadra Yojana - What is the focus of the PM SHRI Schools initiative?
(a) Providing free uniforms
(b) Upgrading infrastructure and curriculum
(c) Reducing student fees
(d) Increasing teacher salaries
Ans: (b) Upgrading infrastructure and curriculum - Which new development was recently approved to improve Bhubaneswar and Cuttack’s flood management?
(a) Rs 100 crore project
(b) Rs 150 crore project
(c) Rs 200 crore project
(d) Rs 250 crore project
Ans: (c) Rs 200 crore project - What is a mountain?
(a) A flat land
(b) A steep-sided elevated portion of the Earth’s crust
(c) A lowland
(d) A valley
Ans: (b) - Which of the following is a characteristic of fold mountains?
(a) They are formed by volcanic activity
(b) They have rugged relief and high conical peaks
(c) They are large masses of land broken and displaced vertically
(d) They are flat-topped table lands
Ans: (b) - The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are examples of:
(a) Block Mountains
(b) Volcanic Mountains
(c) Fold Mountains
(d) Coastal Plains
Ans: (c) - What are glaciers?
(a) Large deposits of minerals
(b) Permanently frozen rivers of ice in mountains
(c) Elevated flat lands
(d) Deep valleys in mountains
Ans: (b) - Which of the following is NOT a type of mountain?
(a) Fold Mountains
(b) Block Mountains
(c) Volcanic Mountains
(d) Coastal Mountains
Ans: (d) - The Deccan Plateau is located in which country?
(a) China
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) Kenya
Ans: (c) - What is a plateau?
(a) An elevated flat land
(b) A deep valley
(c) A coastal plain
(d) A mountain range
Ans: (a) - Which of the following plateaus is the highest in the world?
(a) The East African Plateau
(b) The Western Plateau of Australia
(c) The Chhotanagpur Plateau
(d) The Tibet Plateau
Ans: (d) - Which plain is primarily treeless and has flat terrain?
(a) The Tibetan Plateau
(b) The African Plateau
(c) The Ganga Plain
(d) The Deccan Plateau
Ans: (c) - Why are plains generally very fertile?
(a) They have rugged terrain
(b) They are elevated lands
(c) They are flat lands with rich soil deposits
(d) They have large mineral deposits
Ans: (c) - Where does the Satluj river originate?
(a) Rohtang Pass
(b) Baralacha Pass
(c) Rakas Tal
(d) Verinag
Answer: (c) Rakas Tal - Which river meets the Satluj at Hari-ke-Patan in Punjab?
(a) Ravi
(b) Beas
(c) Chenab
(d) Jhelum
Answer: (b) Beas - What is the local name of the Satluj river in Tibet?
(a) Chandrabhaga
(b) Langechen Khambab
(c) Kati
(d) Verinag
Answer: (b) Langechen Khambab - Which river originates from Beas Kund near Rohtang Pass?
(a) Satluj
(b) Ravi
(c) Chenab
(d) Beas
Answer: (d) Beas - Which river is known for forming gorges at Kati and Largi in the Dhauladhar range?
(a) Jhelum
(b) Chenab
(c) Ravi
(d) Beas
Answer: (d) Beas - The Ravi river drains the area lying between which two ranges?
(a) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal
(b) Karakoram and Pir Panjal
(c) Zaskar and Dhauladhar
(d) Dhauladhar and Karakoram
Answer: (a) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal - Which river is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga streams?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Beas
(d) Satluj
Answer: (b) Chenab - Where does the Jhelum river join the Chenab river?
(a) Srinagar
(b) Keylong
(c) Harike
(d) Jhang
Answer: (d) Jhang - Which river is entirely within India?
(a) Satluj
(b) Beas
(c) Ravi
(d) Chenab
Answer: (b) Beas - Which river enters Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge?
(a) Ravi
(b) Chenab
(c) Jhelum
(d) Beas
Answer: (c) Jhelum - Which local wind is known to blow across Brazil?
(a) Alize
(b) Abrolhos
(c) Harmattan
(d) Pampero
Ans: (b) Abrolhos - The Alisio wind is primarily found in which region?
(a) India
(b) South Africa
(c) Caribbean
(d) Argentina
Ans: (c) Caribbean - The Alize wind affects which of the following regions?
(a) Central Africa and the Caribbean
(b) Russia
(c) Alps, North Italy
(d) Southern Hemisphere
Ans: (a) Central Africa and the Caribbean - Which wind is known to blow in Russia?
(a) Barguzin wind
(b) Ghibli
(c) Loo
(d) Chinook
Ans: (a) Barguzin wind - The Berg wind is associated with which country?
(a) Libya
(b) South Africa
(c) India
(d) Uruguay
Ans: (b) South Africa - Which wind is known to blow in Central Africa?
(a) Föhn
(b) Southerly Buster
(c) Harmattan
(d) Abrolhos
Ans: (c) Harmattan - The Ghibli wind is a hot and dry wind that blows in which country?
(a) India
(b) Libya
(c) Brazil
(d) Sydney
Ans: (b) Libya - The Loo is a hot wind that affects which regions?
(a) South Africa and Uruguay
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) Russia and Central Africa
(d) Rocky Mountains and North Italy
Ans: (b) India and Pakistan - The Pampero wind is a cold front wind that blows in which of the following regions?
(a) Brazil and Uruguay
(b) Argentina and Uruguay
(c) Central Africa and the Caribbean
(d) Southern Hemisphere and North Italy
Ans: (b) Argentina and Uruguay - The Föhn or foehn wind is commonly associated with which region?
(a) Alps, North Italy
(b) Sydney
(c) Libya
(d) Central Africa
Ans: (a) Alps, North Italy - Which of the following historical regions are part of present-day Odisha?
(a) Koshal, Odra, Utkal
(b) Utkal, Kalinga, Kangoda
(c) Koshal, Kalinga, Odra
(d) Koshal, Odra, Utkal, Kalinga, Kangoda
Ans. (d) - During which epic period did Kalinga, Utkal, and Odra become powerful kingdoms?
(a) Ramayana
(b) Mahabharat
(c) Vedas
(d) Purans
Ans. (b) - In which religious texts is the historic name of Kalinga mentioned?
(a) Ramayana and Mahabharat
(b) Vedas and Upanishads
(c) Maschhya, Kurma, Bayu, and Skandha Purans
(d) Garuda Puran and Haribansa
Ans. (c) - According to some historians, what does “Kalinga” symbolize?
(a) The symbol of Lord Vishnu
(b) The symbol of Lord Brahma
(c) The symbol of Lord Siva
(d) The symbol of Lord Indra
Ans. (c) - Which interpretation is derived from Garuda Puran and Haribansa regarding the name “Kalinga”?
(a) Kalinga was named after a river
(b) Kalinga was one of the five sons of Queen Sudeshna and King Baliraj
(c) Kalinga was a famous mountain
(d) Kalinga was a revered sage
Ans. (b) - What does the territorial extent of the ancient Kalinga Empire represent today?
(a) The state of West Bengal
(b) The state of Bihar
(c) The state of Odisha
(d) The state of Andhra Pradesh
Ans. (c) - The political history of Odisha begins with the rule of which dynasty?
(a) Maurya
(b) Gupta
(c) Nanda
(d) Chola
Ans. (c) - Which inscription refers to the Nanda kings and their rule over Odisha?
(a) Rock Edict of Ashoka
(b) Hatigumpha inscription of Kharavela
(c) Allahabad Pillar inscription
(d) Nasik Cave inscription
Ans. (b) - During whose reign did the Kalinga War take place?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Bindusara
(c) Ashoka
(d) Harsha
Ans. (c) - What was the outcome of the Kalinga War on Emperor Ashoka?
(a) He expanded his empire further
(b) He became a ruthless ruler
(c) He converted to Buddhism and renounced violence
(d) He lost his empire
Ans. (c) - Kharavela ruled in the first half of which century B.C.?
(a) 1st Century B.C.
(b) 2nd Century B.C.
(c) 3rd Century B.C.
(d) 4th Century B.C.
Ans: (b) 2nd Century B.C. - The Hatigumpha inscription mentions that Kharavela belonged to which family and clan?
(a) Maurya family, Nanda clan
(b) Mahameghavahana family, Chedi clan
(c) Gupta family, Vakataka clan
(d) Chola family, Pandya clan
Ans: (b) Mahameghavahana family, Chedi clan - Where were the Chedis originally ruling before they migrated to Kalinga?
(a) Madhyadesa or Magadha
(b) Gandhara or Takshashila
(c) Avanti or Ujjain
(d) Kashi or Varanasi
Ans: (a) Madhyadesa or Magadha - Which title did Kharavela use to refer to himself?
(a) Chakravartin
(b) Samrat
(c) Chetaraja-Vamsa Vardhana
(d) Mahadhipati
Ans: (c) Chetaraja-Vamsa Vardhana - Who was defeated by Kharavela during his reign?
(a) Ashoka the Great
(b) Satakarni
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Harsha
Ans: (b) Satakarni - In which year of his rule did Kharavela defeat King Brihaspati Mitra of Magadha?
(a)5th year
(b) 8th year
(c) 10th year
(d) 13th year
Ans: (d) 13th year - Which Chinese traveler’s account confirms Harsha’s conquest of Odisha?
(a) Fa-Hien
(b) I-Tsing
(c) Hiuen Tsang
(d) Marco Polo
Ans: (c) Hiuen Tsang - Harsha offered the revenue of how many large towns of Odisha to the Buddhist scholar Jayasena?
(a) Sixty
(b) Seventy
(c) Eighty
(d) Ninety
Ans: (c) Eighty
