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Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-2

The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.

Download PDF Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-2

Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin, SFS, ICDS Supervisor: June-2

  1. What new initiative has Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary introduced?
    a) Night Safari
    b) Bird Watching
    c) Stargazing
    d) River Rafting
    Answer: c) Stargazing
  2. How many new stargazing cottages have been developed in Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    a) Four
    b) Five
    c) Six
    d) Seven
    Answer: c) Six
  3. What unique feature do these stargazing cottages have?
    a) Glass walls
    b) Glass floors
    c) Glass roofs
    d) Glass doors
    Answer: c) Glass roofs
  4. Over how many square kilometers does Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary spread?
    a) 253 square kilometers
    b) 353 square kilometers
    c) 453 square kilometers
    d) 553 square kilometers
    Answer: b) 353 square kilometers
  5. What is the total area of dark sky available for stargazing in Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary?
    a) 800 square kilometers
    b) 900 square kilometers
    c) 1,000 square kilometers
    d) 1,100 square kilometers
    Answer: c) 1,000 square kilometers
  6. Who recommended the dissolution of the Odisha State Legislative Assembly?
    a) The President of India
    b) The Governor of Odisha
    c) The Odisha Cabinet
    d) The Chief Justice of Odisha
    Answer: c) The Odisha Cabinet
  7. Who chaired the Odisha Cabinet meeting for the dissolution recommendation?
    a) Naveen Patnaik
    b) Pradip Kumar Amat
    c) Biju Patnaik
    d) Ashok Chandra Panda
    Answer: a) Naveen Patnaik
  8. Under which Article of the Constitution does the House of the People continue for five years?
    a) Article 83(1)
    b) Article 83(2)
    c) Article 84(1)
    d) Article 84(2)
    Answer: b) Article 83(2)
  9. Which ministry is responsible for the dissolution of the House of the People as per the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961?
    a) Ministry of Home Affairs
    b) Ministry of Law and Justice
    c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
    d) Ministry of Defense
    Answer: c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
  10. How many lightning strikes were recorded in Koraput district within seven minutes?
    a) 10,000
    b) 12,000
    c) 15,000
    d) 18,000
    Answer: c) 15,000
  11. Which app confirmed the lightning strikes in Koraput district?
    a) Mausam
    b) Meghdoot
    c) Damini
    d) Varsha
    Answer: c) Damini
  12. What is a major cause of accidental deaths in India due to natural phenomena?
    a) Earthquakes
    b) Lightning
    c) Floods
    d) Tornadoes
    Answer: b) Lightning
  13. How many fatalities were attributed to lightning in India in 2021?
    a) 2,880
    b) 3,000
    c) 3,200
    d) 3,500
    Answer: a) 2,880
  14. Which award was Maguni Charan Kuanr a recipient of in 2023?
    a) Padma Bhushan
    b) Padma Shri
    c) Padma Vibhushan
    d) Bharat Ratna
    Answer: b) Padma Shri
  15. What craft was Maguni Charan Kuanr renowned for?
    a) Painting
    b) Sculpting
    c) Puppetry
    d) Music
    Answer: c) Puppetry
  16. How many puppetry productions did Maguni Charan Kuanr develop?
    a) 10
    b) 15
    c) 20
    d) 25
    Answer: c) 20
  17. Which puppetry style did Maguni Charan Kuanr transform?
    a) String Puppetry
    b) Shadow Puppetry
    c) Kathi Kandhei Nacha
    d) Glove Puppetry
    Answer: c) Kathi Kandhei Nacha
  18. In which year did Maguni Charan Kuanr receive the Central Sangeet Natak Akademi award?
    a) 2002
    b) 2004
    c) 2006
    d) 2008
    Answer: b) 2004
  19. Where was Maguni Charan Kuanr born?
    a) Bhubaneswar
    b) Cuttack
    c) Puri
    d) Keonjhar
    Answer: d) Keonjhar
  20. What was the name of the troupe founded by Maguni Charan Kuanr?
    a) Utkal Sangeet Kalakunja
    b) Utkal Biswakarma Kalakunja Kandhei Nacha
    c) Odisha Puppetry Association
    d) Kuanr Puppetry Troupe
    Answer: b) Utkal Biswakarma Kalakunja Kandhei Nacha
  21. What initiative has the Odisha state government planned to implement in approximately 4,000 government high schools from the 2024-25 academic session?
    A. Introduction of smart classrooms
    B. Khan Academy mathematics programme
    C. Free laptop distribution
    D. Online science tutorials
    Answer: B. Khan Academy mathematics programme
  22. Who has been appointed as the Regional Employees Provident Fund Commissioner for the Odisha zone, marking a significant milestone?
    A. Sushmita Mohanty
    B. Maushumi Lata Padhi
    C. Subhra Priyadarshini
    D. Swetapadma Das
    Answer: B. Maushumi Lata Padhi
  23. The Khan Academy programme introduced in Odia medium high schools aims to prepare students for:
    A. Local cultural festivals
    B. State and national level competitive exams
    C. International exchange programs
    D. Vocational training courses
    Answer: B. State and national level competitive exams
  24. What is the primary objective of the Agnipath scheme introduced in 2022?
    A. To provide permanent jobs in the defense forces
    B. To reduce the defense pension bills
    C. To maintain a youthful profile in the armed forces
    D. To recruit only technical experts
    Answer: C. To maintain a youthful profile in the armed forces
  25. How long are the contracts under the Agnipath scheme for new recruits in the Army, Navy, and Air Force?
    A. 2 years
    B. 4 years
    C. 6 years
    D. 8 years
    Answer: B. 4 years
  26. By how much did Odisha’s GST collection increase in May 2024 compared to May 2023?
    A. 10%
    B. 12%
    C. 14%
    D. 16%
    Answer: C. 14%
  27. What experience does Maushumi Lata Padhi bring to her role as the Regional Employees Provident Fund Commissioner?
    A. Over 10 years
    B. Over 20 years
    C. Over 30 years
    D. Over 40 years
    Answer: C. Over 30 years
  28. The Agnipath scheme also includes the recruitment of:
    A. Only male candidates
    B. Only technical experts
    C. Women as Agniveers
    D. Only administrative staff
    Answer: C. Women as Agniveers
  29. What was the total GST collection for Odisha in May 2024?
    A. Rs 4,000 crore
    B. Rs 4,398 crore
    C. Rs 5,027 crore
    D. Rs 6,000 crore
    Answer: C. Rs 5,027 crore
  30. Which national trend was reflected in Odisha’s 14% GST collection growth in May 2024?
    A. A decline in domestic transactions
    B. An increase in imports
    C. A 10% year-on-year growth in gross GST revenue
    D. A decrease in overall tax revenue
    Answer: C. A 10% year-on-year growth in gross GST revenue
  31. Which organization conducted the successful test-firing of the RudraM-II air-to-surface missile?
    A. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
    B. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
    C. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
    D. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
    Answer: B. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  32. From which aircraft was the RudraM-II missile test-fired?
    A. Mirage 2000
    B. Tejas
    C. Su-30 MK-I
    D. Jaguar
    Answer: C. Su-30 MK-I
  33. What type of propulsion system does the RudraM-II missile use?
    A. Liquid-propelled
    B. Hybrid-propelled
    C. Solid-propelled
    D. Ramjet-propelled
    Answer: C. Solid-propelled
  34. What is the primary purpose of the RudraM-II missile?
    A. Anti-ship warfare
    B. Surface-to-air defense
    C. Neutralizing enemy assets
    D. Reconnaissance
    Answer: C. Neutralizing enemy assets
  35. Who has been appointed as the Secretary of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)?
    A. Rajiv Kumar
    B. Arvind Subramanian
    C. Saurabh Garg
    D. Nandan Nilekani
    Answer: C. Saurabh Garg
  36. Saurabh Garg belongs to which IAS cadre batch?
    A. 1991
    B. 1985
    C. 2000
    D. 1995
    Answer: A. 1991
  37. Which significant initiative related to agriculture did Saurabh Garg implement in Odisha?
    A. PM-KISAN
    B. Fasal Bima Yojana
    C. KALIA (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation)
    D. eNAM
    Answer: C. KALIA (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation)
  38. Which award did Odisha receive for its tobacco control initiatives?
    A. WHO World No Tobacco Day Award
    B. National Health Award
    C. Global Tobacco Control Award
    D. South-East Asia Health Award
    Answer: A. WHO World No Tobacco Day Award
  39. Which campaign marked 54 Panchayats in Odisha as tobacco-free?
    A. Clean India Campaign
    B. Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 2023
    C. Health for All Campaign
    D. Smokeless Odisha Initiative
    Answer: B. Tobacco Free Youth Campaign 2023
  40. Which famous temple in Odisha has implemented a ban on tobacco-related products?
    A. Konark Sun Temple
    B. Lingaraj Temple
    C. Jagannath Temple
    D. Mukteshwar Temple
    Answer: C. Jagannath Temple
  41. What is another term for tidal waves that can threaten coastal villages?
    A. Cyclones
    B. Hurricanes
    C. Tsunamis
    D. Storm Surges
    Answer: C. Tsunamis
  42. Which state in India is currently facing threats from tidal waves in its coastal villages?
    A. Tamil Nadu
    B. Odisha
    C. Gujarat
    D. West Bengal
    Answer: B. Odisha
  43. Who commended the efforts of Swachh Bharat crusader Kamala Moharana?
    A. Narendra Modi
    B. Amit Shah
    C. Rajnath Singh
    D. Nirmala Sitharaman
    Answer: A. Narendra Modi
  44. What type of items does Kamala Moharana’s Women’s Self Help Group craft from plastic waste?
    A. Jewelry
    B. Clothing
    C. Baskets, pen stands, and mobile phone stands
    D. Decorative items
    Answer: C. Baskets, pen stands, and mobile phone stands
  45. In which district of Odisha is Kamala Moharana’s village located?
    A. Cuttack
    B. Bhadrak
    C. Kendrapara
    D. Ganjam
    Answer: C. Kendrapara
  46. What is the significance of the “Chaka Dera Anukula” ceremony in Puri?
    a) It marks the beginning of the Rath Yatra.
    b) It signifies the formal commencement of attaching wheels to the chariots.
    c) It celebrates the birth of Lord Jagannath.
    d) It marks the end of the Rath Yatra festival.
    Answer: b) It signifies the formal commencement of attaching wheels to the chariots.
  47. When is Puri’s Rath Yatra festival scheduled for 2024?
    a) June 15th
    b) July 7th
    c) August 20th
    d) September 10th
    Answer: b) July 7th
  48. What do the “Agyan Mala” garlands symbolize during the “Chaka Dera Anukula” ceremony?
    a) The beginning of the Rath Yatra.
    b) The deities’ consent for the chariots to be prepared.
    c) The end of the festival.
    d) The protection of the deities.
    Answer: b) The deities’ consent for the chariots to be prepared.
  49. Which department recently met with officials from 11 public universities in Odisha to discuss reforms?
    a) Odisha Health Department
    b) Odisha Education Department
    c) Odisha Higher Education Department
    d) Odisha Transport Department
    Answer: c) Odisha Higher Education Department
  50. What type of courses is the Odisha Higher Education Department emphasizing?
    a) Traditional academic courses
    b) Job-oriented programs
    c) Arts and humanities courses
    d) Sports and physical education courses
    Answer: b) Job-oriented programs
  51. Through which system will admissions to all existing Self-Financing Courses (SFCs) in Odisha now be conducted?
    a) University-specific portals
    b) SAMS (Student Academic Management System)
    c) Manual applications
    d) Private agency platforms
    Answer: b) SAMS (Student Academic Management System)
  52. Why was DS Kutey, an official from the Odisha Chief Minister’s Office, suspended by the Election Commission of India?
    a) For financial irregularities.
    b) For influencing election officials.
    c) For misusing public funds.
    d) For negligence of duties.
    Answer: b) For influencing election officials.
  53. When was the Election Commission of India established?
    a) 1947
    b) 1950
    c) 1965
    d) 2001
    Answer: b) 1950
  54. Who comprises the current Election Commission of India?
    a) Only the Chief Election Commissioner.
    b) The Chief Election Commissioner and one Election Commissioner.
    c) The Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
    d) A committee of five members.
    Answer: c) The Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
  55. What record is the Odisha Skating Team attempting to set?
    a) Longest marathon run
    b) 72-hour non-stop Roller Skating Relay
    c) Highest jump on roller skates
    d) Fastest 100-meter skate
    Answer: b) 72-hour non-stop Roller Skating Relay
  56. Where is the Odisha Skating Team attempting their Guinness World Record?
    a) Puri
    b) Bhubaneswar
    c) Belgaon, Karnataka
    d) Cuttack
    Answer: c) Belgaon, Karnataka
  57. Which facility is taking measures to protect zoo animals from heat in Rourkela?
    a) Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP)
    b) Odisha Wildlife Department
    c) Rourkela City Council
    d) Indian Meteorological Department
    Answer: a) Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP)
  58. What is the name of the zoo and park in Rourkela where measures are being taken to protect animals from heat?
    a) Nandankanan Zoological Park
    b) Indira Gandhi Park
    c) Nehru Park
    d) Biju Patnaik Park
    Answer: b) Indira Gandhi Park
  59. Which former Indian Prime Minister is the Indira Gandhi Park in Rourkela named after?
    a) Jawaharlal Nehru
    b) Rajiv Gandhi
    c) Indira Gandhi
    d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    Answer: c) Indira Gandhi
  60. What features make Indira Gandhi Park in Rourkela an ideal spot for nature enthusiasts?
    a) Industrial exhibits
    b) A variety of plant species, manicured gardens, and spacious walking paths
    c) Shopping centers
    d) Adventure sports facilities
    Answer: b) A variety of plant species, manicured gardens, and spacious walking paths
  61. Which cropping season in Odisha starts with pre-monsoon rain?
    a) Rabi
    b) Kharif
    c) Zaid
    d) None of the above
    Answer: b) Kharif
  62. Which of the following is a major Kharif crop in Odisha?
    a) Wheat
    b) Gram
    c) Jowar
    d) Oilseeds
    Answer: c) Jowar
  63. Rabi crops in Odisha are primarily dependent on what for irrigation?
    a) Rainwater
    b) Sub-soil moisture and artificial irrigation
    c) Floodwaters
    d) Dew
    Answer: b) Sub-soil moisture and artificial irrigation
  64. Which season is referred to as the intermediate summer season for short-duration crops?
    a) Kharif
    b) Rabi
    c) Zaid
    d) Post-monsoon
    Answer: c) Zaid
  65. Which district in Odisha is known for high gram production?
    a) Balasore
    b) Puri
    c) Mayurbhanj
    d) Koraput
    Answer: b) Puri
  66. What is the primary climate requirement for rice cultivation in Odisha?
    a) Dry and arid
    b) Hot and humid
    c) Cold and wet
    d) Moderate and dry
    Answer: b) Hot and humid
  67. Which area in Odisha is favorable for pulse cultivation?
    a) Coastal plains
    b) River valleys
    c) Mahanadi delta
    d) Alluvial soil regions
    Answer: c) Mahanadi delta
  68. Which crop is extensively cultivated in the districts of Koraput, Balangir, and Kalahandi?
    a) Rice
    b) Cotton
    c) Tea
    d) Coconut
    Answer: b) Cotton
  69. Which is the second most important cash crop in Odisha in terms of area and production?
    a) Jute
    b) Tea
    c) Sugarcane
    d) Cashew
    Answer: c) Sugarcane
  70. Which district in Odisha leads in mustard production?
    a) Balasore
    b) Cuttack
    c) Puri
    d) Khurda
    Answer: a) Balasore
  71. Which of the following spices is primarily cultivated by the Kondha tribe in Odisha?
    a) Black pepper
    b) Cinnamon
    c) Turmeric
    d) Chillies
    Answer: c) Turmeric
  72. Which agro-climatic zone in Odisha is characterized by hot and humid climate with saline, lateritic, and alluvial soils?
    a) North Western Plateau
    b) North Central Plateau
    c) East and South Eastern Coastal Plain
    d) Western Undulating Zone
    Answer: c) East and South Eastern Coastal Plain
  73. Which crop competes with rice for similar soil and climatic conditions in Odisha?
    a) Jute
    b) Cotton
    c) Tea
    d) Rubber
    Answer: a) Jute
  74. Which mission was implemented in 2015-16 to make Odisha self-sufficient in potato production?
    a) Green Revolution
    b) State Potato Mission
    c) Horticulture Development Scheme
    d) National Food Security Mission
    Answer: b) State Potato Mission
  75. Which river is known as the Sorrow of Odisha due to its frequent flooding?
    A) Brahmani
    B) Baitarani
    C) Subarnarekha
    D) Mahanadi
    Answer: D) Mahanadi
  76. Which lake in Odisha is the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia?
    A) Ansupa Lake
    B) Chilika Lake
    C) Kanjia Lake
    D) Pata Lake
    Answer: B) Chilika Lake
  77. Where does the Brahmani river originate?
    A) Amarkantak Plateau
    B) Chota Nagpur Plateau
    C) Keonjhar Plateau
    D) Eastern Ghats
    Answer: B) Chota Nagpur Plateau
  78. Which river forms the boundary between Odisha and West Bengal?
    A) Brahmani
    B) Baitarani
    C) Subarnarekha
    D) Rushikulya
    Answer: C) Subarnarekha
  79. What is the total length of the Mahanadi river in Odisha?
    A) 433 km
    B) 799 km
    C) 494 km
    D) 165 km
    Answer: C) 494 km
  80. The Rushikulya river flows into which water body?
    A) Bay of Bengal
    B) Chilika Lake
    C) Arabian Sea
    D) Ganga River
    Answer: A) Bay of Bengal
  81. Which river is a major east-flowing river between Mahanadi and Godavari rivers?
    A) Vamsadhara
    B) Bahuda
    C) Nagavali
    D) Indravati
    Answer: A) Vamsadhara
  82. The Baitarani river originates from which location?
    ) Amarkantak hills
    B) Simlipal massif
    C) Gonasika hills
    D) Niyamagiri hill
    Answer: C) Gonasika hills
  83. Which river system includes tributaries such as Indravati, Kolab, and Machkund?
    A) Mahanadi System
    B) Godavari System
    C) Krishna System
    D) Ganga System
    Answer: B) Godavari System
  84. Which river forms a distributary called Kathajodi before entering Cuttack?
    A) Brahmani
    B) Baitarani
    C) Subarnarekha
    D) Mahanadi
    Answer: D) Mahanadi
  85. The Ansupa Lake is directly linked with which river by a channel called Kabula Nalla?
    A) Brahmani
    B) Baitarani
    C) Mahanadi
    D) Rushikulya
    Answer: C) Mahanadi
  86. Which river forms the Wheeler islands with the Mahanadi river?
    A) Baitarani
    B) Brahmani
    C) Rushikulya
    D) Subarnarekha
    Answer: B) Brahmani
  87. Which river’s total length is 365 km and flows through the districts of Keonjhar, Mayurbhanj, Sundargarh, Bhadrak, Jajpur, and Kendrapara?
    A) Mahanadi
    B) Brahmani
    C) Baitarani
    D) Subarnarekha
    Answer: C) Baitarani
  88. Which river originates from the Simlipal massif and flows through the districts of Mayurbhanj and Balasore?
    A) Budhabalanga
    B) Salandi
    C) Rushikulya
    D) Baitarani
    Answer: A) Budhabalanga
  89. The Daya river empties into which lake?
    A) Ansupa Lake
    B) Chilika Lake
    C) Kanjia Lake
    D) Pata Lake
    Answer: B) Chilika Lake
  90. Which river forms a minor gorge at Rengali?
    A) Subarnarekha
    B) Brahmani
    C) Rushikulya
    D) Vamsadhara
    Answer: B) Brahmani
  91. Which river is the lifeline of the Ganjam district?
    A) Budhabalanga
    B) Rushikulya
    C) Nagavali
    D) Bahuda
    Answer: B) Rushikulya
  92. Which of these layers of the atmosphere consists of the ozone layer that is responsible for absorbing the Ultra-Violet (UV) light?
    a. Troposphere
    b. Mesosphere
    c. Stratosphere
    d. None of these
    Answer: (c) Stratosphere
  93. Which of these are essential non-metallic minerals?
    a. Coal, silica, clay, cement
    b. Iron, copper, aluminium, zinc
    c. Gold, platinum, silver
    d. Granite, limestone, marble
    Answer: (a) Coal, silica, clay, cement
  94. What is the estimated percentage of forest land that India should ideally have?
    a. 15%
    b. 50%
    c. 44%
    d. 33%
    Answer: (d) 33%
  95. An extensive number of chains interlinked in an ecosystem forms a __________ together.
    a. Food chain
    b. Food web
    c. Carbon cycle
    d. Nitrogen cycle
    Answer: (b) Food web
  96. Which of these elements is considered to be the largest source of commercial energy consumption in the world?
    a. Nuclear
    b. Natural gas
    c. Oil
    d. Coal
    Answer: (c) Oil
  97. Which one of these does NOT refer to the direct use of forest products?
    a. Grass for grazing
    b. Gums and resins
    c. Medicine
    d. Bamboo for baskets
    Answer: (b) Gums and resins
  98. Which of these does not constitute to be a reason for the loss of forests?
    a. Extinction of species
    b. Increasing use of wood
    c. Building dams and mining
    d. Extensive usage of fuel woods
    Answer: (a) Extinction of species
  99. Which of these days is celebrated in the form of World Environment Day all around the world?
    a. July 5th
    b. June 10th
    c. October 20th
    d. June 5th
    Answer: (d) June 5th
  100. In which of these following can we find brackish water ecosystems?
    a. Wetlands
    b. Streams
    c. Deltas
    d. Coastal shallows
    Answer: (c) Deltas
  101. Which drug is associated with the tea or coffee plant source?
    a. Camphor
    b. Caffeine
    c. Thorn Apple
    d. Opium Poppy
    Answer: (b) Caffeine
  102. How many total numbers of biodiversity hotspots are there in the world?
    a. 36
    b. 32
    c. 28
    d. 18
    Answer: (a) 36
  103. Which of these is the most naturally occurring and frequent disaster?
    a. Tsunami
    b. Drought
    c. Earthquake
    d. Flood
    Answer: (d) Flood
  104. Which two forms of alcohol do we include in biofuels?
    a. Methanol and Ethanol
    b. Propanol and Ethanol
    c. Propanol and Methanol
    d. None of the above
    Answer: (a) Methanol and Ethanol
  105. Which of these gases is not permitted to be released by the Prevention and Control of Pollution Act by the Government?
    a. Sulphur Dioxide
    b. Carbon Monoxide
    c. Nitrogen Oxide
    d. All of the above
    Answer: (d) All of the above
  106. In which of these years was the Forest Conservation Act amended?
    a. 1978
    b. 1988
    c. 1963
    d. 1952
    Answer: (b) 1988
  107. For short-term climatic predictions, which one of the following events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian subcontinent?
    A. La Nina
    B. Movement of jet streams
    C. El Nino and southern oscillations
    D. Green-house effect on global level
    Answer: C
    Explanation: El Niño and the Southern Oscillation, also known as ENSO, is a periodic fluctuation in sea surface temperature (El Niño) and the air pressure of the overlying atmosphere (Southern Oscillation) across the equatorial Pacific Ocean. This phenomenon is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the Indian subcontinent.
  108. Which of the following functions performed by a forest help most in controlling drought?
    A. Forests act as water sheds
    B. Forests bring rainfall in monsoon
    C. Forests lower the temperature of the environment
    D. Forests prevent soil erosion
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Forests bring rainfall in monsoon, which helps in recovering the water loss that can lead to drought.
  109. India’s first sponge iron plant is at
    A. Kothagudam
    B. Kurnool
    C. Cuddappah
    D. Kavaratti
    Answer: A
    Explanation: India’s first sponge iron plant is at Kothagudam. Established in 1982, the plant was inaugurated by the then President of India, Gyani Zail Singh. It was the first sponge plant in Asia and operated with a significant profit until 2000.
  110. Which of the following are the main reasons for the origin of the south-west monsoon in India?
    I. Development of a low pressure in north-west India
    II. Deflection of trade winds
    III. Arrival of cyclonic stream from the Pacific Ocean
    IV. Heating of the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal
    A. I, II and III
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. III and IV
    Answer: B
    Explanation: The main reasons for the origin of the south-west monsoon in India are the development of a low-pressure area in north-west India and the deflection of trade winds. These winds originate in the Southern Hemisphere, cross the Equator, and get deflected to the right by the Coriolis force in the Northern Hemisphere.
  111. Which of the following states receives rainfall due to western disturbances?
    A. Punjab
    B. West Bengal
    C. Kerala
    D. Gujarat
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Punjab receives rainfall due to western disturbances. These are extra tropical storms that originate over the Mediterranean and flow toward the east. In India, they bring winter rainfall to states like Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh.
  112. Economically the most important forests of India are
    A. Tidal forest
    B. Thorn forest
    C. Evergreen forest
    D. Tropical deciduous forest
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Economically, the most important forests of India are the tropical deciduous forests. These forests are significant for export, import, and revenue.
  113. Consider the following statement and identify with the help of the code the tree with which the statement is related to:
    “The branches of this tree root themselves like new trees over a large area. The roots then give rise to more trunks and branches. Because of this characteristic and its longevity, this tree is considered immortal and is an integral part of the myths and legends of India.”
    A. Banyan
    B. Neem
    C. Tamarind (Imli)
    D. Peepal
    Answer: A
    Explanation: The banyan tree’s branches root themselves like new trees over a large area. The roots give rise to more trunks and branches, making the tree appear immortal and an integral part of India’s myths and legends.
  114. Indian monsoon is marked by seasonal shift caused by ________
    A. Differential heating of land and sea
    B. Cold winds of Central Asia
    C. Great uniformity of temperature
    D. None of these
    Answer: A
    Explanation: The Indian monsoon is marked by a seasonal shift caused by the differential heating of land and sea. This differential heating causes monsoon winds, which are crucial for India’s climate.
  115. During the monsoon season, rainfall decreases from the Ganga delta to the Punjab plains. It is because ________
    A. Monsoon current moves westward along the Ganga plain and becomes drier
    B. Western regions are warmer than the eastern region
    C. Hills do not form barriers for winds
    D. The area is far away from the sea
    Answer: A
    Explanation: During the monsoon season, rainfall decreases from the Ganga delta to the Punjab plains because the monsoon current moves westward along the Ganga plain and becomes drier.
  116. Arrange the following cities in decreasing order of the rainfall they receive from the south-west monsoons in summer months:
    Allahabad
    Kolkata
    Delhi
    Patna
    A. 2, 4, 1, 3
    B. 3, 1, 4, 2
    C. 1, 4, 3, 2
    D. 2, 4, 3, 1
    Answer: D
    Explanation: The cities in decreasing order of the rainfall they receive from the south-west monsoons in summer months are Kolkata, Patna, Delhi, and Allahabad.
  117. The western disturbances which cause winter rain in India originate in
    A. Pakistan
    B. Bay of Bengal
    C. West Asia
    D. Himalayas
    Answer: C
    Explanation: The western disturbances, which cause winter rain in India, originate in West Asia. These disturbances are associated with rainfall, snowfall, and fog in northern India.
  118. The place to receive annual rainfall below 50 cm is
    A. Meghalaya
    B. Leh in Kashmir
    C. Coromandel Coast
    D. Konkan Coast
    Answer: B
    Explanation: Leh in Kashmir is a cold desert and receives very little rainfall (<50 cm). In contrast, Meghalaya and the Konkan coast receive heavy rainfall (>200 cm), and the Coromandel coast receives more than 100 cm of rain due to the retreating monsoon.
  119. Which one of the following states receives the highest rainfall during winter months?
    A. Punjab
    B. Kerala
    C. Meghalaya
    D. Tamil Nadu
    Answer: D
    Explanation: Tamil Nadu receives the highest rainfall during winter months due to its location on the windward side of the Eastern Ghats and the northeast monsoon winds.
  120. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune because ________
    A. Mumbai is on the windward side
    B. Pune is at a greater elevation
    C. Mumbai is a coastal city
    D. Pune has greater vegetation than Mumbai
    Answer: A
    Explanation: Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune because it is located on the windward side of the Western Ghats, whereas Pune is on the leeward side.
  121. The temperature of Thiruvananthapuram is lower than that of Mumbai in May and higher than that of Mumbai in January, because ________
    A. Thiruvananthapuram has cold current and Mumbai is faced with warm current
    B. Thiruvananthapuram has higher rainfall in summer and it is nearer to the equator
    C. Thiruvananthapuram is on the windward side and Mumbai is on the leeward side
    D. Thiruvananthapuram is vegetated while Mumbai is not
    Answer: B
  122. What is the longest bridge above water in India?
    A) Mahatma Gandhi Setu, Patna
    B) Bogibeel Bridge, Assam
    C) Bandra-Worli Sea Link, Mumbai
    D) Vidyasagar Setu, Kolkata
    Answer: A) Mahatma Gandhi Setu, Patna
  123. Which state has the largest forest area in India?
    A) Madhya Pradesh
    B) Arunachal Pradesh
    C) Assam
    D) Kerala
    Answer: A) Madhya Pradesh
  124. What is the highest waterfall in India?
    A) Jog Falls, Karnataka
    B) Dudhsagar Falls, Goa
    C) Kunchikal Falls, Karnataka
    D) Athirapally Falls, Kerala
    Answer: C) Kunchikal Falls, Karnataka
  125. Which river is the longest in India?
    A) Yamuna
    B) Godavari
    C) Ganga
    D) Brahmaputra
    Answer: C) Ganga
  126. What is the tallest statue in India?
    A) Statue of Unity, Gujarat
    B) Veera Abhaya Anjeneya Hanuman Swami, Andhra Pradesh
    C) Sardar Patel Statue, Gujarat
    D) Buddha Statue, Sikkim
    Answer:A) Statue of Unity, Gujarat
  127. Which state has the longest coastline in India?
    A) Kerala
    B) Tamil Nadu
    C) Gujarat
    D) Maharashtra
    Answer: C) Gujarat
  128. What is the highest lake in India?
    A) Cholamu Lake, Sikkim
    B) Pangong Tso, Ladakh
    C) Dal Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
    D) Wular Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
    Answer: A) Cholamu Lake, Sikkim
  129. Which is the largest zoo in India?
    A) Mysuru Zoo, Karnataka
    B) Vandalur Zoo, Tamil Nadu
    C) Sanjay Gandhi Biological Park, Bihar
    D) Nehru Zoological Park, Telangana
    Answer: B) Vandalur Zoo, Tamil Nadu
  130. What is the longest railway platform in India?
    A) Howrah Junction, West Bengal
    B) Gorakhpur Junction, Uttar Pradesh
    C) Kharagpur Junction, West Bengal
    D) Vijayawada Junction, Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: B) Gorakhpur Junction, Uttar Pradesh
  131. Which planetarium is the largest in India?
    A) Nehru Planetarium, New Delhi
    B) Birla Planetarium, Kolkata
    C) Priyadarshini Planetarium, Mumbai
    D) Indira Gandhi Planetarium, Lucknow
    Answer: B) Birla Planetarium, Kolkata
  132. Which state in India has the largest area?
    A) Rajasthan
    B) Madhya Pradesh
    C) Maharashtra
    D) Uttar Pradesh
    Answer: A) Rajasthan
  133. What is the highest airport in India?
    A) Leh Airport (Ladakh)
    B) Indira Gandhi International Airport (Delhi)
    C) Kempegowda International Airport (Bengaluru)
    D) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport (Mumbai)
    Answer: A) Leh Airport (Ladakh)
  134. Which is the longest passenger train route in India?
    A) Howrah to Chennai
    B) Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari
    C) Jammu Tawi to Kanyakumari
    D) Delhi to Thiruvananthapuram
    Answer: B) Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari
  135. What is the longest national highway in India?
    A) NH-44 (Srinagar to Kanyakumari)
    B) NH-7 (Varanasi to Kanyakumari)
    C) NH-8 (Delhi to Mumbai)
    D) NH-2 (Delhi to Kolkata)
    Answer: B) NH-7 (Varanasi to Kanyakumari)
  136. Which city is known for having the longest sea beach in India?
    A) Puri
    B) Vizag (Visakhapatnam)
    C) Chennai
    D) Kolkata
    Answer: D) Kolkata (Marina Beach)
  137. Which Indian state has the longest coastline?
    A) Kerala
    B) Tamil Nadu
    C) Gujarat
    D) Andhra Pradesh
    Answer: C) Gujarat
  138. What is the highest lake in India?
    A) Cholamu Lake (Sikkim)
    B) Pangong Tso (Ladakh)
    C) Dal Lake (Jammu and Kashmir)
    D) Wular Lake (Jammu and Kashmir)
    Answer: A) Cholamu Lake (Sikkim)
  139. Which river valley is the deepest in India?
    A) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
    B) Yamuna and Sutlej
    C) Godavari and Krishna
    D) Ganga and Brahmaputra
    Answer: A) Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
  140. What is the largest planetarium in India?
    A) Nehru Planetarium (New Delhi)
    B) Birla Planetarium (Kolkata)
    C) Priyadarshini Planetarium (Mumbai)
    D) Indira Gandhi Planetarium (Lucknow)
    Answer: B) Birla Planetarium (Kolkata)
  141. Which river is the longest in southern India?
    A) Krishna
    B) Godavari
    C) Cauvery
    D) Narmada
    Answer: B) Godavari
  142. Which is the largest animal fair in India?
    A) Pushkar Fair, Rajasthan
    B) Sonepur Mela, Bihar
    C) Kumbh Mela, Uttar Pradesh
    D) Surajkund Mela, Haryana
    Answer: B) Sonepur Mela, Bihar
  143. What is the highest gallantry award in India?
    A) Param Vir Chakra
    B) Ashok Chakra
    C) Vir Chakra
    D) Shaurya Chakra
    Answer: B) Ashok Chakra
  144. Which is the largest cave temple in India?
    A) Kailashnath Temple (Ellora, Maharashtra)
    B) Amarnath Cave Temple (Jammu and Kashmir)
    C) Badami Cave Temples (Karnataka)
    D) Elephanta Caves (Maharashtra)
    Answer: A) Kailashnath Temple (Ellora, Maharashtra)
  145. What is the longest corridor in India?
    A) Ramanathaswamy Temple Corridor, Rameswaram (Tamil Nadu)
    B) Meenakshi Temple Corridor, Madurai (Tamil Nadu)
    C) Brihadeeswarar Temple Corridor, Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu)
    D) Jagannath Temple Corridor, Puri (Odisha)
    Answer: A) Ramanathaswamy Temple Corridor, Rameswaram (Tamil Nadu)
  146. Which state has the largest fresh water lake in India?
    A) Kerala
    B) Jammu and Kashmir
    C) Karnataka
    D) West Bengal
    Answer: B) Jammu and Kashmir (Wular Lake)
  147. What is the longest road in India?
    A) Grand Trunk Road (Kolkata to Delhi)
    B) National Highway 44 (Srinagar to Kanyakumari)
    C) National Highway 7 (Varanasi to Kanyakumari)
    D) Yamuna Expressway (Delhi to Agra)
    Answer: A) Grand Trunk Road (Kolkata to Delhi)
    Which is the largest dome in India?
    A) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur (Karnataka)
    B) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata (West Bengal)
    C) Rashtrapati Bhavan, New Delhi
    D) Lotus Temple, New Delhi
    Answer: A) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur (Karnataka)
  148. What is the highest waterfall in India?
    A) Jog Falls, Karnataka
    B) Dudhsagar Falls, Goa
    C) Kunchikal Falls, Karnataka
    D) Athirapally Falls, Kerala
    Answer: C) Kunchikal Falls, Karnataka
  149. Which is the largest desert in India?
    A) Thar Desert (Rajasthan)
    B) Rann of Kutch (Gujarat)
    C) Cold Desert (Ladakh)
    D) Deccan Plateau (Maharashtra)
    Answer: A) Thar Desert (Rajasthan)
  150. What is the highest peak in India?
    A) Kangchenjunga
    B) Nanda Devi
    C) Mount Everest
    D) Annapurna
    Answer: A) Kangchenjunga
  151. Which river was previously called “Sindhu”?
    A) Indus
    B) Ganges
    C) Yamuna
    D) Brahmaputra
    Answer: A) Indus
  152. The river “Vitasta” is now known as?
    A) Ganges
    B) Jhelum
    C) Yamuna
    D) Godavari
    Answer: B) Jhelum
  153. What is the current name of the river previously known as “Parusni”?
    A) Indus
    B) Ravi
    C) Ganges
    D) Brahmaputra
    Answer: B) Ravi
  154. Which city’s airport has been renamed as “Maryada Purushottam Shriram International Airport”?
    A) Delhi
    B) Lucknow
    C) Ayodhya
    D) Varanasi
    Answer: C) Ayodhya
  155. What was the old name of the river “Sutudri”?
    A) Ganges
    B) Godavari
    C) Sutlej
    D) Yamuna
    Answer: C) Sutlej
  156. Which port was previously known as “Madras Port”?
    A) Mumbai Port
    B) Kolkata Port
    C) Chennai Port
    D) Vishakhapatnam Port
    Answer: C) Chennai Port
  157. What is the new name of the river previously called “Asikini”?
    A) Ganges
    B) Jhelum
    C) Chenab
    D) Brahmaputra
    Answer: C) Chenab
  158. Which railway station has been renamed to “Netaji Express”?
    A) Howrah-Kalka Mail
    B) Charni Road
    C) Marine Lines
    D) Cotton Green
    Answer: A) Howrah-Kalka Mail
  159. Which country was previously known as “Siam”?
    A) Thailand
    B) Myanmar
    C) Iran
    D) Japan
    Answer: A) Thailand
  160. The city formerly known as “Allahabad” is now called?
    A) Lucknow
    B) Varanasi
    C) Ayodhya
    D) Prayagraj
    Answer: D) Prayagraj
  161. Which railway station has been renamed to “Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Station”?
    A) Mughalsarai
    B) Jhansi
    C) Varanasi
    D) Kanpur
    Answer: A) Mughalsarai
  162. The river “Vipasa” is now known as?
    A) Godavari
    B) Beas
    C) Ganges
    D) Yamuna
    Answer: B) Beas
  163. What is the current name of the river previously known as “Vitasta”?
    A) Ganges
    B) Jhelum
    C) Chenab
    D) Yamuna
    Answer: B) Jhelum
  164. Which country was formerly known as “Ceylon”?
    A) Sri Lanka
    B) Bangladesh
    C) Myanmar
    D) Thailand
    Answer: A) Sri Lanka
  165. Which city was formerly known as Edo?
    A) Tokyo
    B) Osaka
    C) Kyoto
    D) Nagoya
    Answer: A) Tokyo
  166. What is the new name of the country formerly known as Zaire?
    A) Zambia
    B) Democratic Republic of the Congo
    C) Zimbabwe
    D) Namibia
    Answer: B) Democratic Republic of the Congo
  167. Which city was previously called Byzantium?
    A) Rome
    B) Athens
    C) Istanbul
    D) Alexandria
    Answer: C) Istanbul
  168. What is the current name of the city previously known as Batavia?
    A) Jakarta
    B) Bangkok
    C) Manila
    D) Hanoi
    Answer: A) Jakarta
  169. Which country was formerly known as Abyssinia?
    A) Sudan
    B) Eritrea
    C) Ethiopia
    D) Somalia
    Answer: C) Ethiopia
  170. What is the new name of the city formerly known as Leningrad?
    A) Moscow
    B) Saint Petersburg
    C) Vladivostok
    D) Novosibirsk
    Answer: B) Saint Petersburg
  171. Which country was previously known as Rhodesia?
    A) Zambia
    B) Zimbabwe
    C) Botswana
    D) Mozambique
    Answer: B) Zimbabwe
  172. What is the current name of the country formerly known as the Gold Coast?
    A) Ghana
    B) Ivory Coast
    C) Togo
    D) Benin
    Answer: A) Ghana
  173. Which city was formerly known as Saigon?
    A) Phnom Penh
    B) Vientiane
    C) Ho Chi Minh City
    D) Yangon
    Answer: C) Ho Chi Minh City
  174. What is the new name of the country formerly known as Kampuchea?
    A) Vietnam
    B) Laos
    C) Cambodia
    D) Thailand
    Answer: C) Cambodia
  175. Which city was previously called Peking?
    A) Shanghai
    B) Guangzhou
    C) Beijing
    D) Tianjin
    Answer: C) Beijing
  176. What is the current name of the country formerly known as Formosa?
    A) Philippines
    B) Taiwan
    C) Malaysia
    D) Indonesia
    Answer: B) Taiwan
  177. Which country was formerly known as the Dutch East Indies?
    A) Philippines
    B) Indonesia
    C) Malaysia
    D) Thailand
    Answer: B) Indonesia
  178. What is the new name of the country formerly called Northern Rhodesia?
    A) Zimbabwe
    B) Malawi
    C) Zambia
    D) Botswana
    Answer: C) Zambia
  179. Which country was previously known as Upper Volta?
    A) Mali
    B) Burkina Faso
    C) Niger
    D) Ghana
    Answer: B) Burkina Faso
  180. What is the current name of the city formerly known as Lourenço Marques?
    A) Harare
    B) Maputo
    C) Luanda
    D) Kigali
    Answer: B) Maputo
  181. Which country was formerly known as the Gilbert Islands?
    A) Palau
    B) Tuvalu
    C) Kiribati
    D) Nauru
    Answer: C) Kiribati
  182. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the G7?
    A) Canada
    B) France
    C) China
    D) Italy
    Answer: C) China
  183. Which organization is considered a “non-enumerated member” of the G7?
    A) NATO
    B) European Union (EU)
    C) United Nations
    D) World Bank
    Answer: B) European Union (EU)
  184. What is the primary focus of the G7 group?
    A) Military alliances
    B) Political and economic cooperation
    C) Environmental conservation
    D) Cultural exchanges
    Answer: B) Political and economic cooperation
  185. Which country from the following list is part of the G7?
    A) Australia
    B) Russia
    C) Japan
    D) Brazil
    Answer: C) Japan
  186. When was the Group of Seven (G7) originally formed?
    A) 1965
    B) 1975
    C) 1985
    D) 1995
    Answer: B) 1975
  187. Which country was the last to join the G7, completing its current membership?
    A) Italy
    B) Canada
    C) Germany
    D) Japan
    Answer: B) Canada
  188. The G7 members are considered to be:
    A) Emerging economies
    B) Largest industrialized democracies
    C) Small island nations
    D) Developing countries
    Answer: B) Largest industrialized democracies
  189. Which of the following statements is true about the G7?
    A) It includes all the permanent members of the UN Security Council.
    B) The EU is an enumerated member of the G7.
    C) It primarily focuses on military issues.
    D) It was originally formed to address economic issues among the world’s largest industrial nations.
    Answer: D) It was originally formed to address economic issues among the world’s largest industrial nations.
  190. Which G7 country is known for its significant contributions to the automotive industry and is home to major car manufacturers like BMW and Volkswagen?
    A) Canada
    B) Japan
    C) Germany
    D) Italy
    Answer: C) Germany
  191. Which of the following G7 countries is an island nation known for its advanced technology and electronics industry?
    A) Italy
    B) Japan
    C) France
    D) United Kingdom
    Answer: B) Japan
  192. How many countries are members of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?
    A) 5
    B) 6
    C) 7
    D) 8
    Answer: C) 7
  193. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of BIMSTEC?
    A) India
    B) Maldives
    C) Myanmar
    D) Thailand
    Answer: B) Maldives
  194. Which of the following statements is true about BIMSTEC countries?
    A) They comprise 15% of the world’s population.
    B) They comprise 21% of the world’s population.
    C) They comprise 25% of the world’s population.
    D) They comprise 30% of the world’s population.
    Answer: B) They comprise 21% of the world’s population.
  195. When was BIMSTEC established?
    A) 1991
    B) 1997
    C) 2000
    D) 2005
    Answer: B) 1997
  196. Which of the following countries is a founding member of BIMSTEC?
    A) Nepal
    B) Sri Lanka
    C) Bhutan
    D) Thailand
    Answer: D) Thailand
  197. What is the main objective of BIMSTEC?
    A) Military cooperation
    B) Multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation
    C) Cultural exchange programs
    D) Environmental conservation
    Answer: B) Multi-sectoral technical and economic cooperation
  198. Which of the following BIMSTEC member countries is located in South Asia?
    A) Thailand
    B) Myanmar
    C) Sri Lanka
    D) Malaysia
    Answer: C) Sri Lanka
  199. The BIMSTEC Secretariat is located in which city?
    A) New Delhi, India
    B) Dhaka, Bangladesh
    C) Kathmandu, Nepal
    D) Bangkok, Thailand
    Answer: B) Dhaka, Bangladesh
  200. What is the full form of BIMSTEC?
    A) Bay of Indian Maritime Security and Technical Cooperation
    B) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
    C) Bengal Initiative for Multilateral Security and Economic Cooperation
    D) Bay of Bengal International Maritime Security and Trade Economic Cooperation
    Answer: B) Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
  201. When did Sweden become NATO’s newest member?
    A) 7 March 2023
    B) 7 March 2024
    C) 7 March 2025
    D) 7 March 2022
    Answer: B) 7 March 2024
  202. How many countries are members of NATO with Sweden’s accession?
    A) 30
    B) 31
    C) 32
    D) 33
    Answer: C) 32
  203. Which country joined NATO in 2023?
    A) North Macedonia
    B) Montenegro
    C) Finland
    D) Sweden
    Answer: C) Finland
  204. Which two countries joined NATO in 1952?
    A) Greece and Turkey
    B) West Germany and Spain
    C) Czech Republic and Hungary
    D) Bulgaria and Romania
    Answer: A) Greece and Turkey
  205. Which three countries joined NATO in 1999?
    A) Bulgaria, Estonia, and Latvia
    B) Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland
    C) Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia
    D) Albania, Croatia, and North Macedonia
    Answer: B) Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland
  206. In which year did Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia join NATO?
    A) 1999
    B) 2004
    C) 2009
    D) 2017
    Answer: B) 2004
  207. How many countries joined NATO in the year 2004?
    A) 3
    B) 5
    C) 7
    D) 9
    Answer: C) 7
  208. Where did Sweden deposit its instrument of accession to NATO?
    A) Brussels
    B) New York
    C) Washington DC
    D) London
    Answer: C) Washington DC
  209. Who is the newest member of NATO as of March 2024?
    A) Finland
    B) Sweden
    C) North Macedonia
    D) Montenegro
    Answer: B) Sweden
  210. Who is the 32nd member of NATO?
    A) Finland
    B) Sweden
    C) North Macedonia
    D) Montenegro
    Answer: B) Sweden
  211. Which country became the 31st member of NATO?
    A) Sweden
    B) Finland
    C) North Macedonia
    D) Montenegro
    Answer: B) Finland
  212. The Grand Trunk Road connects which two cities in India?
    [A] Delhi and Mumbai
    [B] Kolkata and Chennai
    [C] Delhi and Kolkata
    [D] Mumbai and Chennai
    Correct Answer: C [Delhi and Kolkata]
    Notes: The Grand Trunk Road is one of the oldest roads in Asia, stretching approximately 2500 km.
  213. Which is the longest National Highway in India?
    [A] NH-1
    [B] NH-24
    [C] NH-44
    [D] NH-48
    Correct Answer: C [NH-44]
    Notes: NH-44 runs from Srinagar to Kanyakumari, covering a distance of 3745 km.
  214. Where is the longest railway tunnel in India located?
    [A] Maharashtra
    [B] Himachal Pradesh
    [C] Jammu & Kashmir
    [D] Sikkim
    Correct Answer: C [Jammu & Kashmir]
    Notes: The Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel in Jammu & Kashmir is 11.215 km long.
  215. Which Indian city has the longest railway platform?
    [A] New Delhi
    [B] Mumbai
    [C] Gorakhpur
    [D] Chennai
    Correct Answer: C [Gorakhpur]
    Notes: The Gorakhpur railway platform is 1355.4 meters long.
  216. What is celebrated on 22nd March?
    [A] World Meteorological Day
    [B] World Water Day
    [C] World Heritage Day
    [D] World Earth Day
    Correct Answer: B [World Water Day]
    Notes: World Water Day focuses on the importance of freshwater and advocating for the sustainable management of freshwater resources.
  217. Which Indian city is known as the “Pink City”?
    [A] Jaipur
    [B] Surat
    [C] Jodhpur
    [D] Akola
    Correct Answer: A [Jaipur]
    Notes: Jaipur, Rajasthan, is famously known as the “Pink City” due to its distinctly colored buildings.
  218. Which Indian city is known as the “Silk City of India”?
    [A] Surat
    [B] Varanasi
    [C] Bhagalpur
    [D] Mysore
    Correct Answer: A [Surat]
    Notes: Surat in Gujarat is renowned for its silk weaving.
  219. Which style of temple architecture do the temples at Belur, Halebidu, and Somnathpura represent?
    [A] Nagara
    [B] Dravida
    [C] Gadag
    [D] Vesara
    Correct Answer: D [Vesara]
    Notes: Vesara is a hybrid style that combines elements of both Nagara and Dravida styles.
  220. Which prize is awarded by the KK Birla Foundation for commendable work in Hindi literature?
    [A] Acharya Tulsi Samman
    [B] Vyas Samman
    [C] Saraswati Samman
    [D] Rajahasha Samman
    Correct Answer: B [Vyas Samman]
    Notes: The Vyas Samman is awarded for outstanding Hindi literary works published in the last 10 years.
  221. Where is Hemis Gompa located in India?
    [A] Sikkim
    [B] Ladakh
    [C] Gwalior
    [D] Nagpur
    Correct Answer: B [Ladakh]
    Notes: Hemis Gompa is a significant Buddhist monastery located in the Ladakh region.
  222. What is the highest peak in Africa?
    [A] Mount Kilimanjaro
    [B] Mount Kenya
    [C] Mount Algan
    [D] Mount Hanang
    Correct Answer: A [Mount Kilimanjaro]
    Notes: Mount Kilimanjaro, located in Tanzania, is the highest peak in Africa at 5,895 meters above sea level.
  223. Anatolia is a part of which continent?
    [A] Australia
    [B] Asia
    [C] North America
    [D] Antarctica
    Correct Answer: B [Asia]
    Notes: Anatolia, also known as Asia Minor, is a large peninsula in Western Asia that constitutes the majority of modern-day Turkey.
  224. Which Article of the Indian Constitution incorporates the doctrine of pleasure?
    [A] Article 123
    [B] Article 213
    [C] Article 310
    [D] Article 368
    Correct Answer: C [Article 310]
    Notes: Article 310 establishes that all members of the defense services and civil services of the Union hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  225. Who is the chief executive head of a state in India?
    [A] Chief Minister
    [B] Governor
    [C] President
    [D] Prime Minister
    Correct Answer: B [Governor]
    Notes: The Governor is the chief executive head of a state, serving as the constitutional head, while the Chief Minister is the head of the government.
  226. Which river has the tributary named “Chambal”?
    [A] Ganga
    [B] Yamuna
    [C] Brahmaputra
    [D] Godavari
    Correct Answer: B [Yamuna]
    Notes: The Chambal River is a major tributary of the Yamuna River.
  227. Kanha National Park is located in which Indian state?
    [A] Maharashtra
    [B] Madhya Pradesh
    [C] Rajasthan
    [D] Karnataka
    Correct Answer: B [Madhya Pradesh]
    Notes: Kanha National Park, established in 1955, is a renowned tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
  228. The classical dance “Bharatnatyam” originated in which state?
    [A] Kerala
    [B] Andhra Pradesh
    [C] Tamil Nadu
    [D] Odisha
    Correct Answer: C [Tamil Nadu]
    Notes: Bharatnatyam is a classical dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu.
  229. Which Indian city is also known as the “Blue City”?
    [A] Jodhpur
    [B] Jaipur
    [C] Udaipur
    [D] Bikaner
    Correct Answer: A [Jodhpur]
    Notes: Jodhpur in Rajasthan is known as the “Blue City” due to the blue-painted houses around Mehrangarh Fort.
  230. Which classical dance form originated in Odisha?
    [A] Kathak
    [B] Kuchipudi
    [C] Odissi
    [D] Manipuri
    Correct Answer: C [Odissi]
    Notes: Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in the state of Odisha.
  231. Who awards the Saraswati Samman?
    [A] Sahitya Akademi
    [B] Jnanpith Trust
    [C] KK Birla Foundation
    [D] National Book Trust
    Correct Answer: C [KK Birla Foundation]
    Notes: The Saraswati Samman is awarded by the KK Birla Foundation for outstanding literary work in any Indian language.
  232. Which National Park is located in Maharashtra and was established in 1959?
    [A] Kanha National Park
    [B] Tadoba National Park
    [C] Bandhavgarh National Park
    [D] Periyar National Park
    Correct Answer: B [Tadoba National Park]
    Notes: Tadoba National Park, located in Maharashtra, is one of the oldest and largest national parks in the state.
  233. Which river’s tributaries include the Gomti and the Ghaghara?
    [A] Yamuna
    [B] Ganga
    [C] Brahmaputra
    [D] Godavari
    Correct Answer: B [Ganga]
    Notes: The Ganga River has several tributaries, including the Gomti, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, and more.
  234. Which classical dance form originated in Kerala?
    [A] Kathakali
    [B] Kuchipudi
    [C] Bharatnatyam
    [D] Odissi
    Correct Answer: A [Kathakali]
    Notes: Kathakali is a classical dance form from Kerala known for its elaborate costumes and expressive makeup.
  235. What is celebrated on 21st April in India?
    [A] World Water Day
    [B] National Civil Service Day
    [C] World Heritage Day
    [D] World Earth Day
    Correct Answer: B [National Civil Service Day]
    Notes: National Civil Service Day is celebrated to honor the civil servants and their contributions to public administration.
  236. Which Indian city is known as the “Cotton City of India”?
    [A] Akola
    [B] Ahmedabad
    [C] Mumbai
    [D] Coimbatore
    Correct Answer: A [Akola]
    Notes: Akola in Maharashtra is known as the “Cotton City of India.”
  237. Which style of architecture is a hybrid of Nagara and Dravida styles?
    [A] Vesara
    [B] Kalinga
    [C] Maru-Gurjara
    [D] Solanki
    Correct Answer: A [Vesara]
    Notes: Vesara style combines elements of both Nagara (northern) and Dravida (southern) architectural styles.
  238. Who is the constitutional head of a state in India?
    [A] Chief Minister
    [B] Governor
    [C] President
    [D] Prime Minister
    Correct Answer: B [Governor]
    Notes: The Governor is the constitutional head of a state, analogous to the President at the Union level.
  239. Which river is a tributary of the Yamuna?
    [A] Chambal
    [B] Godavari
    [C] Kaveri
    [D] Mahanadi
    Correct Answer: A [Chambal]
    Notes: The Chambal River is a major tributary of the Yamuna River.
  240. Which National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh and was established in 1968?
    [A] Kanha National Park
    [B] Tadoba National Park
    [C] Bandhavgarh National Park
    [D] Madhav National Park
    Correct Answer: D [Madhav National Park]
    Notes: Madhav National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh and was established in 1968.
  241. When has the United Nations General Assembly proclaimed World Football Day to be celebrated annually?
    [A] June 25
    [B] April 25
    [C] May 25
    [D] August 25
    Correct Answer: C [May 25]
    Notes: The United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming May 25 as World Football Day, allowing fans around the world to celebrate the world’s most popular sport every year on this date.
  242. Which vitamin is known as Folic Acid?
    [A] Vitamin B6
    [B] Vitamin B7
    [C] Vitamin B9
    [D] Vitamin B12
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Vitamin B9 is also known as Folic Acid.
  243. Which vitamin is known as Cobalamin?
    [A] Vitamin B6
    [B] Vitamin B7
    [C] Vitamin B9
    [D] Vitamin B12
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Vitamin B12 is also known as Cobalamin.
  244. Which vitamin is known as Ascorbic Acid?
    [A] Vitamin B1
    [B] Vitamin B2
    [C] Vitamin B3
    [D] Vitamin C
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Vitamin C is also known as Ascorbic Acid.
  245. Which vitamin is known as Calciferol?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Vitamin D is also known as Calciferol.
  246. Which vitamin is known as Tocopherol?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Vitamin E is also known as Tocopherol.
  247. Which vitamin is known as Phytonadione?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Vitamin K is also known as Phytonadione.
  248. Which of the following vitamins is water-soluble?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin C
    [D] Vitamin E
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Vitamin C is water-soluble.
  249. Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble?
    [A] Vitamin B1
    [B] Vitamin B2
    [C] Vitamin B3
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Vitamin K is fat-soluble.
  250. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin E
    [C] Vitamin B12
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Vitamin B12 is water-soluble.
  251. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin D
    [C] Vitamin E
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting.
  252. Which vitamin helps in calcium absorption?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin B12
    [C] Vitamin D
    [D] Vitamin K
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Vitamin D helps in calcium absorption.
  253. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
    [A] Vitamin A
    [B] Vitamin C
    [C] Vitamin D
    [D] Vitamin E
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy.
  254. Which of the following correctly defines “Nacre”?
    [A] A type of rare gemstone
    [B] A hard iridescent substance forming the inner layer of certain shells
    [C] A type of marine plant
    [D] The outer shell of crustaceans
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Nacre, or mother-of-pearl, is a hard, iridescent substance forming the inner layer of certain shells.
  255. What type of stem does an onion have?
    [A] Rhizome
    [B] Bulb
    [C] Tuber
    [D] Corm
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: An onion has a bulb stem.
  256. Which scientist is known for developing DNA fingerprinting in India?
    [A] Samir K Brahmachari
    [B] Prof M Vijayan
    [C] Dr Lalji Singh
    [D] Kanury Venkata Subba Rao
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Dr. Lalji Singh is best known for developing DNA fingerprinting in India.
  257. What is the antigen present on red cells of Blood Group B?
    [A] A antigen
    [B] B antigen
    [C] Both A and B antigens
    [D] No antigens
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Blood Group B has B antigen on its red cells.
  258. What does the term biocenosis refer to?
    [A] A type of fossilized plant
    [B] Community of organisms occupying an area
    [C] A type of marine ecosystem
    [D] Study of energy transformations
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Biocenosis refers to a community of organisms occupying an area.
  259. Which is the smallest human chromosome?
    [A] Chromosome 10
    [B] Chromosome 16
    [C] Chromosome 20
    [D] Chromosome 21
    Correct Answer: D
    Explanation: Chromosome 21 is the smallest human chromosome.
  260. Two vectors are equal if:
    [A] They have equal magnitude but different directions
    [B] They have equal magnitude and the same direction
    [C] They have different magnitudes but the same direction
    [D] They have different magnitudes and different directions
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Two vectors are equal if they have equal magnitude and the same direction.
  261. What does the universal gravitational constant represent?
    [A] Force of attraction between two unit masses at unit distance
    [B] Force of repulsion between two unit masses at unit distance
    [C] Magnetic force between two unit charges
    [D] Electrical force between two unit charges
    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: The universal gravitational constant is the force of attraction between two unit masses at unit distance.
  262. What do we call the nuclides that have the same mass number?
    [A] Isotopes
    [B] Isobars
    [C] Isotones
    [D] Such species don’t exist
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Nuclides with the same mass number are called isobars.
  263. Which substance was used as a moderator in the CIRUS reactor?
    [A] Heavy water
    [B] Water
    [C] Solid graphite
    [D] No moderator was used
    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: The CIRUS reactor used heavy water as a moderator.
  264. What do we call the reaction when an acid and a base react together to form salt and water?
    [A] Reduction Reaction
    [B] Oxidation Reaction
    [C] Neutralisation Reaction
    [D] Combination Reaction
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: The reaction between an acid and a base to form salt and water is called a Neutralisation Reaction.
  265. What is the bond formed due to electrostatic attraction known as?
    [A] Covalent bond
    [B] Electrovalent bond
    [C] Electromagnetic bond
    [D] Polar bond
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: The bond formed due to electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions is called an Electrovalent bond, also known as an Ionic bond.
  266. Which of the following is not a compound of carbon?
    [A] Cinnabar
    [B] Acetic acid
    [C] Chloroform
    [D] Methane
    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: Cinnabar (Mercury Sulphide) is not a compound of carbon; it is a compound of mercury and sulphur.
  267. Which company developed the ‘Omicron-specific mRNA-based Booster vaccine’?
    [A] Gennova
    [B] Bharat Biotech
    [C] Serum Institute
    [D] Dr Reddy’s Labs
    Correct Answer: A
    Explanation: Gennova Biopharmaceuticals Ltd. developed the Omicron-specific mRNA-based Booster vaccine.
  268. What is the name of the closest supermassive black hole to the Earth?
    [A] Tarzan A
    [B] Sagittarius A
    [C] Titan A
    [D] Suzlon A
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: Sagittarius A is the closest supermassive black hole to Earth.
  269. Where are genes located?
    [A] In the mitochondria
    [B] In the ribosomes
    [C] In the chromosomes within the cell nucleus
    [D] In the cell membrane
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: Genes are located in chromosomes, which are found within the cell nucleus.
  270. How many chromosomes does a normal human cell contain?
    [A] 22 pairs, for a total of 44 chromosomes
    [B] 23 pairs, for a total of 46 chromosomes
    [C] 24 pairs, for a total of 48 chromosomes
    [D] 25 pairs, for a total of 50 chromosomes
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: A normal human cell contains 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes.
  271. What is a trait?
    [A] A type of chromosome
    [B] A gene-determined characteristic that is often determined by more than one gene
    [C] A segment of RNA
    [D] A structure within the cell nucleus
    Correct Answer: B
    Explanation: A trait is a gene-determined characteristic that is often determined by more than one gene.
  272. How many genes can a single chromosome contain?
    [A] One to ten
    [B] Tens to hundreds
    [C] Hundreds to thousands
    [D] Thousands to millions
    Correct Answer: C
    Explanation: A chromosome can contain hundreds to thousands of genes.
  273. Who was the first President of India?
    A) Jawaharlal Nehru
    B) Rajendra Prasad
    C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
    D) Zakir Hussian
    Answer: B) Rajendra Prasad
  274. Who was the first Prime Minister of India?
    A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    B) Jawaharlal Nehru
    C) Indira Gandhi
    D) Rajendra Prasad
    Answer: B) Jawaharlal Nehru
  275. Who was the first Governor-General of India?
    A) Lord Mountbatten
    B) Lord Curzon
    C) Lord William Bentinck
    D) Lord Canning
    Answer: C) Lord William Bentinck
  276. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
    A) Zakir Hussian
    B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
    C) V.V. Giri
    D) S. Radhakrishnan
    Answer: B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
  277. Who was the first female President of India?
    A) Indira Gandhi
    B) Sarojini Naidu
    C) Pratibha Patil
    D) Sushma Swaraj
    Answer: C) Pratibha Patil
  278. Who was the first female Prime Minister of India?
    A) Sonia Gandhi
    B) Pratibha Patil
    C) Sushma Swaraj
    D) Indira Gandhi
    Answer: D) Indira Gandhi
  279. Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
    A) Sukumar Sen
    B) T.N. Seshan
    C) Sunil Arora
    D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
    Answer: A) Sukumar Sen
  280. Who was the first Viceroy of India?
    A) Lord Mountbatten
    B) Lord Curzon
    C) Lord Ripon
    D) Lord Canning
    Answer: D) Lord Canning

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