Aspirants preparing for the OSSSC RI (Revenue Inspector), ARI (Assistant Revenue Inspector), and Amin examinations are gearing up for the challenges ahead. These roles are pivotal in the administration of revenue and land records, requiring a deep understanding of legal procedures, administrative responsibilities, and practical applications of revenue laws. To assist candidates in their preparation journey, we have curated a comprehensive weekly practice quiz focusing on key areas essential for these roles. The quiz for June-1 covers a range of topics designed to test your knowledge, analytical skills, and ability to apply concepts to practical scenarios. Let’s delve into the details of what this week’s quiz entails:
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-1 PDF Download
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-1
- Which organization has the Directorate of Horticulture partnered with to enhance market linkage for farmer producer organisations (FPOs) in Odisha?
A) FCI
B) APEDA
C) NABARD
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: B) APEDA - What was the first commercial shipment of fresh produce from Odisha that was sent via Biju Patnaik International Airport?
A) 0.75 tonnes of rice
B) 0.75 tonnes of fresh produce
C) 1 tonne of spices
D) 0.5 tonnes of seafood
Answer: B) 0.75 tonnes of fresh produce - APEDA operates under which Ministry of the Government of India?
A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare
B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C) Ministry of Food Processing Industries
D) Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry - What has Odisha deployed to enhance fish production and biodiversity in marine ecosystems?
A) Coral reefs
B) Artificial reefs
C) Mangrove plantations
D) Marine protected areas
Answer: B) Artificial reefs - What is the purpose of deploying artificial reefs along Odisha’s coastline?
A) Enhance fish production and biodiversity
B) Restore degraded marine ecosystems
C) Provide wave action protection to the coastline
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - How much carbon dioxide can seaweeds grown in underwater forests in the Bay of Bengal sequester compared to land plants?
A) 2-3 times more
B) 4-5 times more
C) Same amount
D) Less than land plants
Answer: B) 4-5 times more - What is the expected total amount Odisha plans to demand from the 16th Finance Commission for sector-specific grants for 2025–30?
A) Rs 50,000 crore
B) Rs 75,000 crore
C) Rs 1 lakh crore
D) Rs 1.5 lakh crore
Answer: C) Rs 1 lakh crore - When was the Sixteenth Finance Commission constituted?
A) 31.12.2021
B) 31.12.2022
C) 31.12.2023
D) 31.12.2024
Answer: C) 31.12.2023 - What does the festival Niladri Mahodaya in Puri commemorate?
A) The birth of Lord Jagannath
B) The consecration of the Shree Jagannath Temple
C) The annual Rath Yatra
D) The harvest festival in Odisha
Answer: B) The consecration of the Shree Jagannath Temple - Odisha is located between which latitudes?
A) 16°31′ and 21°31′ N
B) 17°31′ and 22°31′ N
C) 18°31′ and 23°31′ N
D) 19°31′ and 24°31′ N
Answer: B) 17°31′ and 22°31′ N - What is the longitude range of Odisha?
A) 80°31′ and 86°31′ E
B) 81°31′ and 87°31′ E
C) 82°31′ and 88°31′ E
D) 83°31′ and 89°31′ E
Answer: B) 81°31′ and 87°31′ E - What percentage of India’s area does Odisha cover?
A) 3.74%
B) 4.74%
C) 5.74%
D) 6.74%
Answer: B) 4.74% - What is the average annual rainfall in Odisha?
A) 1250mm
B) 1350mm
C) 1450mm
D) 1550mm
Answer: C) 1450mm - According to the 2011 Census, what was the population of Odisha?
A) 39.9 million
B) 40.9 million
C) 41.9 million
D) 42.9 million
Answer: C) 41.9 million - What is the average population density of Odisha?
A) 250 persons per km²
B) 260 persons per km²
C) 270 persons per km²
D) 280 persons per km²
Answer: C) 270 persons per km² - How many CD Blocks are there in Odisha?
A) 314
B) 320
C) 326
D) 332
Answer: A) 314 - Which river drains the northern part of Mayurbhanj district?
A) Budhabalang River
B) Subarnarekha River
C) Baitarani River
D) Brahmani River
Answer: B) Subarnarekha River - Which river drains the districts of Sundargarh, Debgarh, Angul, Dhenkanal, Jajpur, and Kendrapara?
A) Mahanadi River
B) Baitarani River
C) Brahmani River
D) Rushikulya River
Answer: C) Brahmani River - Which districts are drained by the Mahanadi River?
A) Sundargarh, Jharsuguda, Sambalpur, Baragarh, Sonepur, Balangir, Nuapara, Cuttack, Jagatsinghpur, Khurda, and Puri
B) Nabarangpur, Malkangiri, and Koraput
C) Rayagara and parts of Gajpati
D) Ganjam
Answer: A) Sundargarh, Jharsuguda, Sambalpur, Baragarh, Sonepur, Balangir, Nuapara, Cuttack, Jagatsinghpur, Khurda, and Puri - Which rivers drain the districts of Nabarangpur, Malkangiri, and Koraput?
A) Rushikulya and Vansadhara
B) Budhabalang and Baitarani
C) Kolab and Indravati
D) Nagavali and Brahmani
Answer: C) Kolab and Indravati - What is a common problem that occurs when Odisha’s rivers reach the coastal plains?
A) Increase in river slope
B) Reduction in river velocity leading to drainage congestion
C) Increase in river velocity
D) Reduction in river width
Answer: B) Reduction in river velocity leading to drainage congestion - Which institution is establishing a centre for coastal and river bank erosion research?
A) IIT Delhi
B) IIT Bhubaneswar
C) IIT Mumbai
D) IIT Kharagpur
Answer: B) IIT Bhubaneswar - Under which scheme is the centre for coastal and river bank erosion being established?
A) NITI Aayog Initiative
B) Smart Cities Mission
C) Fund for Improvement of S&T Infrastructure (FIST)
D) National Digital Health Mission
Answer: C) Fund for Improvement of S&T Infrastructure (FIST) - Which organization has signed an MoU with IIT Bhubaneswar for partial funding of the centre’s equipment?
A) Reliance Industries
B) Tata Steel
C) NeXHS Renewables Private Limited
D) Adani Group
Answer: C) NeXHS Renewables Private Limited - Where is the Eddy covariance flux tower installed to study forest carbon sequestration?
A) Chilika Lake
B) Similipal Biosphere Reserve
C) Nandankanan Wildlife Sanctuary
D) Satkosia Tiger Reserve
Answer: B) Similipal Biosphere Reserve - Which organization installed the Eddy covariance flux tower in Similipal?
A) IIT Bhubaneswar
B) Odisha Forest Department
C) CSIR-National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI), Lucknow
D) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Answer: C) CSIR-National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI), Lucknow - What is the primary purpose of the Eddy covariance flux tower installed in Similipal?
A) Measure soil quality
B) Measure forest carbon sequestration
C) Monitor wildlife movement
D) Track deforestation rates
Answer: B) Measure forest carbon sequestration - What percentage of India’s total forest carbon stock is found in Odisha?
A) 4%
B) 5%
C) 6%
D) 7%
Answer: C) 6% - What new services will PACS in Odisha soon offer?
A) Internet banking
B) Core banking services including NEFT, RTGS, and micro ATM provisions
C) Mobile banking
D) Cryptocurrency trading
Answer: B) Core banking services including NEFT, RTGS, and micro ATM provisions - Why has the Kalinga Nagar Industries Association (KNIA) requested the Odisha Mining Corporation (OMC) to increase chrome ore production?
A) To export more chrome ore
B) To address the demand and supply gap in the market
C) To build a new factory
D) To reduce environmental impact
Answer: B) To address the demand and supply gap in the market - What is the most common early sign of retinoblastoma in children?
A) Persistent cough
B) High fever
C) A white glow in a child’s eye, seen in flash photos or dim light
D) Difficulty in hearing
Answer: C) A white glow in a child’s eye, seen in flash photos or dim light - Which region is traditionally believed to be the origin of the Karma Dance in Odisha?
A) Coastal Odisha
B) Western Odisha
C) Southern Odisha
D) Eastern Odisha
Answer: B) Western Odisha - In which districts of Odisha is the Karma festival observed by both tribal and non-tribal communities?
A) Puri and Cuttack
B) Ganjam and Bhubaneswar
C) Sambalpur and Phulbani
D) Balasore and Mayurbhanj
Answer: C) Sambalpur and Phulbani - What does the Karma Dance symbolize?
A) The harvest season
B) The beginning of winter
C) The start of spring
D) The end of the monsoon
Answer: C) The start of spring - What percentage of Odisha’s total population is constituted by Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes as per the 2011 census?
A) 30.98%
B) 39.98%
C) 25.98%
D) 45.98%
Answer: B) 39.98% - Which of the following is not a factor of the 5T scheme in Odisha?
A) Technology
B) Teamwork
C) Transparency
D) Training
Answer: D) Training - What is the main aim of the 5T scheme?
A) To enhance agricultural productivity
B) To ensure better service delivery to the public
C) To promote tourism
D) To increase industrial output
Answer: B) To ensure better service delivery to the public - When was the ‘Nua O Yuba Odisha Nabin Odisha’ scheme launched?
A) 20 November 2023
B) 21 December 2018
C) 2 October 2018
D) 15 August 2018
Answer: A) 20 November 2023 - Which sector does the Kalia Yojana focus on?
A) Education
B) Agriculture
C) Healthcare
D) Infrastructure
Answer: B) Agriculture - What does ‘KALIA’ stand for in Kalia Yojana?
A) Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation
B) Krushak Agricultural Loan Incentive Assistance
C) Krushak Assistance for Low-Interest Agriculture
D) Krushak Agricultural Livelihood Improvement Aid
Answer: A) Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation - Why was the Odisha Food Security Scheme (SFSS) launched?
A) To enhance food production
B) To improve food quality
C) In reaction to the 2013 Food Security Act not covering certain groups in Odisha
D) To promote organic farming
Answer: C) In reaction to the 2013 Food Security Act not covering certain groups in Odisha - What is the main goal of the Biju Swastya Kalyan Yojana?
A) To provide free education
B) To provide financial assistance for healthcare
C) To build new hospitals
D) To provide health insurance to government employees
Answer: B) To provide financial assistance for healthcare - What annual health insurance coverage is provided per family under the Biju Swastya Kalyan Yojana?
A) Rs 1 lakh
B) Rs 2 lakhs
C) Rs 5 lakhs
D) Rs 7 lakhs
Answer: C) Rs 5 lakhs - What is the primary aim of the Sarbakhyama Yojana?
A) To improve rural infrastructure
B) To regularize unauthorized constructions in the state
C) To provide financial assistance to small businesses
D) To enhance urban sanitation
Answer: B) To regularize unauthorized constructions in the state - Which scheme aims to improve education for Class VI to VIII students in Odisha?
A) Utkarsh Scheme
B) Utthan Scheme
C) Biju Swastya Kalyan Yojana
D) Mukhyamantri Krishi Udyog Yojana
Answer: B) Utthan Scheme - What is the focus of the Utkarsh Scheme?
A) Improve primary education
B) Improve secondary education for class 9 to 10
C) Improve college education
D) Provide scholarships for higher education
Answer: B) Improve secondary education for class 9 to 10 - What benefit does the Gopabandhu Sambadika Swasthya Bima Yojana provide?
A) Health insurance for farmers
B) Health insurance for journalists
C) Financial assistance for small businesses
D) Scholarships for students
Answer: B) Health insurance for journalists - What does the Mahapranay Yojana provide financial assistance for?
A) Marriage ceremonies
B) Education expenses
C) Cremation
D) Healthcare
Answer: C) Cremation - What is the primary goal of the Mukhyamantri Krishi Udyog Yojana?
A) Provide free seeds to farmers
B) Simplification of loan subsidies to farmers
C) Promote organic farming
D) Enhance rural infrastructure
Answer: B) Simplification of loan subsidies to farmers - What does the Mukhyamantri Abhinav Krishi Yantripati Samman Yojana reward?
A) Best crop yield
B) Innovation in farming tools
C) Highest milk production
D) Best organic farming practices
Answer: B) Innovation in farming tools - What is the SWAYAM scheme designed to provide?
A) Free education materials
B) Interest-free bank loans to rural unemployed youths
C) Free healthcare services
D) Subsidies for organic farming
Answer: B) Interest-free bank loans to rural unemployed youths - What is the maximum loan amount provided under the SWAYAM scheme?
A) ₹50,000
B) ₹1 lakh
C) ₹5 lakhs
D) ₹10 lakhs
Answer: B) ₹1 lakh - What does the KHUSI+ scheme aim to improve?
A) Access to clean water
B) Menstrual hygiene awareness and reduce maternal mortality and morbidity rates
C) School infrastructure
D) Employment opportunities
Answer: B) Menstrual hygiene awareness and reduce maternal mortality and morbidity rates - Which dynasty ruler built the Barabati Fort?
A) Somavanshi dynasty
B) Eastern Ganga dynasty
C) Chola dynasty
D) Maurya dynasty
Answer: B) Eastern Ganga dynasty - Which is considered the oldest fortified settlement in Odisha?
A) Barabati Fort
B) Asurgarh Fortified Settlement
C) Chudanga Gada
D) Raibania Fort
Answer: B) Asurgarh Fortified Settlement - What are the main reasons for migration from Kalahandi district?
A) High cost of living
B) Lack of employment opportunities and apathetic administration
C) Political instability
D) Poor educational facilities
Answer: B) Lack of employment opportunities and apathetic administration - Where were 253 Olive Ridley hatchlings recently released?
A) Gahirmatha Beach
B) Puri Beach
C) Dagara Beach
D) Chandrabhaga Beach
Answer: C) Dagara Beach - What is the scientific name of the Olive Ridley Sea Turtle?
A) Chelonia mydas
B) Lepidochelys olivacea
C) Eretmochelys imbricata
D) Dermochelys coriacea
Answer: B) Lepidochelys olivacea - Under which schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, is the Olive Ridley Sea Turtle protected?
A) Schedule I
B) Schedule II
C) Schedule III
D) Schedule IV
Answer: A) Schedule I - What significant weather phenomenon did Gilbert Walker’s research help understand?
A) Tornadoes
B) El Niño
C) Hurricanes
D) Tsunamis
Answer: B) El Niño - What impact is Cyclone ‘Remal’ expected to have on Odisha?
A) Major flooding and property damage
B) Minimal impact with some rainfall in certain districts
C) Heavy snowfall
D) Complete bypass with no impact
Answer: B) Minimal impact with some rainfall in certain districts - Where is the village of Pipili located, known for its vibrant community of craftsmen specializing in applique craft?
A) 20 km from Cuttack
B) 20 km from Puri
C) 20 km from Bhubaneswar
D) 20 km from Konark
Answer: C) 20 km from Bhubaneswar - What is the local term for applique craft in Odisha?
A) Patta Chitra
B) Chandua
C) Filigree
D) Jhoti
Answer: B) Chandua - Which form of painting in Odisha focuses primarily on religious themes and is executed on small strips of cotton cloth?
A) Patta Chitra
B) Filigree Work
C) Muruja
D) Jhoti
Answer: A) Patta Chitra - Where is the village of Raghurajpur located, known for its traditional painters practicing Patta Chitra?
A) Near Cuttack
B) Near Puri
C) Near Bhubaneswar
D) Near Konark
Answer: B) Near Puri - Which city in Odisha is renowned as the “Silver City” and is a hub for silver filigree work?
A) Cuttack
B) Bhubaneswar
C) Puri
D) Konark
Answer: A) Cuttack - What material is typically used for creating Jhoti or Chita murals during religious rituals in Odisha?
A) Fabric
B) Rice paste
C) Clay
D) Silver
Answer: B) Rice paste - Which month sees the practice of Jhoti or Chita murals as part of religious rituals in Odisha?
A) Kartik (November)
B) Margasira
C) Chaitra
D) Shravana
Answer: B) Margasira - What is the primary material used for creating Muruja designs in Odisha during rituals?
A) Silver
B) Clay
C) Stones
D) Various colored powders
Answer: D) Various colored powders - Which art form in Odisha involves shaping delicate silver wires into intricate designs?
A) Applique Work
B) Patta Chitra
C) Muruja
D) Filigree Work
Answer: D) Filigree Work - Where is the village of Pipili located?
A) Near Cuttack
B) Near Puri
C) Near Bhubaneswar
D) Near Konark
Answer: C) Near Bhubaneswar - Which art form of Odisha is primarily associated with decorating mud walls and floors with white rice paste murals?
A) Muruja
B) Filigree Work
C) Patta Chitra
D) Jhoti or Chita
Answer: D) Jhoti or Chita - Which month sees the practice of Muruja designs in Odisha?
A) Margasira
B) Kartik (November)
C) Chaitra
D) Shravana
Answer: B) Kartik (November) - What do artisans create using applique craft in Odisha?
A) Sculptures
B) Paintings
C) Lampshades, handbags, cushion covers, etc.
D) Murals
Answer: C) Lampshades, handbags, cushion covers, etc. - Which city in Odisha is famous for its brass and bell metal ware?
A) Cuttack
B) Bhubaneswar
C) Puri
D) Konark
Answer: A) Cuttack - Which material is NOT used for creating Muruja designs in Odisha?
A) Marigold petals
B) Turmeric
C) Rice paste
D) Silver
Answer: D) Silver - What prehistoric art can be found in the dense forests of Western Odisha?
a) Terracotta sculptures
b) Rock paintings
c) Metal engravings
d) Mosaic murals
Answer: b) Rock paintings - Which sites in Western Odisha feature natural rocks adorned with ancient paintings?
a) Ulapgarh, Vikram Khol, Manikmada
b) Sambalpuri, Ushakothi, Gudahandi
c) Yogimatha, Balaram Das, Sudarsan Pattnaik
d) Lalitgiri, Ratnagiri, Udayagiri
Answer: a) Ulapgarh, Vikram Khol, Manikmada - What are the pigments used in creating the rock paintings in Odisha?
a) Synthetic dyes
b) Chemical compounds
c) Natural sources like iron oxides, lime, and copper compounds
d) Plastic polymers
Answer: c) Natural sources like iron oxides, lime, and copper compounds - Which is considered the most popular handicraft of Odisha?
a) Stone carving
b) Wood carving
c) Handloom sarees
d) Papier Mache
Answer: c) Handloom sarees - Where are Sambalpuri cotton sarees woven?
a) Sambalpur district
b) Puri district
c) Cuttack district
d) Bhubaneswar district
Answer: a) Sambalpur district - What are the designs typically featured in Odisha’s ikat sarees?
a) Tribal patterns
b) Geometric outlines, animals, fish, and conch
c) Floral motifs
d) Paisley designs
Answer: b) Geometric outlines, animals, fish, and conch - What is the tie-and-dye technique unique to Odisha?
a) Batik
b) Bandhani
c) Ikat
d) Shibori
Answer: c) Ikat - Which traditional craft of Odisha involves creating replicas of temples and deities?
a) Sand art
b) Lacquer work
c) Stone carving
d) Wood carving
Answer: c) Stone carving - Who is the legendary poet associated with the tradition of sand art in Odisha?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Kalidas
c) Sudarsan Pattnaik
d) Balaram Das
Answer: d) Balaram Das - What is the main material used in lacquer work?
a) Clay
b) Wood
c) Metal
d) Lacquer
Answer: d) Lacquer - Which tribal craft is predominantly practiced by women in Odisha?
a) Stone carving
b) Wood carving
c) Papier Mache
d) Lacquer work
Answer: d) Lacquer work - What is the ancient form of art known as Talapatra Chitra?
a) Papier Mache
b) Palm leaf painting
c) Terracotta sculpture
d) Metal engraving
Answer: b) Palm leaf painting - Which art form in Odisha involves the use of waste cloth, natural fibers, and paper?
a) Papier Mache
b) Stone carving
c) Ikat
d) Sand art
Answer: a) Papier Mache - Who is known for continuing the tradition of sand art in Odisha today?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Kalidas
c) Sudarsan Pattnaik
d) Balaram Das
Answer: c) Sudarsan Pattnaik - Which craft is renowned globally and practiced throughout Odisha?
a) Sand art
b) Stone carving
c) Ikat
d) Papier Mache
Answer: d) Papier Mache - What is the most important festival celebrated in Odisha?
A) Kalinga Mahotsav
B) Chandan Yatra
C) Raja Parba
D) Durga Pooja
Answer: D) Durga Pooja - When is Durga Pooja typically celebrated in Odisha?
A) January
B) April
C) September or October
D) December
Answer: C) September or October - Which festival in Odisha is celebrated to mark the victory of peace over war?
A) Chandan Yatra
B) Kalinga Mahotsav
C) Mahabisuva Sankranti
D) Raja Parba
Answer: B) Kalinga Mahotsav - Where is Kalinga Mahotsav celebrated in Odisha?
A) Puri
B) Bhubaneswar
C) Dhauli Shanti Stupa
D) Konark
Answer: C) Dhauli Shanti Stupa - What is the other name for Chandan Yatra?
A) Gandhalepana Yatra
B) Kalinga Mahotsav
C) Konark Dance Festival
D) Mahabisuva Sankranti
Answer: A) Gandhalepana Yatra - How long does Chandan Yatra last?
A) 10 days
B) 30 days
C) 42 days
D) 15 days
Answer: C) 42 days - Which dance form is celebrated during the Konark Dance Festival?
A) Kathak
B) Bharatanatyam
C) Odissi
D) Kuchipudi
Answer: C) Odissi - When does the Konark Dance Festival take place?
A) April and May
B) September or October
C) December
D) June or July
Answer: A) December 1 to December 5 - What is Mahabisuva Sankranti also known as?
A) Pana Sankranti
B) Raja Parba
C) Chandan Yatra
D) Kalinga Mahotsav
Answer: A) Pana Sankranti - What is Mahabisuva Sankranti celebrated to mark?
A) New Year
B) Harvest Festival
C) Victory in war
D) Peace
Answer: A) New Year - Which festival in Odisha celebrates womanhood and prosperity in agriculture?
A) Raja Parba
B) Chandan Yatra
C) Mahabisuva Sankranti
D) Konark Dance Festival
Answer: A) Raja Parba - When is Raja Parba typically celebrated?
A) January
B) April
C) September or October
D) June or July
Answer: D) June or July - What is the significance of Raja Parba in relation to agriculture activities?
A) It marks the beginning of harvesting season
B) It marks the end of the monsoon
C) It allows the Goddess of Earth to rest
D) It is a time for prayers for a good harvest
Answer: C) It allows the Goddess of Earth to rest - Which festival celebrates the beauty of the Konark Sun Temple and Odissi dance?
A) Chandan Yatra
B) Konark Dance Festival
C) Raja Parba
D) Durga Pooja
Answer: B) Konark Dance Festival - What is the significance of the festival Kalinga Mahotsav?
A) Celebration of victory in war
B) Celebration of peace over war
C) Celebration of new year
D) Celebration of harvest
Answer: B) Celebration of peace over war - What is the significance of Rath Yatra in Orissa?
A. Celebration of the new year
B. Harvest festival
C. Dedicated to Lord Jagannath
D. Welcoming the monsoon
Answer: C. Dedicated to Lord Jagannath - Which deity is primarily worshipped during the Rath Yatra?
A. Lord Vishnu
B. Lord Brahma
C. Lord Shiva
D. Lord Jagannath
Answer: D. Lord Jagannath - When is the Rath Yatra usually celebrated?
A. December
B. April or May
C. August
D. October
Answer: B. April or May - What is the significance of Magha Saptmi festival?
A. Celebrating the monsoon season
B. Offering prayers to the sea
C. Welcoming the harvest season
D. Honoring Lord Shiva
Answer: B. Offering prayers to the sea - Where do devotees gather during Magha Saptmi festival?
A. Near Chandrabhaga beach
B. In temples
C. At riverbanks
D. In forests
Answer: A. Near Chandrabhaga beach - When does the Magha Saptmi festival usually occur?
A. January
B. February
C. March
D. April
Answer: B. February - What is the significance of Makar Mela?
A. Celebrating the new year
B. Honoring ancestors
C. Offering prayers to the Sun God
D. Welcoming the winter season
Answer: C. Offering prayers to the Sun God - When is Makar Mela usually celebrated?
A. January
B. June
C. September
D. December
Answer: A. January - Which festival primarily represents tribal life and traditional dances in Orissa?
A. Rath Yatra
B. Magha Saptmi
C. Makar Mela
D. Chhau Festival
Answer: D. Chhau Festival - Which deity is worshipped during the Chhau Festival?
A. Lord Jagannath
B. Lord Brahma
C. Lord Shiva
D. Goddess Durga
Answer: C. Lord Shiva - When is the Chhau Festival usually celebrated?
A. March or April
B. June or July
C. September or October
D. November or December
Answer: A. March or April - What is the Puri Beach Festival known for?
A. Offering prayers to the sea
B. Celebrating tribal life
C. Showcasing cultural heritage
D. Honoring Lord Jagannath
Answer: C. Showcasing cultural heritage - When does the Puri Beach Festival usually take place?
A. January
B. April
C. August
D. November
Answer: D. November - Which festival marks the beginning of the harvesting season in Orissa?
A. Rath Yatra
B. Magha Saptmi
C. Makar Mela
D. Naukhai
Answer: D. Naukhai - When is Naukhai festival usually celebrated?
A. February or March
B. June or July
C. August or September
D. October or November
Answer: C. August or September - Who edited the book “Law and Spirituality: Reconnecting the Bond”?
a) Salman Rushdie
b) Raman Mittal and Seema Singh
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Duvvuri Subbarao
Answer: b) Raman Mittal and Seema Singh - Which author is releasing a memoir titled “Knife”?
a) Sam Pitroda
b) Salman Rushdie
c) Madhumita Murgia
d) Shane Watson
Answer: b) Salman Rushdie - Who authored the book “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”?
a) Raman Mittal
b) Salman Rushdie
c) Duvvuri Subbarao
d) Sam Pitroda
Answer: c) Duvvuri Subbarao - What is the title of Sam Pitroda’s latest book?
a) The Idea of Democracy
b) Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI
c) The Winner’s Mindset
d) Knife
Answer: a) The Idea of Democracy - Whose book “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI” has been shortlisted for the Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction?
a) Salman Rushdie
b) Sam Pitroda
c) Madhumita Murgia
d) S. Raman
Answer: c) Madhumita Murgia - Who authored the book “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond”?
a) Sam Pitroda
b) Madhumita Murgia
c) S. Raman
d) Shane Watson
Answer: c) S. Raman - Which author translated the first Magahi novel “Phool Bahadur” into English?
a) Abhay K
b) Sam Pitroda
c) Seema Singh
d) Soumya Awasthi
Answer: a) Abhay K - Where was Parshottam Rupala’s book “Sagar Parikrama” released?
a) Delhi, India
b) Mumbai, India
c) Rajkot, Gujarat, India
d) London, UK
Answer: c) Rajkot, Gujarat, India - Who received the book “India’s Nuclear Titans”?
a) Salman Rushdie
b) Madhumita Murgia
c) S. Jaishankar
d) Duvvuri Subbarao
Answer: c) S. Jaishankar - Who authored the book “The Winner’s Mindset”?
a) Salman Rushdie
b) Sam Pitroda
c) Shane Watson
d) Soumya Awasthi
Answer: c) Shane Watson - Which book explores the tensions between the RBI and the Government?
a) “Law and Spirituality: Reconnecting the Bond”
b) “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”
c) “The Idea of Democracy”
d) “The Winner’s Mindset”
Answer: b) “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career” - Which book discusses the current state of democracy?
a) “Law and Spirituality: Reconnecting the Bond”
b) “Just a Mercenary?: Notes from My Life and Career”
c) “The Idea of Democracy”
d) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
Answer: c) “The Idea of Democracy” - Who authored the book “India’s Nuclear Titans”?
a) Soumya Awasthi and Shrabana Barua
b) Raman Mittal and Seema Singh
c) Shane Watson
d) S. Jaishankar
Answer: a) Soumya Awasthi and Shrabana Barua - Which book recounts the experience of being stabbed at a public event?
a) “The Winner’s Mindset”
b) “Knife”
c) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
d) “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond”
Answer: b) “Knife” - Which book is shortlisted for the Women’s Prize for Non-Fiction?
a) “The Idea of Democracy”
b) “India’s Nuclear Titans”
c) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI”
d) “From A Car Shed To The Corner Room & Beyond”
Answer: c) “Code Dependent: Living in the Shadow of AI” - Who won the Booker Prize for the novel “Prophet Song”?
a) Paul Lynch
b) Salman Rushdie
c) Margaret Atwood
d) Kazuo Ishiguro
Answer: a) Paul Lynch - Which country must the winning novel of the Booker Prize be published in?
a) Ireland
b) United States
c) Australia
d) United Kingdom
Answer: d) United Kingdom - Who won the International Booker Prize for the book “Time Shelter”?
a) Georgi Gospodinov
b) Angela Rodel
c) Georgi Gospodinov & Angela Rodel
d) Olga Tokarczuk
Answer: c) Georgi Gospodinov & Angela Rodel - What is the requirement for the winning book of the International Booker Prize to be eligible for consideration?
a) Must be originally written in English
b) Must be published in the United States
c) Must be translated into English
d) Must be published in any language
Answer: c) Must be translated into English - How often is the International Booker Prize awarded since 2016?
a) Biennially
b) Annually
c) Quarterly
d) Every five years
Answer: b) Annually - Who authored the book “An Uncommon Love: The Early Life of Sudha and Narayana Murthy”?
a) Sanjeev Joshi
b) Dr. Rajen Saikia
c) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
d) Arup Kumar Dutta
Answer: c) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni - Which book is authored by M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh?
a) Gandhi: A Life in Three Campaigns
b) Modi: Energising A Green Future
c) Four Stars of Destiny
d) Sanskriti ke Ayaam
Answer: a) Gandhi: A Life in Three Campaigns - Who wrote the book “Modi: Energising A Green Future”?
a) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam Kumar Sinha
b) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
c) Manorama Mishra
d) Vairamuthu
Answer: a) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam Kumar Sinha - Which book is authored by Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya?
a) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
b) Political History of Assam (1947-1971) – Volume 1
c) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
d) Fertilising the Future: Bharat’s March Towards Fertiliser Self-Sufficiency
Answer: d) - Who is the author of “Four Stars of Destiny”?
a) Manorama Mishra
b) Vairamuthu
c) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
d) Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti
Answer: c) General Manoj Mukund Naravane - Which book was released by the Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority?
a) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
b) Political History of Assam (1947-1971) – Volume 1
c) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
d) Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan
Answer: c) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake - Who authored the book “Gandhi: A Life in Three Campaigns”?
a) M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh
b) Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya
c) General Manoj Mukund Naravane
d) Arup Kumar Dutta
Answer: a) M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh - Which book is authored by Arup Kumar Dutta?
a) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
b) Political History of Assam (1947-1971) – Volume 1
c) Smritivan: An Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of Gujarat Earthquake
d) Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan
Answer: d) Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan - Who are the authors of the book “Ram Mandir Rashtra Mandir Ek Sajhi Virast”?
a) Sanjeev Joshi
b) Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti
c) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
d) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam Kumar Sinha
Answer: b) Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti - Which book is authored by Vairamuthu?
a) Sanskriti ke Ayaam
b) Maha Kavithai
c) Ek Samandar, Mere Andar
d) Ram Mandir Rashtra Mandir Ek Sajhi Virast
Answer: b) Maha Kavithai - Who is the author of Mudrarakshasa?
A) Kalidasa
B) Vishakhadatta
C) Bhasa
D) Kalhana
Answer: B) Vishakhadatta - Which work was written by Kalhana?
A) Kathasaritsagar
B) Rajtarangini
C) Natyashastra
D) Raghuvansan
Answer: B) Rajtarangini - In which type of rock is petroleum found chiefly in India?
A) Basalt
B) Metamorphic Rocks
C) Sedimentary Rocks
D) None of the above
Answer: C) Sedimentary Rocks - Which river feeds the Tehri Dam?
A) Alaknanda
B) Bhagirathi
C) Gandak
D) Ghagghar
Answer: B) Bhagirathi - Area-wise, which among the following is the largest physiographic unit of India?
A) Himalayan Mountains
B) Thar Desert
C) Deccan Plateau
D) Great Plains of North India
Answer: C) Deccan Plateau - Which is the first shore-based, modern, integrated steel plant in India?
A) Mangalore
B) Vishakhapatnam
C) Haldia
D) Salem
Answer: B) Vishakhapatnam - In which state is the tallest dam in India, the Tehri Dam, located?
A) Himachal Pradesh
B) Uttarakhand
C) Sikkim
D) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: B) Uttarakhand - Which type of rocks are important for preserving a record of ancient landscapes, climates, and fossils?
A) Igneous Rocks
B) Metamorphic Rocks
C) Sedimentary Rocks
D) Volcanic Rocks
Answer: C) Sedimentary Rocks - Which river is known for its role in the formation of the Great Plains of North India?
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Saraswati
D) Bhagirathi
Answer: A) Ganga - Who authored the Kamasutra?
A) Vatsayana
B) Amoghavarsha
C) Asvaghosa
D) Bharata Muni
Answer: A) Vatsayana - Which ancient text is attributed to Shaivite Somadeva?
A) Swapanvasdattam
B) Abhigyaan Shakuntala
C) Kathasaritsagar
D) Prashnottarmalika
Answer: C) Kathasaritsagar - What is the notable work of Bharata Muni?
A) Buddha Charita
B) Vikramorvashi
C) Natyashastra
D) Prashnottarmalika
Answer: C) Natyashastra - Who wrote the play Abhigyaan Shakuntala?
A) Kalidasa
B) Bhasa
C) Vishakhadatta
D) Asvaghosa
Answer: A) Kalidasa - What literary work is attributed to Asvaghosa?
A) Vikramorvashi
B) Buddha Charita
C) Swapanvasdattam
D) Mudrarakshasa
Answer: B) Buddha Charita - What event was a turning point that led to the initiation of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
A) Salt March
B) Jallianwala Bagh massacre
C) Quit India Movement
D) Simon Commission
Answer: B) Jallianwala Bagh massacre - When was the Non-Cooperation Movement formally launched?
A) August 1, 1920
B) March 12, 1930
C) August 8, 1942
D) January 26, 1930
Answer: A) August 1, 1920 - What was the primary aim of the Civil Disobedience Movement?
A) Boycott British goods
B) Demand complete independence from British rule
C) Protest against the Rowlatt Act
D) Promote the use of khadi
Answer: B) Demand complete independence from British rule - Which event marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement?
A) Quit India Movement
B) Dandi Salt March
C) Jallianwala Bagh massacre
D) Chauri Chaura Incident
Answer: B) Dandi Salt March - Who led the ‘Khudai Khidmatgars’ during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
A) C. Rajagopalachari
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
D) Kelappan
Answer: C) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan - Which pact led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931?
A) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
B) Poona Pact
C) Lucknow Pact
D) Delhi Pact
Answer: A) Gandhi-Irwin Pact - What was the immediate cause for launching the Quit India Movement?
A) Failure of the Cripps Mission
B) Dandi Salt March
C) Chauri Chaura Incident
D) Round Table Conference
Answer: A) Failure of the Cripps Mission - What slogan did Mahatma Gandhi give during the Quit India Movement?
A) Swaraj is my birthright
B) Do or Die
C) Vande Mataram
D) Inquilab Zindabad
Answer: B) Do or Die - Which institution has conceptualized the ‘Lightweight Payments System’?
A) NPCI
B) RBI
C) NASSCOM
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: B) RBI - Which institution is set to introduce the ‘Expected Loss-based Approach for Bad Loan Provisioning’?
A) RBI
B) SEBI
C) EPFO
D) PFRDA
Answer: A) RBI - What is the name of the tariff levied on imported goods to offset subsidies given to producers of the goods in the exporting country?
A) Countervailing Duty
B) Anti-Dumping Duty
C) Safeguard Duty
D) Protective Duty
Answer: A) Countervailing Duty - Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) has recently raised its stake in which IT company?
A) Wipro
B) Tech Mahindra
C) Infosys
D) Tata Consultancy Services
Answer: B) Tech Mahindra - Which institution is responsible for overseeing the securities and commodity markets in India?
A) RBI
B) SEBI
C) NITI Aayog
D) EPFO
Answer: B) SEBI - What is the primary purpose of the Reserve Bank of India’s ‘Lightweight Payments System’?
A) To reduce transaction fees
B) To ensure uninterrupted transactions during extreme situations
C) To increase transaction speed
D) To integrate with global payment systems
Answer: B) To ensure uninterrupted transactions during extreme situations - What was the primary method of resistance advocated in the Quit India Movement?
A) Violent revolution
B) Non-violent civil disobedience
C) Economic blockade
D) Guerilla warfare
Answer: B) Non-violent civil disobedience - Which significant global event coincided with the Quit India Movement, increasing pressure on Britain to address Indian demands?
A) World War I
B) World War II
C) Cold War
D) Korean War
Answer: B) World War II - ନାହିରେ ତେଲ ପକାଇ ଶୋଇବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ସନ୍ତୋଷ ହେବା
b) ଖୁସି ହେବା
c) ଚିନ୍ତାଶୂନ୍ୟ ହେବା
d) ଶୋଇବା
Answer: c) ଚିନ୍ତାଶୂନ୍ୟ ହେବା - ନାଁ କରିବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଆପଣା
b) ଖ୍ୟାତି ଅର୍ଜନ କରିବା
c) ଶ୍ରମ କରିବା
d) କାମ କରିବା
Answer: b) ଖ୍ୟାତି ଅର୍ଜନ କରିବା - ନେଇ ଆଣି ଥୋଇବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ହସିବା
b) ଆଣିବା
c) କୌଶଳ ସହକାରେ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିବା
d) ରଖିବା
Answer: c) କୌଶଳ ସହକାରେ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିବା - ପାଣି ନ ଗଳିବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଜଳ ଶୁଷ୍କ ହେବା
b) ତରଳ ହେବା
c) ଗଭୀର ସମ୍ପର୍କ
d) ସହଜ ସମ୍ପର୍କ
Answer: c) ଗଭୀର ସମ୍ପର୍କ - ପାଣିରେ ସାରା ପକାଇବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ତାରାଖରଚ କରିବା
b) କୌଶଳରେ ମନ ଭୁଲାଇବା
c) ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ କରିବା
d) ସ୍ବାପ୍ନ ଦେଖିବା
Answer: b) କୌଶଳରେ ମନ ଭୁଲାଇବା - ପିଠିରେ ପଡିବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ମନେ ପକାଇବା
b) ସାହାଯ୍ୟ କରିବା
c) ପଠାଇବା
d) ଚେଷ୍ଟା କରିବା
Answer: b) ସାହାଯ୍ୟ କରିବା - ପିଳେହି ପାହେବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଛାନିଆ ହେବା
b) ପରିପକ୍ବ ହେବା
c) ଆପଣା ହେବା
d) ଆତ୍ମଶ୍ରେଷ୍ଠ ହେବା
Answer: a) ଛାନିଆ ହେବା - ପୋଥିରେ ଡୋରା ବାନ୍ଧିବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଏକାତ୍ମ ହେବା
b) ପାଠ ପଢା ବନ୍ଦ କରିବା
c) ଦୂର୍ଘଟଣା ହେବା
d) ଅସମ୍ଭବ ହେବା
Answer: b) ପାଠ ପଢା ବନ୍ଦ କରିବା - ବାଳକେ ମୋର ବୋଲ କର । ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟି କେଉଁ କାରକ ?
(a) କରଣ କାରକ
(b) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ
(c) ସମ୍ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରକ
(d) କର୍ମ କାରକ
Answer: (b) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ - ବାକ୍ୟ ମଧ୍ୟରେ କ୍ରିୟାପଦ ସହିତ ଅନ୍ୟ ପଦମାନଙ୍କର ଯେଉଁ ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ଥାଏ, ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(a) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ
(b) ବିଭକ୍ତି
(c) କାରକ
(d) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Answer: (c) କାରକ - କପିଳେନ୍ଦ୍ରଦେବ ଏକ ବିଶାଳ ରାଜ୍ୟ ପ୍ରତିଷ୍ଠା କରିଥିଲେ ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଥିବା କର୍ଭା ପଦ ଚିହ୍ନାଅ
(a) ପ୍ରତିଷ୍ଠା
(b) କପିଳେନ୍ଦ୍ରଦେବ
(c) ବିଶାଳ
(d) ରାଜ୍ୟ
Answer: (b) କପିଳେନ୍ଦ୍ରଦେବ - ସିଂହ ପଶୁମାନଙ୍କର ରାଜା ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦଟି କେଉଁ ଅର୍ଥରେ ୬ଷ୍ଠୀ ବିଭକ୍ତି ହୋଇଛି ?
(a) ନିର୍ଦ୍ଧାରଣ ଯୋଗେ
(b) ବ୍ୟାପ୍ତି ଶବ୍ଦ ଯୋଗେ
(c) ସମାର୍ଥରେ
(d) ବ୍ୟାପ୍ତି ଯୋଗେ
Answer: (a) ନିର୍ଦ୍ଧାରଣ ଯୋଗେ - ଯେଉଁ କର୍ତ୍ତା ନିଜେ କ୍ରିୟା ସମ୍ପାଦନ ନ କରି ଅନ୍ୟ ଦ୍ବାରା କରାଏ, ତାକୁ କି କର୍ତ୍ତା କୁହାଯାଏ?
(a) ପ୍ରଯୋଜ୍ୟ କର୍ତ୍ତା
(b) ପ୍ରକୃତ କର୍ତ୍ତା
(c) ପ୍ରୟୋଜକ କର୍ଭା
(d) ଅପ୍ରକୃତ କର୍ତ୍ତା
Answer: (b) କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକ - ଫତେଇ ହେବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଶକ୍ତ ହେବା
b) ଚିନ୍ତା ହେବା
c) ବାରମ୍ବାର ପଚାରିବା
d) ହର୍ଦାନ୍ତ ହେବା
Answer: c) ବାରମ୍ବାର ପଚାରିବା - ଫସର ଫାଟିବା ରୂଢିର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ସଫଳ ହେବା
b) ସ୍ବାପ୍ନ ଦେଖିବା
c) ବ୍ୟର୍ଥ ହେବା
d) ଚେଷ୍ଟା କରିବା
Answer: c) ବ୍ୟର୍ଥ ହେବା - ଅନୁଗ୍ରହ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ନିର୍ମଳ
b) ନିଗ୍ରହ
c) ନିବେଦନ
d) ନିଶା
Answer: b) ନିଗ୍ରହ - ଅପେକ୍ଷା ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ଉତ୍ସବ
b) ଉପେକ୍ଷା
c) ଉତ୍ତମ
d) ଉପକର
Answer: b) ଉପେକ୍ଷା - ଅଭିଜ୍ଞ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ଅନଭିଜ୍ଞ
b) ଅଭିପ୍ରାୟ
c) ଅପରାଧ
d) ଅଭିବ୍ୟକ୍ତି
Answer: a) ଅନଭିଜ୍ଞ - ଅସଲ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ସଫଳ
b) ନକଲ
c) ସତ୍ତ୍ଵ
d) ସଂସାର
Answer: b) ନକଲ - ଅଲଣା ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ମଧୁର
b) ନିଶ୍ଚିତ
c) ଲୁଣିଆ
d) ମୂଖ୍ୟ
Answer: c) ଲୁଣିଆ - ଅବାଧ୍ୟ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ସ୍ଥିର
b) ବାଧ୍ୟ
c) ଅଭାବ
d) ଅବରୋହ
Answer: b) ବାଧ୍ୟ - ଅପାୟ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ନିଯୁକ୍ତ
b) ଉପାୟ
c) ଶୁଭ
d) ଭୂମି
Answer: b) ଉପାୟ - ଜଳଦ ସମାସର ନାମ ଲେଖ ।
(a) ୭ମୀ ତତପୁରୁଷ
(b) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
(c) ଉପପଦ ତତପୁରୁଷ
(d) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ ତତପୁରୁଷ
Ans: (c) ଉପପଦ ତତପୁରୁଷ - ତତପୁରୁଷ ସମାସରେ ନିଷେଧ ଅର୍ଥରେ କେଉଁ ସମାସ ହୁଏ?
(a) ନଞ ତତପୁରୁଷ
(b) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
(c) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ ତତପୁରୁଷ
(d) ୪ର୍ଥୀ ତତପୁରୁଷ
Ans: (c) ଷଷ୍ଠୀ ତତପୁରୁଷ - ବିଶ୍ଵର ମିତ୍ର କୁ ଏକପଦ ରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
a) ବିଶ୍ରବଣ
b) ବିଶ୍ଵାମିତ୍ର
c) ବିଶାଳାକ୍ଷ
d) ବିହଙ୍ଗ
Answer: b) ବିଶ୍ଵାମିତ୍ର - ବିଶ୍ରବାଙ୍କର ପୁତ୍ର ର ଏକପଦୀକରଣ କଣ ହେବ?
a) ବିଶ୍ଵାମିତ୍ର
b) ବିଶ୍ରବଣ
c) ବିଶାଳାକ୍ଷ
d) ବିରୁପାକ୍ଷ
Answer: b) ବିଶ୍ରବଣ - ଅଧାରୁ ବେଶୀ କୁ ଏକପଦ ରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
a) ଅଧିକ
b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧାଧିକ
c) ଅଧିକତମ
d) ଅନନ୍ୟ
Answer: b) ଅର୍ଦ୍ଧାଧିକ - ଅଧିକ ଘଞ୍ଚ କୁ ଏକପଦ ରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
a) ଘନ
b) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ
c) ନିର୍ମଳ
d) ନିଶା
Answer: b) ନିଘଞ୍ଚ - ଅଧିକ ନିଦ୍ରା ଯିବା ସ୍ଵଭାବ ଯାହାର କୁ ଏକପଦ ରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
a) ନିଦ୍ରା
b) ନିଦ୍ରିତ
c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ
d) ନିଶା
Answer: c) ନିଦ୍ରାଳୁ - ଅଧିକ ଉକ୍ତି କୁ ଏକପଦ ରେ ପ୍ରକାଶ କର?
a) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି
b) ଅତ୍ୟାଧିକ
c) ଅତିଶୟ
d) ଅତି
Answer: a) ଅତ୍ୟୁକ୍ତି - What is a Kerr black hole?
A) A black hole formed by the collision of two neutron stars
B) A black hole with no charge and no rotation
C) A rotating black hole formed from the remnants of a massive star
D) A black hole with a magnetic field
Answer: C) A rotating black hole formed from the remnants of a massive star - Where is the gravitational singularity located in a black hole?
A) At the event horizon
B) Inside the ergosphere
C) At the core of the black hole
D) Beyond the event horizon
Answer: C) At the core of the black hole - What is the event horizon in the context of a black hole?
A) The boundary where the gravitational pull is weakest
B) The surface where matter and energy can be extracted
C) The spherical boundary around the singularity from which nothing can escape
D) The region where light can escape the black hole’s gravity
Answer: C) The spherical boundary around the singularity from which nothing can escape - What characteristic distinguishes a rotating black hole’s ergosphere from the event horizon?
A) Objects can escape the ergosphere if moving rapidly but not the event horizon
B) The ergosphere is smaller than the event horizon
C) The ergosphere is located inside the event horizon
D) The ergosphere only exists in non-rotating black holes
Answer: A) Objects can escape the ergosphere if moving rapidly but not the event horizon - What does the term ‘ergosphere’ mean in the context of a black hole?
A) Sphere of energy depletion
B) Sphere of light entrapment
C) Sphere where energy can be extracted
D) Sphere where time stands still
Answer: C) Sphere where energy can be extracted - Which component of a black hole is associated with the impossibility of escaping its gravitational pull?
A) Ergosphere
B) Singularity
C) Photon sphere
D) Event horizon
Answer: D) Event horizon - How does the ergosphere enable the extraction of energy from a black hole?
A) By allowing light to escape
B) By converting rotational energy to extractable matter
C) By reducing the black hole’s mass
D) By reversing the black hole’s spin
Answer: B) By converting rotational energy to extractable matter - What happens to matter that falls within the event horizon of a black hole?
A) It gets ejected back into space
B) It orbits around the black hole indefinitely
C) It becomes part of the black hole’s mass and cannot escape
D) It remains suspended at the event horizon
Answer: C) It becomes part of the black hole’s mass and cannot escape - Why is the ergosphere named after the Greek word ‘ergon’?
A) Because it represents a region where work can be done
B) Because it is the most energetic part of a black hole
C) Because it traps energy
D) Because it prevents any form of work from happening
Answer: A) Because it represents a region where work can be done - What theoretical process is primarily associated with energy extraction from the ergosphere?
A) Gravitational lensing
B) Hawking radiation
C) Penrose process
D) Accretion disk dynamics
Answer: C) Penrose process - What is the origin of rotating black holes?
A. Supernova explosion
B. Neutron star formation
C. White dwarf collapse
D. Planetary nebula formation
Answer: A. Supernova explosion - What is the core of a black hole called?
A. Event horizon
B. Ergosphere
C. Gravitational singularity
D. Dark matter
Answer: C. Gravitational singularity - What is the spherical boundary around a black hole’s singularity called?
A. Event horizon
B. Ergosphere
C. Photon sphere
D. Gravitational pull
Answer: A. Event horizon - What does the ergosphere of a black hole allow?
A. Objects to escape freely
B. Objects to enter and exit if moving rapidly
C. No movement of objects
D. Only light to enter
Answer: B. Objects to enter and exit if moving rapidly - What does ‘ergosphere’ mean in Greek?
A. Darkness
B. Energy
C. Work
D. Rotation
Answer: C. Work - What is the primary characteristic of the ergosphere compared to the event horizon?
A. Smaller in size
B. Allows light to escape
C. Objects can exit but not enter
D. Allows objects to enter and exit if moving rapidly
Answer: D. Allows objects to enter and exit if moving rapidly - Where can matter and energy be extracted from in a black hole?
A. Event horizon
B. Ergosphere
C. Singularity
D. Photon sphere
Answer: B. Ergosphere - What breaks down at the singularity of a black hole?
A. Electromagnetic forces
B. Quantum mechanics
C. General relativity
D. Gravitational forces
Answer: C. General relativity - What prevents anything from escaping a black hole once inside?
A. Ergosphere
B. Gravitational singularity
C. Event horizon
D. Photon sphere
Answer: C. Event horizon - Which type of black hole possesses an ergosphere?
A. Static black hole
B. Rotating black hole
C. Charged black hole
D. Stellar black hole
Answer: B. Rotating black hole - What recent enhancement has been made to Russia’s P-800 Onyx missile?
A) Improved target seeker
B) Increased range
C) Stealth technology integration
D) Enhanced propulsion system
Answer: A) Improved target seeker - What is the significance of Stage-2, named Kalam-250, in India’s space industry?
A) Atmospheric entry phase
B) Final orbit adjustments
C) Propelling to deep vacuum of outer space
D) Payload deployment
Answer: C) Propelling to deep vacuum of outer space - How does NASA determine the threat level posed by asteroids?
A) Size and speed
B) Proximity to Earth
C) Composition and shape
D) Potential impact force
Answer: B) Proximity to Earth - What technology does Hume AI utilize to enhance user interaction?
A) Facial recognition
B) Voice tonality analysis
C) Gesture recognition
D) Eye-tracking
Answer: B) Voice tonality analysis - What directive has been issued by the Department of Telecom (DoT) regarding USSD services?
A) Enhancement of USSD-based services
B) Suspension of USSD-based call forwarding services
C) Introduction of new USSD codes
D) Expansion of USSD coverage
Answer: B) Suspension of USSD-based call forwarding services - What modification has been proposed to the Saffir-Simpson wind scale?
A) Addition of new categories
B) Removal of category 5
C) Adjustment of wind speed ranges
D) Integration of storm surge assessment
Answer: A) Addition of new categories - Which organization recently celebrated its 10th anniversary as the implementation arm of the UNFCCC’s Climate Change Technology Mechanism?
A) NASA
B) Skyroot Aerospace
C) Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN)
D) Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi)
Answer: C) Climate Technology Centre and Network (CTCN) - What is the aim of India’s Longevity India Initiative?
A) Space exploration
B) Disease eradication
C) Extending human health span
D) Renewable energy development
Answer: C) Extending human health span - What distinguishes Phi-3-Mini from large language models (LLMs)?
A) Larger parameter count
B) Higher computational requirements
C) Cost-effectiveness and efficiency
D) Greater context window size
Answer: C) Cost-effectiveness and efficiency - What recent geopolitical development involves the delivery of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles?
A) India-China border dispute resolution
B) Russia-Ukraine conflict resolution
C) Philippines-China territorial dispute
D) US-Iran nuclear deal
Answer: C) Philippines-China territorial dispute - Look at this series: 2, 1, (1/2), (1/4), … What number should come next?
A. (1/3)
B. (1/8)
C. (2/8)
D. (1/16)
Answer: B. (1/8)
Explanation:
4/2 = 2
2/2 = 1
1/2 = 1/2
(1/2)/2 = 1/4
(1/4)/2 = 1/8 and so on. - Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, … What number should come next?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: D. 13
Explanation:
This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 3 is added; in the second, 2 is subtracted. - Look at this series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, … What number should come next?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 23
D. 26
Answer: B. 22
Explanation:
This is an alternating number subtraction series. First, 2 is subtracted, then 4, then 2, and so on. - Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, … What number should come next?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 26
Answer: C. 25
Explanation:
In this simple alternating subtraction and addition series; 1 is subtracted, then 2 is added, and so on. - Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, … What number should come next?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 27
D. 53
Answer: A. 12
Explanation:
In this series, each number is repeated, then 13 is subtracted to arrive at the next number. - Look at this series: SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL
A. CMN
B. UJI
C. VIJ
D. IJT
Answer: C. VIJ
Explanation:
There are two alphabetical series here. The first series is with the first letters only: S, T, U, V, W. The second series involves the remaining letters: CD, EF, GH, IJ, KL. - Look at this series: B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D
A. B2C2D
B. BC3D
C. B2C3D
D. BCD7
Answer: B. BC3D
Explanation:
Because the letters are the same, concentrate on the number series, which is a simple 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 series, and follows each letter in order. - Look at this series: FAG, GAF, HAI, IAH, ____
A. JAK
B. HAL
C. HAK
D. JAI
Answer: A. JAK
Explanation:
The middle letters are static, so concentrate on the first and third letters. The series involves an alphabetical order with a reversal of the letters. The first letters are in alphabetical order: F, G, H, I, J. The second and fourth segments are reversals of the first and third segments. - Look at this series: ELFA, GLHA, ILJA, _____, MLNA
A. OLPA
B. KLMA
C. LLMA
D. KLLA
Answer: B. KLMA
Explanation:
The second and fourth letters in the series, L and A, are static. The first and third letters consist of an alphabetical order beginning with the letter E. - Look at this series: CMM, EOO, GQQ, _____, KUU
A. GRR
B. GSS
C. ISS
D. ITT
Answer: C. ISS
Explanation:
The first letters are in alphabetical order with a letter skipped in between each segment: C, E, G, I, K. The second and third letters are repeated; they are also in order with a skipped letter: M, O, Q, S, U. - Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Parsley
B. Basil
C. Dill
D. Mayonnaise
Answer: D
Explanation: Parsley, basil, and dill are types of herbs. Mayonnaise is not an herb. - Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Inch
B. Ounce
C. Centimeter
D. Yard
Answer: B
Explanation: An ounce measures weight; the other choices measure length. - Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Tyre
B. Steering wheel
C. Engine
D. Car
Answer: D
Explanation: Tyre, steering wheel, and engine are all parts of a car. - Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Tulip
B. Rose
C. Bud
D. Daisy
Answer: C
Explanation: Tulip, rose, and daisy are all types of flowers. A bud is not. - Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Rye
B. Sourdough
C. Pumpernickel
D. Loaf
Answer: A
Explanation: Loaf, sourdough, and pumpernickel are types of bread. A rye is not a bread type.
Additional definitions for context:
Loaf: Bread that is shaped and baked in one piece and usually sliced before being eaten.
Pumpernickel: Dark, dense German bread made from coarsely ground whole-grain rye.
Sourdough: Leaven for making bread, consisting of fermenting dough, typically that left over from a previous batch.
Rye: A wheat-like cereal plant that tolerates poor soils and low temperatures. - In which year was Rahul born?
Statements:
Rahul at present is 25 years younger to his mother.
Rahul’s brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: E
Explanation: From both statements, we find that Rahul is (35 – 25) = 10 years older than his brother, who was born in 1964. So, Rahul was born in 1954. - What will be the total weight of 10 poles, each of the same weight?
Statements:
One-fourth of the weight of each pole is 5 kg.
The total weight of three poles is 20 kilograms more than the total weight of two poles.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: E
Explanation:
From statement I, weight of each pole = (4×5) kg = 20 kg.
From statement II, weight of each pole = (weight of 3 poles) – (weight of 2 poles) = 20 kg.
So, total weight of 10 poles = (20 x 10) kg = 200 kg from either statement. - How many children does M have?
Statements:
H is the only daughter of X who is wife of M.
K and J are brothers of M.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: D
Explanation: From statement I, H is the only daughter of M, but this does not indicate that M has no son. The information given in II is immaterial. - How much was the total sale of the company?
Statements:
The company sold 8000 units of product A each costing Rs. 25.
This company has no other product line.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: E
Explanation: From statement I, total sale of product A = Rs. (8000 x 25) = Rs. 200000.
From statement II, we know that the company deals only in product A. This implies that sale of product A is the total sale of the company, which is Rs. 200000. - The last Sunday of March, 2006 fell on which date?
Statements:
The first Sunday of that month fell on 5th.
The last day of that month was Friday.
A. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
B. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
C. Either I or II is sufficient
D. Neither I nor II is sufficient
E. Both I and II are sufficient
Answer: E
Explanation:
From statement I, we conclude that 5th, 12th, 19th and 26th of March, 2006 were Sundays. So, the last Sunday fell on 26th.
From statement II, we conclude that 31st March, 2006 was Friday. Thus, 26th March, 2006 was the last Sunday of the month. - Pointing to a photograph of a boy, Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.” How is Suresh related to that boy?
A) Brother
B) Uncle
C) Cousin
D) Father
Answer: D) Father
Explanation: The boy in the photograph is the son of the only son of Suresh’s mother, i.e., the son of Suresh. Hence, Suresh is the father of the boy. - If A + B means A is the mother of B; A – B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the father of B, and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?
A) Q – N + M x P
B) P + S x N – Q
C) P – M + N x Q
D) Q – S % P
Answer: C) P – M + N x Q
Explanation:
P – M → P is the brother of M
M + N → M is the mother of N
N x Q → N is the sister of Q
Therefore, P is the maternal uncle of Q. - If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how is D related to A?
A) Brother
B) Sister
C) Nephew
D) Cannot be determined
Answer: D) Cannot be determined
Explanation:
If D is male, the answer is Nephew.
If D is female, the answer is Niece.
Since the sex of D is not known, the relation between D and A cannot be determined.
Note:
Niece – A daughter of one’s brother or sister, or of one’s brother-in-law or sister-in-law.
Nephew – A son of one’s brother or sister, or of one’s brother-in-law or sister-in-law. - If A + B means A is the brother of B; A – B means A is the sister of B, and A x B means A is the father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?
A) M – N x C + F
B) F – C + N x M
C) N + M – F x C
D) M x N – C + F
Answer: D) M x N – C + F
Explanation:
M x N → M is the father of N
N – C → N is the sister of C
C + F → C is the brother of F
Hence, M is the father of C or C is the son of M. - Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle.” How is the boy related to the girl?
A) Brother
B) Nephew
C) Uncle
D) Son-in-law
Answer: A) Brother
Explanation:
The father of the boy’s uncle is the girl’s grandfather. The daughter of the grandfather is the girl’s mother or aunt. Therefore, the boy is the girl’s brother. - Which two of the following are not neighbours?
A) RV
B) UV
C) RP
D) QW
Answer: A) RV
Explanation:
- Which one is immediately to the right of V?
A) P
B) U
C) R
D) T
Answer: D) T
Explanation:
T is immediately to the right of V. - What is the position of S?
A) Between U and V
B) Second to the right of P
C) To the immediate right of W
D) Data inadequate
Answer: C) To the immediate right of W - Who is sitting to the right of Prakash? A) Mukesh
B) Deepa
C) Pankaj
D) Lalit
Answer: D) Lalit
Explanation:
Lalit is sitting to the right of Prakash.
- Who is sitting just to the right of Pankaj?
A) Deepa
B) Lalit
C) Prakash
D) Priti
Answer: A) Deepa
Explanation:
Deepa is sitting just to the right of Pankaj. - I have to ___________ early tomorrow because I have an important meeting.
A. Get up
B. Look up
C. Come on
D. Look out
Correct Answer: A. Get up
Explanation: “Get up” means to rise from bed or awaken, which is necessary for getting ready for an early meeting. - Here’s a chair. Please ___________.
A. Break down
B. Go up
C. Sit down
D. Make up
Correct Answer: C. Sit down
Explanation: “Sit down” means to lower oneself into a seated position, which is appropriate when offering someone a chair. - If you don’t pass the exam this time, don’t ___________. Try again!
A. Come in
B. Look out
C. Go on
D. Give up
Correct Answer: D. Give up
Explanation: “Give up” means to stop trying. The phrase encourages perseverance by advising against giving up. - Your room is so untidy! Please ___________ the clothes and put them in the washing machine.
A. Stand up
B. Pick up
C. Get on
D. Turn off
Correct Answer: B. Pick up
Explanation: “Pick up” means to collect or gather, which is the action needed to tidy the room. - ___________ the TV. My favorite show will start in a minute.
A. Grow up
B. Look for
C. Take off
D. Turn on
Correct Answer: D. Turn on
Explanation: “Turn on” means to switch on an electronic device, which is needed to watch the show. - The babysitter ___________ the girl while her parents were at the restaurant.
A. Looked after
B. Found out
C. Broke down
D. Ran into
Correct Answer: A. Looked after
Explanation: “Looked after” means to take care of, which is what the babysitter did for the girl. - I didn’t know the answer, so I ___________ on the internet.
A. Cut it out
B. Looked it up
C. Blew it up
D. Dressed it up
Correct Answer: B. Looked it up
Explanation: “Looked it up” means to search for information, which is what the person did on the internet. - My car ___________ again yesterday. I should buy a new one.
A. Woke up
B. Grew up
C. Broke down
D. Looked down
Correct Answer: C. Broke down
Explanation: “Broke down” means to stop working due to a mechanical issue, which describes the car’s condition. - I ___________ really well with my work colleagues. We often meet up for drinks or a meal.
A. Get along
B. Find out
C. Fight back
D. Break up
Correct Answer: A. Get along
Explanation: “Get along” means to have a good relationship, which is the context given for meeting up with colleagues. - I don’t know enough about it, so I need to ___________ more.
A. Take out
B. Find out
C. Let down
D. Take off
Correct Answer: B. Find out
Explanation: “Find out” means to discover or learn more information, which is needed to understand the topic better. - The chef __________ the apple to remove its skin before slicing it.
A. Raised
B. Grew
C. Pared
D. Descended
Correct Answer: C. Pared
Explanation: “Pared” means to remove the outer covering. - After the rain, the hiker decided to __________ the steep trail to reach the summit.
A. Ascend
B. Descend
C. Reduce
D. Withdraw
Correct Answer: A. Ascend
Explanation: “Ascend” means to climb or go up, which is the opposite of “descend.” - The __________ of the weather made it difficult to plan the outdoor event.
A. Certainty
B. Predictability
C. Stability
D. Precarity
Correct Answer: D. Precarity
Explanation: “Precarity” means a condition of existence without predictability. - The __________ enemy refused to negotiate peace under any circumstances.
A. Assuageable
B. Implacable
C. Appeasable
D. Compliant
Correct Answer: B. Implacable
Explanation: “Implacable” means not able to be placated or appeased. - Despite the team’s efforts to change his mind, he remained __________ in his decision.
A. Compliant
B. Obdurate
C. Flexible
D. Submissive
Correct Answer: B. Obdurate
Explanation: “Obdurate” means stubbornly persistent. - The soldiers planned a __________ into enemy territory at dawn.
A. Withdrawal
B. Exit
C. Foray
D. Retreat
Correct Answer: C. Foray
Explanation: “Foray” means a sudden or irregular incursion, especially in warfare. - Her __________ grip on the rope ensured she didn’t fall during the climb.
A. Loose
B. Tenacious
C. Weak
D. Slack
Correct Answer: B. Tenacious
Explanation: “Tenacious” means holding together; cohesive. - The government introduced measures to __________ the economic crisis.
A. Exacerbate
B. Aggravate
C. Assuage
D. Intensify
Correct Answer: C. Assuage
Explanation: “Assuage” means to make an unpleasant feeling less intense; the opposite of exacerbate. - The board’s decision was met with __________ by the shareholders.
A. Acceptance
B. Compliance
C. Obduracy
D. Agreement
Correct Answer: C. Obduracy
Explanation: “Obduracy” means stubbornly refusing to change one’s opinion or course of action. - The __________ of the new recruit impressed the entire team.
A. Weakness
B. Tenacity
C. Laxity
D. Indifference
Correct Answer: B. Tenacity
Explanation: “Tenacity” means the quality of being able to grip something firmly; determined persistence. - Active Voice: The chef cooked a delicious meal.
Passive Voice: A delicious meal __________ by the chef.
A. was cooked
B. is cooked
C. cooked
D. has been cooked
Correct Answer: A. was cooked - Active Voice: The students are writing an essay.
Passive Voice: An essay __________ by the students.
A. is written
B. was written
C. is being written
D. has been written
Correct Answer: C. is being written - Active Voice: The manager will approve the new policy.
Passive Voice: The new policy __________ by the manager.
A. will be approved
B. is approved
C. has been approved
D. was approved
Correct Answer: A. will be approved - Active Voice: The company has launched a new product.
Passive Voice: A new product __________ by the company.
A. is launched
B. has been launched
C. will be launched
D. was launched
Correct Answer: B. has been launched - Active Voice: They cleaned the park last weekend.
Passive Voice: The park __________ last weekend.
A. was cleaned
B. is cleaned
C. has been cleaned
D. will be cleaned
Correct Answer: A. was cleaned - Direct Speech: “I am going to the market,” she said.
Reported Speech: She said that she __________ to the market.
A. is going
B. was going
C. will be going
D. had gone
Correct Answer: B. was going - Direct Speech: “We have finished the project,” they said.
Reported Speech: They said that they __________ the project.
A. have finished
B. had finished
C. finished
D. are finishing - Correct Answer: B. had finished
Direct Speech: “Can you help me?” he asked.
Reported Speech: He asked if I __________ help him.
A. can
B. could
C. will
D. would
Correct Answer: B. could - Direct Speech: “We will visit you next week,” they said.
Reported Speech: They said that they __________ me next week.
A. will visit
B. visited
C. would visit
D. have visited
Correct Answer: C. would visit - Direct Speech: “Don’t play near the road,” the mother said to her child.
Reported Speech: The mother told her child __________ near the road.
A. don’t play
B. not to play
C. didn’t play
D. hasn’t played
Correct Answer: B. not to play - An order was placed for the supply of a carper whose length and breadth were in the ratio of 3 : 2. Subsequently, the dimensions of the carpet were altered such that its length and breadth were in the ratio 7 : 3 but were was no change in its parameter. Find the ratio of the areas of the carpets in both the cases.
A. 4 : 3
B. 8 : 7
C. 4 : 1
D. 6 : 5
Ans: B. 8 : 7
Sol: Let the length and breadth of the carpet in the first case be 3x units and 2x units respectively.
Let the dimensions of the carpet in the second case be 7y, 3y units respectively.
From the data,.
2(3x + 2x) = 2(7y + 3y)
=> 5x = 10y
=> x = 2y
Required ratio of the areas of the carpet in both the cases
= 3x * 2x : 7y : 3y
= 6×2 : 21y2
= 6 * (2y)2 : 21y2
= 6 * 4y2 : 21y2
= 8 : 7 - The sector of a circle has radius of 21 cm and central angle 135o. Find its perimeter?
A. 91.5 cm
B. 93.5 cm
C. 94.5 cm
D. 92.5 cm
Ans: 91.5 cm
Sol: Perimeter of the sector = length of the arc + 2(radius)
= (135/360 * 2 * 22/7 * 21) + 2(21)
= 49.5 + 42 = 91.5 cm - The length of a rectangle is two – fifths of the radius of a circle. The radius of the circle is equal to the side of the square, whose area is 1225 sq.units. What is the area (in sq.units) of the rectangle if the rectangle if the breadth is 10 units?
A. 140
B. 156
C. 175
D. 214
Ans: 140 sq.units
Given that the area of the square = 1225 sq.units
=> Side of square = √1225 = 35 units
The radius of the circle = side of the square = 35 units Length of the rectangle = 2/5 * 35 = 14 units
Given that breadth = 10 units
Area of the rectangle = lb = 14 * 10 = 140 sq.units - The ratio of the volumes of two cubes is 729 : 1331. What is the ratio of their total surface areas?
A. 81 : 121
B. 9 : 11
C. 729 : 1331
D. 27 : 12
Ans: A. 81 : 121
Sol: Ratio of the sides = ³√729 : ³√1331 = 9 : 11
Ratio of surface areas = 92 : 112 = 81 : 121 - The volumes of two cones are in the ratio 1 : 10 and the radii of the cones are in the ratio of 1 : 2. What is the length of the wire?
A. 2 : 5
B. 1 : 5
C. 3 : 5
D. 4 : 5
Ans: 2 : 5
Sol: The volume of the cone = (1/3)πr2h
Only radius (r) and height (h) are varying.
Hence, (1/3)π may be ignored.
V1/V2 = r12h1/r22h2 => 1/10 = (1)2h1/(2)2h2
=> h1/h2 = 2/5
i.e. h1 : h2 = 2 : 5 - The radius of a wheel is 22.4 cm. What is the distance covered by the wheel in making 500 resolutions.
A. 252 m
B. 704 m
C. 352 m
D. 808 m
Ans: B. 704 m
Sol: In one resolution, the distance covered by the wheel is its own circumference. Distance covered in 500 resolutions.
= 500 * 2 * 22/7 * 22.4 = 70400 cm = 704 m - The dimensions of a room are 25 feet * 15 feet * 12 feet. What is the cost of white washing the four walls of the room at Rs. 5 per square feet if there is one door of dimensions 6 feet * 3 feet and three windows of dimensions 4 feet * 3 feet each?
A. Rs. 4800
B. Rs. 3600
C. Rs. 3560
D. Rs. 4530
Ans: D. Rs. 4530
Sol: Area of the four walls = 2h(l + b)
Since there are doors and windows, area of the walls = 2 * 12 (15 + 25) – (6 * 3) – 3(4 * 3) = 906 sq.ft.
Total cost = 906 * 5 = Rs. 4530 - A cube of side one meter length is cut into small cubes of side 10 cm each. How many such small cubes can be obtained?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000
Ans: C. 1000
Sol: Along one edge, the number of small cubes that can be cut
= 100/10 = 10
Along each edge 10 cubes can be cut. (Along length, breadth and height). Total number of small cubes that can be cut = 10 * 10 * 10 = 1000 - The length of a rectangular floor is more than its breadth by 200%. If Rs. 324 is required to paint the floor at the rate of Rs. 3 per sq m, then what would be the length of the floor?
A. 27 m
B. 24 m
C. 18 m
D. 21 m
Ans: C. 18 m
Sol: Let the length and the breadth of the floor be l m and b m respectively.
l = b + 200% of b = l + 2b = 3b
Area of the floor = 324/3 = 108 sq m
l b = 108 i.e., l * l/3 = 108
l2 = 324 => l = 18. - The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangle is 4 : 3 and the area of the rectangle is 6912 sq cm. Find the ratio of the breadth and the area of the rectangle?
A. 1 : 96
B. 1 : 48
C. 1 : 84
D. 1 : 68
Ans: A. 1 : 96
Sol: Let the length and the breadth of the rectangle be 4x cm and 3x respectively.
(4x)(3x) = 6912
12×2 = 6912
x2 = 576 = 4 * 144 = 22 * 122 (x > 0)
=> x = 2 * 12 = 24
Ratio of the breadth and the areas = 3x : 12×2 = 1 : 4x = 1: 96. - Mr. Tassawar Javed invested an amount of Rs. 13,900 divided in two different schemes A and B at the simple interest rate of 14% p.a. and 11% p.a. respectively. If the total amount of simple interest earned in 2 years be Rs. 3508, what was the amount invested in Scheme B?
A. Rs. 6400
B. Rs. 6500
C. Rs. 7200
D. Rs. 7500
Ans: A. Rs. 6400
Let the sum invested in Scheme A be Rs. x and that in Scheme B be Rs. (13900 – x).
then , (x*14*2/100)+(13900-x)*11*2/100) =3508
28x – 22x = 350800 – (13900 x 22)
6x = 45000
x = 7500.
So, sum invested in Scheme B = Rs. (13900 – 7500) = Rs. 6400. - A man took a loan from a bank at the rate of 12% p.a. simple interest. After 3 years he had to pay Rs. 5400 interest only for the period. The principal amount borrowed by him was :
A. Rs. 2000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 15,000
D. Rs. 20,000
Ans: C. Rs. 15,000
principal = Rs. ( 100 X 5400/12 X 3 ) = Rs. 15000 - A sum of Rs. 12,500 amounts to Rs. 15,500 in 4 years at the rate of simple interest What is the rate of interest ?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 6%
Ans: D. 6%
S.I. = Rs. (15500 – 12500) = Rs. 3000.
Rate = ( 100 X 3000/12500 X 4 )% = 6%. - What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest for 6 years and that for 9 years ?
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 4
C. 2 : 3
D. Data inadequate
Ans: C. 2 : 3
Let the principal be P and rate of interest be R%. So Required ratio = [(P x R x 6/100) / (13 x R x 9/100)] = 6PR/9PR = 6/9 = 2 : 3 - An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes :_________?
A. 10%
B. 10.25%
C. 10.50%
D. None of these
Ans: B. 10.25%
Let the sum be Rs. 100. Then, S.I. for first 6 months = Rs. ( 100 X 10 X 1/100 X 2 ) = Rs. 5. S.I. for last 6 months = Rs. ( 105 X 10 X 1/100 X 2 ) = Rs. 5.25. So, amount at the end of 1 year=Rs.(100 + 5 + 5.25) = Rs. 110.25 Effective rate = (110.25 – 100) = 10.25%. - 26.98% of 6002 + 45.01% of 4199 = ________?
A. 2500
B. 3500
C. 3600
D. 4500
Ans: B. 3500
Explanation:
27% of 6000 + 45% of 4200 = ?
=> ? = 27/100 * 6000 + 45/100 * 4200
=> ? = 1620 + 1890 = 3510 = 3500 - 58978 / 363.94 * 11.02 = _______?
A. 1580
B. 1680
C. 1780
D. 1880
Ans: C. 1780
Explanation:
59000 / 364 * 11 = ?
=> ? = 162 * 11 = 1782 = 1780 - √3584 * 52.034 = _______?
A. 3180
B. 3200
C. 3120
D. 3210
Ans: C. 3120
Explanation:
√3600 * 52 = ?
=> ? = 60 * 52 = 3120 - 79.98 / 12.51 * 2.49 = ______?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18
Ans: C. 16
Explanation:
80 / 12.5 * 2.5 = ?
=> ? = 6.4 * 2.5 = 16 - 24 – [2.4 – {0.24 * 2 – (0.024 – ?)}] = 22.0584
A. 0.0024
B. 0.024
C. 0.24
D. 0.00024
Ans: A. 0.0024
Explanation:
24 – [2.4 – {0.24 * 2 – (0.024 – ?)}] = 22.0584
24 – [2.4 – {0.48 – (0.024 – ?)}] = 22.0584
24 – [2.4 – 0.48 + 0.024 – ?] = 22.0584
24 – 2.4 + 0.48 – 0.024 + ? = 22.0584
? = 22.0584 – 24.48 + 2.424
? = 24.2824 – 24.48 => ? = 0.0024 - 3648.24 + 364.824 / ? – 36.4824 = 3794.1696
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans: A. 2
Explanation:
3648.24 + 364.824 / ? – 36.4824 = 3794.1696
364.824/? = 3794.1696 – 3648.24 + 36.4824
Thus ? = 364.824 / 182.412 = 2 - 8/15 / 1 1/3 * 3 ?/4 = 1.5
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Ans: C. 3
Explanation:
8/15 * 3/4 * 3 ?/4 = 1.5
=> 3 ?/4 = 3/2 * 5/2 = 15/4 = 3 3/4
=> ? = 3. - (0.456 * 0.456 – 0.228 * 0.228) / (0.456 + 0.228) = ________?
A. 0.228
B. 0.456
C. 0.684
D. 1.0
Ans: 0.228
Explanation:
(0.456 * 0.456 – 0.228 * 0.228) / (0.456 + 0.228)
This is the form of 7x/60 = 7 = a – b = 0.466 – 0.228 = 0.228 - 4 * 0.4 * 0.04 * 0.004 = _________?
A. 0.0256
B. 0.00256
C. 0.000256
D. 0.0000256
Ans: C. 0.000256
Explanation:
4 * 0.4 * 0.04 * 0.004 => 4 * (4/10) * (4/100) * (4/1000) = (256/1000000) = 0.000256 - 60 + 5 * 12 / (180/3) = _______?
A. 60
B. 120
C. 13
D. 61
Ans: D. 61
Explanation:
60 + 5 * 12 / (180/3) = 60 + 5 * 12 / (60)
= 60 + (5 * 12)/60 = 60 + 1 = 61. - In a right triangle, if the length of the side adjacent to an angle is 7 and the length of the hypotenuse is 13, what is the measure of the angle in degrees?
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
ANS:- C) 60°.
Sol:- We can use the cosine function to find the measure of the angle. In a right triangle, the cosine of an angle is the ratio of the length of the adjacent side to the length of the hypotenuse.
Given that the length of the side adjacent to the angle is 7 and the length of the hypotenuse is 13, we can use the cosine function:
cosθ = adjacent /hypotenuse
cosθ = 7/13
To find the measure of the angle θ, we need to take the inverse cosine (arccosine) of 7/13
θ = arccos (7/13)
Using a calculator, we find: θ ≈ 60∘
Therefore, the measure of the angle is approximately 60∘
So, the correct answer is C) 60°. - What is the final step when solving for a side in a right triangle with two known sides?
a) Determine the appropriate trigonometric ratio.
b) Find the angle corresponding to the known sides.
c) Label the known sides as adjacent, opposite, or hypotenuse.
d) Use algebra to find the unknown side.
ANS:- D) Use algebra to find the unknown side
Sol:- The final step when solving for a side in a right triangle with two known sides is to Use algebra to find the unknown side.
After determining the appropriate trigonometric ratio and setting up the equation involving the known sides and the unknown side, you would then solve the equation using algebra to find the value of the unknown side.
So the correct answer is D) Use algebra to find the unknown side - If cosecθ = 2, what is the value of sinθ?
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 2
D) 0.25
ANS:- A) 0.5
Sol:- Given that cscθ=2, we know that cscθ = 1/sinθ
So, 1/sinθ = 2.
To find sinθ, we can take the reciprocal of both sides:
Sinθ = 1/2
Therefore, the correct answer is A) 0.5 - In a right triangle, if the length of the hypotenuse is 10 and the length of one leg is 6, what is the length of the other leg?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 6
D) 12
ANS:- B) 8.
Sol:- To find the length of the other leg of the right triangle, we can use the Pythagorean theorem, which states that in a right triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse (c) is equal to the sum of the squares of the lengths of the other two sides (a and b).
Mathematically, it can be represented as:
c2 = a2 + b2
Given that the length of the hypotenuse (c) is 10 and the length of one leg (a) is 6, we can substitute these values into the equation:
102 = 62 + b2
(10 x 10) = (6 x 6) + b2
100 = 36 + b2
Now, let’s solve for
b2 = 100 − 36
b2 = 64
Taking the square root of both sides to find
b2 = 64
b = 8
Therefore, the length of the other leg of the right triangle is 8 units.
So, the correct answer is B) 8. - If you know the lengths of the two legs of a right triangle, which step is necessary before proceeding to find the unknown side?
a) Determine the angle corresponding to the known sides.
b) Apply the Pythagorean theorem.
c) Label the known sides as adjacent, opposite, or hypotenuse.
d) Choose the appropriate trigonometric ratio.
ANS:- B) Apply the Pythagorean theorem.
Sol:- If you know the lengths of the two legs of a right triangle, the necessary step before proceeding to find the unknown side is to Apply the Pythagorean theorem.
Before applying any trigonometric ratios, you need to ensure that the triangle is indeed a right triangle. The Pythagorean theorem allows you to verify that the given lengths of the two legs satisfy the relationship required for a right triangle. Once you confirm that the triangle is right-angled using the Pythagorean theorem, you can then proceed with trigonometric ratios if necessary.
So the correct answer is B) Apply the Pythagorean theorem - Those reactions in which two or more substances combine to form a single substance is called:
A. Combination reaction
B. Displacement reaction
C. Decomposition reaction
D. Double displacement reaction
Ans. A - Those chemical substances which have a sour taste are:
A. Salt
B. Acid
C. Bases
D. None of the above
Ans. B - Those chemical substances which have a bitter taste are:
A. Acid
B. Bases
C. Salt
D. Concentrated Acids
Ans. B - The scale on which the strength of acid solutions as well as basic solutions could be represented by making use of hydrogen ion concentrations in them is called:
A. Balance scale
B. Platform scale
C. Pan scale
D. pH scale
Ans. D - A compound formed from an acid by the replacement of the hydrogen in the acid by a metal is called:
A. Base
B. Salt
C. Concentrated Acid
D. Alkali
Ans. B - What is the chemical bond formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another is called?
A. Single covalent bond
B. Ionic bond
C. Double covalent bond
D. Triple covalent bond
Ans. B - The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms is known as:
A. Ionic bond
B. Triple covalent bond
C. Covalent bond
D. Single covalent bond
Ans. C - What is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals called?
A. Salt
B. Alloy
C. Alkali
D. Acid
Ans. B - What is an unsaturated hydrocarbon in which the two carbon atoms are connected by a double bond called?
A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes
D. Ionic bond
Ans. B - An unsaturated hydrocarbon in which two carbon atoms are connected by a triple bond is called:
A. Alkynes
B. Haloalkanes
C. Alkenes
D. Ketones
Ans. A - In the case of a concave mirror, the image of an object is:
(a) Real, erect, and diminished when the object lies beyond the centre of curvature.
(b) Real, inverted, and of the same size as the object when it lies between the centre of curvature and focus.
(c) Real, inverted, and diminished when the object lies beyond the centre of curvature.
(d) Not real, large, and unproportional.
Ans. (c) - To increase the magnifying power of a telescope, the focal length of:
(a) Objective lens should be increased.
(b) Objective lens should be decreased.
(c) Eye-piece lens should be increased.
(d) Eye-piece lens should be decreased.
Ans. (d) - Why does the colour of the ocean appear blue?
(a) Because the sunlight falling on it is reflected.
(b) Because the sunlight falling on it is refracted.
(c) Because the sunlight falling on it is absorbed.
(d) Because the sunlight falling on it is scattered.
Ans. (d) - What is the power of a concave lens?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) - Which glasses or lenses are used to correct the short-sighted eye defect?
(a) Concave Lens
(b) Convex Lens
(c) Bipolar Lens
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) - In projectors, which lenses are used?
(a) Convex lens
(b) Concave lens
(c) Bipolar lens
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (a) - Due to which phenomenon does a stick immersed in water appear to be bent?
(a) Reflection
(b) Dispersion
(c) Refraction
(d) Scattering
Ans. (c) - Due to which phenomenon do light rays emerging from a cinema machine spread wide on the screen?
(a) Dispersion
(b) Diffraction
(c) Scattering
(d) Refraction
Ans. (b) - A dental mirror is what type of mirror?
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans. (d) - What type of mirror is used in anti-shoplifting devices?
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) - An ancient book of 1000 B.C. that deals with health, hygiene, longevity, etc. is?
A. Sushruta Samhita
B. Atatharvaveda
C. Bhela Samhita
D. Charaka Samhita
Ans: B - Name a concise and scientific exposition of Ayurveda in verse form, distinguished by its knowledge of chemical reactions and laboratory processes.
A. Vrdukunta
B. Vaghata
C. Kasyapa Samhita
D. None of the above
Ans: B - Name an ancient book that describes difficult surgical operations like opening of the brain.
A. Celsus
B. Bhela Samhita
C. Chivaravastu
D. Agnivesa Samhita
Ans: C - Which ancient book of 600 B.C. deals with pediatrics?
A. Kasyapa Samhita
B. Agnivesa Samhita
C. Bhela Samhita
D. None of the above
Ans: A - A treatise on the rasa chikitsa system of ancient medicine, which considers mercury as the king of all medicines is?
A. Vaghata
B. Tristia
C. Gandavadha
D. Vrdukunta
Ans: D - A treatise on medicine and surgery from Alexandria and Rome is?
A. Celsus
B. Hippocratic Oath
C. Georgics
D. Aeneid
Ans: A - Which of the following ancient books is the codification of medicine scattered in the Vedas?
A. Bhela Samhita
B. Charaka Samhita
C. Sushruta Samhita
D. None of the above
Ans: A - Who is considered the father of Western medicine?
A. Hesiod
B. Hippocrates
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B - Name the first book on medicine in China.
A. Huangdi Neiching
B. Celsus
C. Vaghata
D. None of the above
Ans: A - A classical exposition of Indian medicine that deals with almost all branches of medicine is?
A. Madhavacharaya
B. Kasyapa Samhita
C. Charaka Samhita
D. Agnivesa Samhita
Ans: C - Jaapi, which recently received a GI tag, is a traditional craft from which state?
A) West Bengal
B) Assam
C) Odisha
D) Tripura
Answer: B) Assam - Which traditional craft involving terracotta received a GI tag from Assam?
A) Sarthebari Metal Craft
B) Asharikandi Terracotta Craft
C) Jaapi
D) Bihu Dhol
Answer: B) Asharikandi Terracotta Craft - The Bihu Dhol, which received a GI tag, is associated with which Indian state?
A) Bihar
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Assam
D) West Bengal
Answer: C) Assam - Which state’s traditional crafts include the Pani Meteka craft that recently received a GI tag?
A) Odisha
B) Assam
C) Tripura
D) Meghalaya
Answer: B) Assam - What is the name of the traditional attire of Bodo women that received a GI tag?
A) Bodo Dokhona
B) Bodo Jwmgra
C) Bodo Gamsa
D) Bodo Eri Silk
Answer: A) Bodo Dokhona - Which product referred to as the ‘fabric of peace’ received a GI tag from Assam?
A) Bodo Jwmgra
B) Bodo Gamsa
C) Bodo Eri Silk
D) Bodo Thorkha
Answer: C) Bodo Eri Silk - Which traditional musical instrument from Varanasi received a GI tag?
A) Sitar
B) Tabla
C) Flute
D) Shehnai
Answer: B) Tabla - What is the name of the traditional dress worn by Bodo men that received a GI tag?
A) Bodo Dokhona
B) Bodo Gamsa
C) Bodo Jwmgra
D) Bodo Thorkha
Answer: B) Bodo Gamsa - Which state’s traditional drink, Banaras Thandai, recently received a GI tag?
A) Assam
B) Tripura
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Odisha
Answer: C) Uttar Pradesh - Which sweet preparation from Tripura received a GI tag?
A) Matabari Peda
B) Bodo Peda
C) Pachra-Rignai
D) Garo Peda
Answer: A) Matabari Peda - Which traditional dress from Tripura received a GI tag?
A) Pachra-Rignai
B) Dokhona
C) Sifung
D) Gamsa
Answer: A) Pachra-Rignai - Which type of pottery from Meghalaya received a GI tag?
A) Garo Pottery
B) Khasi Pottery
C) Lyrnai Pottery
D) Chubitchi Pottery
Answer: C) Lyrnai Pottery - Which traditional product associated with the Shri Kashi Vishwanath deity received a GI tag?
A) Banaras Thandai
B) Banaras Shehnai
C) Banaras Tabla
D) Banaras Lal Peda
Answer: A) Banaras Thandai - Which traditional Assamese craft involves the use of bamboo and received a GI tag?
A) Asharikandi Terracotta Craft
B) Pani Meteka Craft
C) Jaapi
D) Sarthebari Metal Craft
Answer: C) Jaapi - What is the traditional musical instrument from Bodo culture that received a GI tag?
A) Bodo Jwmgra
B) Bodo Sifung
C) Bodo Thorkha
D) Bodo Gamsa
Answer: C) Bodo Thorkha - Which state has secured a GI tag for its Garo Textile weaving?
A) Assam
B) Tripura
C) Odisha
D) Meghalaya
Answer: D) Meghalaya - Which section of the Kolkata Metro is part of the East-West Corridor?
A) Kavi Subhash-Hemanta Mukhopadhyay
B) Esplanade-Howrah Maidan
C) New Garia-Airport line
D) None of the above
Answer: B) Esplanade-Howrah Maidan - Which city saw the inauguration of the redeveloped Kochrab Ashram?
A) New Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Ahmedabad
D) Kolkata
Answer: C) Ahmedabad - What significant event does the redevelopment of Kochrab Ashram commemorate?
A) Indian Independence Day
B) Republic Day
C) The 94th anniversary of the Dandi March
D) Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday
Answer: C) The 94th anniversary of the Dandi March - Which wildlife sanctuary faced a legal dispute regarding a notification withdrawal?
A) Kaziranga National Park
B) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary
C) Jim Corbett National Park
D) Ranthambore National Park
Answer: B) Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary - What geological formation did the recent study focus on regarding early earthquakes?
A) Appalachian Mountains
B) Himalayas
C) Barberton Greenstone Belt
D) Andes Mountains
Answer: C) Barberton Greenstone Belt - Where is the Ramgarh Crater located?
A) Gujarat
B) Rajasthan
C) Maharashtra
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B) Rajasthan - How old is the Ramgarh Crater estimated to be?
A) 100 million years
B) 10 million years
C) 165 million years
D) 500 million years
Answer: C) 165 million years - What geological feature characterizes Ramgarh Crater?
A) Volcano
B) Glacier
C) Meteor impact crater
D) Canyon
Answer: C) Meteor impact crater - Which country conducted the study revealing a potential subduction zone beneath the Gibraltar Strait?
A) Spain
B) Portugal
C) Morocco
D) Italy
Answer: B) Portugal - What will the formation of the “Ring of Fire” ultimately lead to, according to the study?
A) Gradual widening of the Gibraltar Strait
B) Closure of the Atlantic Ocean
C) Formation of new islands in the Atlantic
D) Increased volcanic activity in the region
Answer: B) Closure of the Atlantic Ocean - What is the estimated length range of Vasuki indicus, as extrapolated by the authors?
A) Between 5 and 8 meters
B) Between 6.25 and 10.9 meters
C) Between 10.9 and 15.2 meters
D) Between 15.2 and 20 meters
Answer: C) Between 10.9 and 15.2 meters - Which region is known for the presence of the reticulated python, a large modern snake species?
A) Central Africa
B) Southeast Asia
C) South America
D) Australia
Answer: B) Southeast Asia - What geographical area is associated with Vasuki indicus, as mentioned by the authors?
A) South America
B) Southeast Asia
C) India
D) Australia
Answer: C) India - According to recent study, which snake species, based on the authors’ estimates, surpasses the reticulated python in length?
A) Vasuki indicus
B) King cobra
C) Anaconda
D) Black mamba
Answer: A) Vasuki indicus - Who was the first All India Radio station established in Odisha?
a) Akashvani Cuttack
b) Akashvani Bhubaneswar
c) Akashvani Berhampur
d) Akashvani Puri
Answer: a) Akashvani Cuttack - Who was the first Advocate of Odisha?
a) Sri Madhusudan Das
b) Fakir Mohan Senapati
c) Gopinath Mohanty
d) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
Answer: a) Sri Madhusudan Das - Who was the first Air Marshal from Odisha?
a) Saroj Jena
b) Lalitendu Mansingh
c) Nilamani Senapati
d) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
Answer: a) Saroj Jena - Who was the first Ambassador from Odisha?
a) Lalitendu Mansingh
b) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
c) Nilamani Senapati
d) Madhab Chandra Pattnaik
Answer: a) Lalitendu Mansingh - Who was the first Autobiography Writer from Odisha?
a) Fakir Mohan Senapati
b) Gopinath Mohanty
c) Biswanath Mishra
d) RamShankar Ray
Answer: a) Fakir Mohan Senapati - Who was the first person to be awarded the Gyanapitha from Odisha?
a) Gopinath Mohanty
b) Ramadevi Choudhury
c) Mahakabi Sarala Das
d) Pranakushna Parija
Answer: a) Gopinath Mohanty - Who was the first Central Minister from Odisha?
a) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab
b) Rabi Ray
c) Nandini Satapathy
d) Amiya Kumari Padhi
Answer: a) Dr. Harekrushna Mahtab - Who was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court from Odisha?
a) Ranganath Mishra
b) Rabi Ray
c) Nandini Satapathy
d) Amiya Kumari Padhi
Answer: a) Ranganath Mishra - What was the first cinema hall established in Odisha?
a) Sitaram Vilas Talkies (Berhampur)
b) Kalinga Studio (Bhubaneswar)
c) Konark Jute Mill
d) University College of Engineering, Burla
Answer: a) Sitaram Vilas Talkies (Berhampur)
