The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-7 PDF Download
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-7
- What is the main objective of the Odisha government’s recent genome sequencing of diphtheria-positive samples in Rayagada district?
A) To identify new viral strains
B) To enhance vaccine efficacy
C) To identify new variants and understand transmission among vaccinated children
D) To develop new antibiotics
Answer: C) To identify new variants and understand transmission among vaccinated children - Diphtheria is caused by which bacterium?
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Answer: B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae - Which film won both a Silver and a Bronze Lion at Cannes Lions 2024 for its campaign “Jindal Steel – The Steel Of India”?
A) Leo Burnett
B) Ogilvy
C) Early Man Film
D) VML India
Answer: C) Early Man Film - Who founded the International ‘Art of Giving’ Day celebrated globally?
A) Sudarsan Pattnaik
B) Achyuta Samanta
C) Naveen Patnaik
D) K V Singhdeo
Answer: B) Achyuta Samanta - When was the first International ‘Art of Giving’ Day celebrated?
A) May 17, 2013
B) June 17, 2014
C) May 17, 2015
D) June 17, 2013
Answer: A) May 17, 2013 - who recently elected as the Speaker of the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
A) Suresh Pujari
B) Surama Padhy
C) Pramilla Mallick
D) Mohan Charan Majhi
Answer: B) Surama Padhy - The KALIA scheme was launched to support which group in Odisha?
A) Fishermen
B) Industrial workers
C) Farmers and agricultural laborers
D) Small business owners
Answer: C) Farmers and agricultural laborers - What is the maximum financial assistance provided per farmer under the KALIA scheme for cultivation over five seasons?
A) Rs. 20,000
B) Rs. 25,000
C) Rs. 30,000
D) Rs. 35,000
Answer: B) Rs. 25,000 - Which is NOT a component of the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jati Abhyuday Yojna (PM-AJAY)?
A) Skill development
B) Life insurance
C) Income-generating schemes
D) Infrastructure development in SC villages
Answer: B) Life insurance - The Odisha government recently extended its sponsorship of Indian hockey until which year?
A) 2028
B) 2030
C) 2033
D) 2036
Answer: D) 2036 - Which historical artifact was discovered in the Gudahandi Hills of Kalahandi district?
A) Ancient coins
B) Rock carvings
C) Fossils
D) Manuscripts
Answer: B) Rock carvings - Which ruler was defeated by Kharavela according to the Hastigumpha inscription?
A) Narasinghavarman I
B) Simhavishnu
C) Satkarni I
D) Gautamiputra Satkarni
Answer: C) Satkarni I - In which Parva of Mahabharat is the reference to Kosala found?
A) Adi Parva
B) Mausala Parva
C) Virata Parva
D) Vana Parva
Answer: D) Vana Parva - What was Odisha referred to as in the Ramayana?
A) Utkalpuri
B) Kalingaraj
C) Kalinganagara
D) Oriya
Answer: C) Kalinganagara - Which fort was first attacked by Krishnadevraya in Odisha?
A) Lalitgiri
B) Udaygiri
C) Jagannath Temple
D) Khandagiri
Answer: B) Udaygiri - During the reign of Akbar, into how many parts was Odisha divided?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 6
D) 9
Answer: B) 5 - Which European group was the first to enter Odisha?
A) English
B) Portuguese
C) Danish
D) French
Answer: B) Portuguese - Under British administration, how many units was Odisha divided into?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 3
D) 2
Answer: C) 3 - What is the correct chronological order of British capture in Odisha?
A) Capturing of Cuttack, Puri, Baleswar, Sambalpur
B) Capturing of Puri, Baleswar, Cuttack, Sambalpur
C) Capturing of Baleswar, Puri, Cuttack, Sambalpur
D) Capturing of Sambalpur, Cuttack, Puri, Baleswar
Answer: B) Capturing of Puri, Baleswar, Cuttack, Sambalpur - Which pair is known as the Twin City of Odisha?
A) Cuttack & Puri
B) Balasore & Puri
C) Sambalpur & Rourkela
D) Cuttack & Bhubaneswar
Answer: D) Cuttack & Bhubaneswar - What is mainly responsible for the red color of red soil in Odisha?
A) Red phosphate
B) Ferric oxide
C) Potash
D) Red humus
Answer: B) Ferric oxide - Which among the following are natural lakes of Odisha?
A) Ansupa, Kolab, Chilika
B) Kolab, Chilika, Kanjia
C) Ansupa, Chilika, Kanjia
D) Ansupa, Chilika, Kolab
Answer: C) Ansupa, Chilika, Kanjia - Which river flows beside Bhubaneswar, one of the twin cities of Odisha?
A) Mahanadi
B) Kuakhai
C) Subarnarekha
D) Brahmani
Answer: B) Kuakhai - Which Odisha scheme provides Rs. 2 lakh personal accident cover with a premium of Rs. 12 per annum?
A) PM-AJAY
B) KALIA
C) PM-KISAN
D) PMJAY
Answer: B) KALIA - Which year was the KALIA scheme started?
A) 2017
B) 2018
C) 2019
D) 2020
Answer: B) 2018 - Which department does Nityananda Gond oversee in Odisha?
A) Education
B) Health
C) ST & SC Development, Minorities & Backward Classes Welfare
D) Agriculture
Answer: C) ST & SC Development, Minorities & Backward Classes Welfare - Which treaty granted the East India Company the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, and what was the annual payment involved?
A) First Treaty of Allahabad, 20 Lakhs
B) Treaty of Purandar, 30 Lakhs
C) Treaty of Bassin, 25 Lakhs
D) Second Treaty of Allahabad, 26 Lakhs
Answer: D) Second Treaty of Allahabad, 26 Lakhs - Which leaders from Odisha were notable participants in the Great Revolt of 1857?
A) Surendra Sai
B) Chakhi Khuntia
C) Ramakrushna Samanta Singhar
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - Whose death marked the end of the revolt of Sambalpur?
A) Surendra Sai
B) Chhabila Sai
C) Satya Bhakta
D) Nana Saheb
Answer: A) Surendra Sai - Who is the Minister for Revenue and Disaster Management?
a) Suresh Pujari
b) Rabi Narayan Naik
c) Nityananda Gond
d) Krushna Chandra Patra
Answer: a) Suresh Pujari - Which ruler of the Ganga Dynasty built the famous Sun Temple at Konark?
A) Rajaraja II
B) Narasimhadeva I
C) Bhanudeva IV
D) Anantavarma Chodagangadeva
Answer: B) Narasimhadeva I - What was the capital of the Ganga Dynasty?
A) Cuttack
B) Puri
C) Kalinganagara
D) Udayagiri
Answer: C) Kalinganagara - Which style of temple architecture was prominent during the Ganga period?
A) Dravidian
B) Vesara
C) Nagara
D) Maru-Gurjara
Answer: C) Nagara - Who was the last ruler of the Ganga Dynasty?
A) Bhanudeva IV
B) Anangabhimadeva III
C) Narasimhadeva I
D) Rajaraja II
Answer: A) Bhanudeva IV - Who founded the Gajapati Dynasty?
A) Prataparudra Deva
B) Purushottam Deva
C) Kapilendra Deva
D) Kakharua Deva
Answer: C) Kapilendra Deva - Which poet wrote the Mahabharata in Odia during the Gajapati period?
A) Jayadeva
B) Sarala Dasa
C) Kalidasa
D) Bhanudeva
Answer: B) Sarala Dasa - What was the outcome of the peace treaty between Prataparudra Deva and Krishnadevaraya?
A) River Krishna was marked as the demarcation line
B) Krishnadevaraya married Prataparudra Deva’s daughter
C) Both A and B
D) Prataparudra Deva surrendered to Krishnadevaraya
Answer: C) Both A and B - Who founded the Bhoi Dynasty?
A) Raghubhanja Chhotray
B) Govinda Vidyadhara
C) Mukundadeva
D) Chakrapratap
Answer: B) Govinda Vidyadhara - Which ruler of the Bhoi Dynasty declared himself the ruler after killing two Bhoi kings?
A) Raghubhanja Chhotray
B) Narasimha Jena
C) Mukundadeva
D) Raghuram Jena
Answer: C) Mukundadeva - Who authored the Oriya version of the Mahabharata?
A. Kamban
B. Utbi
C. Dandin
D. Sarala Dasa
Correct Answer: D. Sarala Dasa - The Battle of Tukaroi was fought between which two forces?
A. Mughals and Afghans
B. Mughals and Marathas
C. Marathas and Afghans
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A. Mughals and Afghans - Which of the following were administrative provinces of Odisha?
A. Cuttack
B. Ganjam
C. Koraput
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above - What is the largest geographic region of Odisha?
A. Odisha coastal plains in the east
B. The middle mountainous and highlands region
C. The western rolling uplands
D. The central plateaus
Correct Answer: B. The middle mountainous and highlands region - Which of the following are components of soil?
1.Organic matter
2.Inorganic or Mineral fraction
3.Air
4.Water
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 & 4
C. 1 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
Correct Answer: D. 1, 2, 3 & 4 - Which river originates from the Amarkantak plateau?
A. Subarnarekha
B. Mahanadi
C. Brahmani
D. Godavari
Correct Answer: B. Mahanadi - What type of forest covers the largest area in Odisha?
A. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
B. Tidal Mangrove Forests
C. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest
D. Tropical Semi-evergreen Forests
Correct Answer: A. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest - Who is often compared with Kalidasa for his work on the Oriya Mahabharata?
A. Kamban
B. Utbi
C. Dandin
D. Sarala Dasa
Correct Answer: D. Sarala Dasa - During Snana Yatra, how many pitchers of aromatic sacred water are poured on the deities?
a) 101
b) 108
c) 121
d) 135
Answer: b) 108 - Snana Yatra is celebrated on which specific day?
a) New Moon day of Jyestha
b) Full Moon day of Jyestha
c) Diwali
d) Makar Sankranti
Answer: b) Full Moon day of Jyestha - Who recently took oath as a newly-elected MP in the Santali language?
a) Naba Charan Majhi
b) Krushna Chandra Mohapatra
c) Pravati Parida
d) Mohan Majhi
Answer: a) Naba Charan Majhi - In which schedule of the Indian Constitution is the Santali language included?
a) Fifth Schedule
b) Sixth Schedule
c) Eighth Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: c) Eighth Schedule - The Santali language is primarily spoken in which of the following states?
a) Odisha, Assam, and Punjab
b) Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal
c) Odisha, Maharashtra, and Gujarat
d) Odisha, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu
Answer: b) Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal - The Bhubaneswar Metro Rail Project is a flagship program under which initiative?
a) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana
b) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
c) 5T initiative of Government of Odisha
d) Smart Cities Mission
Answer: c) 5T initiative of Government of Odisha - What is a key feature of the Bhubaneswar Metro Rail Project?
a) Rural integration
b) Multi-Modal integration
c) Exclusive rail corridors
d) High-speed rail service
Answer: b) Multi-Modal integration - The first phase of the Bhubaneswar Metro Rail Project will serve which areas?
a) Coastal areas
b) Rural villages
c) Major educational institutions and commercial complexes
d) Tourist destinations
Answer: c) Major educational institutions and commercial complexes - What is the primary objective of the Subhadra Yojana?
a) To improve agricultural productivity
b) To enhance financial stability for women in Odisha
c) To promote tourism in Odisha
d) To provide healthcare facilities
Answer: b) To enhance financial stability for women in Odisha - How much is the cash voucher provided under the Subhadra Yojana?
a) Rs 10,000
b) Rs 20,000
c) Rs 50,000
d) Rs 1,00,000
Answer: c) Rs 50,000 - What initiative is the Odisha government planning to implement for the benefit of tribal people?
a) Construction of new hospitals
b) Setting up multi-purpose community centres
c) Launching a new educational curriculum
d) Building new sports complexes
Answer: b) Setting up multi-purpose community centres - Which merged scheme is associated with the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jati Abhyuday Yojna (PM-AJAY)?
a) Swachh Bharat Mission
b) Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana, Special Central Assistance to SCSP, and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana
c) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi, Atal Pension Yojana, and Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
d) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, National Health Mission, and Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
Answer: b) Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana, Special Central Assistance to SCSP, and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana - Until what year has the Odisha government extended its sponsorship for Indian hockey?
a) 2033
b) 2026
c) 2036
d) 2039
Answer: c) 2036 - ଦେବାସୁରର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
a) ଦେବ + ଅସୁର
b) ଦେବ + ସୁର
c) ଦେବା + ସୁର
d) ଦେବା + ଅସୁର
Answer: a - ଶ୍ବେତାମ୍ବରର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
a) ଶ୍ବେତ + ଅମ୍ବର
b) ଶ୍ବେତ + ମ୍ବର
c) ଶ୍ବେତା + ଅମ୍ବର
d) ଶ୍ବେତା + ମ୍ବର
Answer: a - ନୀଳାଚଳର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
a) ନୀଳ + ଅଚଳ
b) ନୀଳ + ଚଳ
c) ନୀଳା + ଅଚଳ
d) ନୀଳା + ଚଳ
Answer: a - ଗ୍ରାମାଞ୍ଚଳର ସନ୍ଧି ବିଚ୍ଛେଦ କଣ?
a) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ
b) ଗ୍ରାମା + ଅଞ୍ଚଳ
c) ଗ୍ରାମ + ଞ୍ଚଳ
d) ଗ୍ରାମା + ଞ୍ଚଳ
Answer: a - ଅନୁଗ୍ରହ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ନିର୍ମଳ
b) ନିଗ୍ରହ
c) ନିବେଦନ
d) ନିଶା
Answer: b) ନିଗ୍ରହ - ଅପେକ୍ଷା ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ଉତ୍ସବ
b) ଉପେକ୍ଷା
c) ଉତ୍ତମ
d) ଉପକର
Answer: b) ଉପେକ୍ଷା - ଅଭିଜ୍ଞ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ଅନଭିଜ୍ଞ
b) ଅଭିପ୍ରାୟ
c) ଅପରାଧ
d) ଅଭିବ୍ୟକ୍ତି
Answer: a) ଅନଭିଜ୍ଞ - ଅସଲ ର ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ କଣ?
a) ସଫଳ
b) ନକଲ
c) ସତ୍ତ୍ଵ
d) ସଂସାର
Answer: b) ନକଲ - ବନେଚର ବିଗ୍ରହ ବାକ୍ୟଟି କ’ଣ ହେବ ?
(a) ବନରେ ଚର
(b) ବନେ ଚରେ ଯେ
(c) ବନର ଚର
(d) ବନକୁ ଚରେ ଯେ
Answer: (b) ବନେ ଚରେ ଯେ - ବିଶେଷଣ ଓ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦକୁ ନେଇ ଯେଉଁ ସମାସ ଗଠିତ ହୁଏ ତାକୁ କି ସମାସ କୁହାଯାଏ
(a) ଦ୍ୱିଗୁ
(b) କର୍ମଧାରୟ
(c) ବହୁବ୍ରୀହି
(d) ତତପୁରୁଷ
Answer: (b) କର୍ମଧାରୟ - ସୁନାମୁଦି ଏହାର ବିଗ୍ରହ ବାକ୍ୟ କଣ ହେବ ?
(a) ସୁନା ତିଆରି ମୁଦି
(b) ସୁନା ପରି ମୁଦି
(c) ସୁନାର ମୁଦି
(d) ସୁନା ଓ ମୁଦି
Answer: (a) ସୁନା ତିଆରି ମୁଦି - ‘ଫତେଇ ହେବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ତାଲି ମାରିବା
b) ବାରମ୍ବାର ପଚାରିବା
c) ହାସିବା
d) ବାରମ୍ବାର ହାରିବା
Answer: b - ‘ଫସର ଫାଟିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଫସ ନାଶ ହେବା
b) ବ୍ୟର୍ଥ ହେବା
c) ଫସର ରାସ ନିକାଶ କରିବା
d) ଫସର ଚାଷ କରିବା
Answer: b - ‘ବାମନ ହୋଇ ଚାନ୍ଦକୁ ହାତ ବଢାଇବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଚାନ୍ଦ ଦେଖିବା
b) ବାମନ ହେବା
c) ଅସମ୍ଭବ ପାଇଁ ଚେଷ୍ଟା
d) ଚାନ୍ଦରେ ଯିବା
Answer: c - ‘ବିଛା ମନ୍ତ୍ର ନ ଜାଣି ସାପ ଗାତରେ ହାତ ମାରିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ସାପକୁ ଧରିବା
b) ବିଛା ମନ୍ତ୍ର ଶିଖିବା
c) ଧୃଷ୍ଟତାରେ ବିପଦ ବରଣ କରିବା
d) ସାପରେ ଲାଗିବା
Answer: c - ‘ବିରାଡି କପାଳକୁ ଶିକା ଚିଡିବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ବାନର ଭାବରେ ହିଁଡିବା
b) ଶିକା ଚିଡିବା
c) ଇଚ୍ଛା ଅନୁସାରେ ସୁଯୋଗ ମିଳିବା
d) କପାଳରେ ଲେଖା
Answer: c - ‘ବସେଇ ଉଠେଇ ନଦେବା’ ର ଅର୍ଥ କଣ?
a) ଉଠିବା ଓ ବସିବା
b) ଭୁଲିବା
c) ବିଶ୍ରାମ ନେବା
d) ଅଥୟ କରିବା
Answer: d - ନାଗରୀ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
A) ଆ
B) ଈ
C) ଆନୀ
D) ଆଣୀ
Answer: B) ଈ - କୋକିଳା କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
A) ଆ
B) ଈ
C) ଆନୀ
D) ଆଣୀ
Answer: A) ଆ - କିଶୋର ର ସ୍ତ୍ରୀ ଲିଙ୍ଗ ରୂପ କଣ ?
A) କିଶୋରା
B) କିଶୋରୀ
C) କିଶୋରାଣୀ
D) କିଶୋରିକା
Answer: B) କିଶୋରୀ - ଭବାଣୀ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
A) ଆ
B) ଈ
C) ଆନୀ
D) ଆଣୀ
Answer: C) ଆନୀ - ଇନ୍ଦ୍ରାଣୀ କେଉଁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଯୋଗରେ ତିଆରି ହୋଇଛି ?
A) ଆ
B) ଈ
C) ଆନୀ
D) ଆଣୀ
Answer: D) ଆଣୀ - କର୍ତ୍ତା କାରକରେ କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ହୁଏ ?
(A) ପ୍ରଥମା
(B) ତୃତୀୟା
(C) ଦ୍ବତୀୟା
(D) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
Answer: (A) ପ୍ରଥମା - ବାକ୍ୟ ମଧ୍ଯରେ କ୍ରିୟାପଦ ସହିତ ସମ୍ପର୍କ ନଥାଇ ଯେଉଁ ପଦର ଅନ୍ୟ ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ ସହିତ ସମ୍ପର୍କ ଥାଏ ତାକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
(A) ସର୍ବନାମ ପଦ
(B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ
(C) ଅବ୍ୟୟ ପଦ
(D) ବିଶେଷ୍ୟ ପଦ
Answer: (B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ - ଯେଉଁ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ବା ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସମଷ୍ଟି ଦ୍ବାରା ସଂଖ୍ୟା, କାରକ ସ୍ବଚିତ ହୁଏ ତାହାକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
(A) ବିଭକ୍ତ
(B) ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧ ପଦ
(C) ଅବ୍ୟୟ ପଦ
(D) କାରକ
Answer:(A) ବିଭକ୍ତ - କାରକର ଚିହ୍ନକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି?
(A) ବିଭକ୍ତି
(B) କାରକ
(C) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
(D) ଅବ୍ଯକ୍ତ
Answer:(A) ବିଭକ୍ତି - ଈଶ୍ବର ତୁମକୁ ବିପଦରୁ ରକ୍ଷା କରନ୍ତୁ | ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ପଦର କେଉଁ ବିଭକ୍ତି ହୋଇଛି?
(A) ଚତୁର୍ଥୀ
(B) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ
(C) ତୃତୀୟା
(D) ଦ୍ବିତୀୟା
Answer: (B) ପଞ୍ଚମୀ - ଧ୍ବନି ମାନଙ୍କର ଲିଖୂତ ରୂପ କଣ ?
A. ଭାଷା
B. ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
C. ଧ୍ୱନି
D. ଶବ୍ଦ
Answer: B. ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ - କ ବର୍ଗ ର ଅନ୍ୟ ନାମ କଣ ?
A . କଣ୍ଠ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
B ତାଲବ୍ଯ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
C ଓଷ୍ଠ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
D ଦନ୍ଧ୍ୟ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ
Answer: A . କଣ୍ଠ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣ - Who were the primary adversaries in the Battle of Plassey?
A. British East India Company vs. Mughal Empire
B. British East India Company vs. French East India Company
C. British East India Company vs. Nawab of Bengal
D. British East India Company vs. Maratha Empire
Answer: C. British East India Company vs. Nawab of Bengal - Which British officer led the East India Company forces in the Battle of Plassey?
A. Siraj-ud-Daulah
B. Mir Jafar
C. Robert Clive
D. Warren Hastings
Answer: C. Robert Clive - What was the primary cause of the Battle of Plassey?
A. Dispute over territory between British and French
B. Disagreement over trade routes in Bengal
C. British fortification of Calcutta without Nawab’s permission
D. British refusal to pay taxes to Nawab of Bengal
Answer: C. British fortification of Calcutta without Nawab’s permission - Who betrayed Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah during the Battle of Plassey?
A. Rai Durlabh
B. Robert Clive
C. Mir Jafar
D. Jagat Seth
Answer: C. Mir Jafar - What was the immediate aftermath of the Battle of Plassey for the British East India Company?
A. Loss of influence in Bengal
B. Strengthened control over Bengal
C. Establishment of French dominance in Bengal
D. Withdrawal from Indian subcontinent
Answer: B. Strengthened control over Bengal - Who were the primary belligerents in the Third Battle of Panipat?
A) Maratha Empire and Mughal Empire
B) Maratha Empire and Durrani Empire
C) Mughal Empire and British East India Company
D) Maratha Empire and Sikhs
Answer: B) Maratha Empire and Durrani Empire - Who was the Commander-in-chief of the Maratha Army during the battle?
A) Balaji Bajirao
B) Shivaji Bhosle
C) Sadashivrao Bhau
D) Nana Fadnavis
Answer: C) Sadashivrao Bhau - Where did the Third Battle of Panipat take place?
A) Delhi
B) Pune
C) Panipat
D) Lahore
Answer: C) Panipat - When did the Third Battle of Panipat occur?
A) 1760
B) 1761
C) 1757
D) 1770
Answer: B) 1761 - Which Afghan ruler led the Durrani Empire during the battle?
A) Ahmad Shah Durrani
B) Babur
C) Sher Shah Suri
D) Aurangzeb
Answer: A) Ahmad Shah Durrani - What was the outcome of the Third Battle of Panipat?
A) Victory for the Marathas
B) Victory for the British
C) Victory for the Afghans
D) Stalemate
Answer: C) Victory for the Afghans - Which Indian ruler allied with Ahmad Shah Durrani against the Marathas?
A) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
B) Shuja-ud-Daulah
C) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
D) Rana Pratap
Answer: B) Shuja-ud-Daulah - What was one of the reasons for the Afghan victory at Panipat?
A) Numerical superiority
B) Technological advantage
C) Naval dominance
D) Diplomatic alliances
Answer: A) Numerical superiority - How did the Battle of Panipat impact the Maratha Empire immediately after?
A) Expansion into South India
B) Establishment of a strong navy
C) Loss of leadership and territory
D) Alliance with the British
Answer: C) Loss of leadership and territory - Who was reinstated as the Mughal Emperor in Delhi after the battle?
A) Akbar
B) Aurangzeb
C) Shah Alam II
D) Bahadur Shah II
Answer: C) Shah Alam II - Who was Hyder Ali?
A. A British diplomat
B. Commander-in-chief of the Mysore army
C. French general
D. Portuguese trader
Answer: B. Commander-in-chief of the Mysore army - What position did Hyder Ali achieve in the Mysore state under Krishnaraja Wodeyar II?
A. Prime Minister
B. Chief Minister
C. Commander of the Navy
D. Treasurer
Answer: B. Chief Minister - How did Hyder Ali change the Mysore army?
A. Introduced European-style training
B. Introduced Chinese war tactics
C. Adopted Mongol cavalry tactics
D. Trained soldiers in African warfare
Answer: A. Introduced European-style training - Which war saw the Treaty of Madras signed?
A. First Anglo-Mysore War
B. Second Anglo-Mysore War
C. Third Anglo-Mysore War
D. Fourth Anglo-Mysore War
Answer: A. First Anglo-Mysore War - What event led to the outbreak of the First Anglo-Mysore War?
A. Hyder Ali’s attack on Madras
B. British refusal to support Mysore against Marathas
C. Nizam’s invasion of Mysore
D. French invasion of British territories
Answer: B. British refusal to support Mysore against Marathas - Who replaced Hyder Ali after his death during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
A. Tipu Sultan
B. Krishnaraja Wodeyar II
C. Sir Eyre Coote
D. Marquess Wellesley
Answer: A. Tipu Sultan - Which treaty ended the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
A. Treaty of Madras
B. Treaty of Mangalore
C. Treaty of Srirangapatna
D. Treaty of Arcot
Answer: B. Treaty of Mangalore - What alliance did Hyder Ali form during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
A. With the French and British
B. With the Marathas and Nizam
C. With the Dutch and Portuguese
D. With the Spanish and Italians
Answer: B. With the Marathas and Nizam - Which battle was a part of the First Anglo-Mysore War?
A. Battle of Plassey
B. Battle of Chengam
C. Battle of Panipat
D. Battle of Buxar
Answer: B. Battle of Chengam - What caused Hyder Ali to declare war on the British during the Second Anglo-Mysore War?
A. British attack on Madras
B. French invasion of Mysore
C. British refusal to return territories
D. British attack on Mahe
Answer: D. British attack on Mahe - What were the primary causes of the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
A. Tipu Sultan’s refusal to accept the Treaty of Mangalore
B. British dissatisfaction with Tipu’s alignment with the French
C. Tipu Sultan’s attack on the Marathas
D. British desire for territorial expansion in South India
Answer: B. British dissatisfaction with Tipu’s alignment with the French - Who declared war first in the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
A. Lord Cornwallis
B. Tipu Sultan
C. Nizam of Hyderabad
D. Marathas
Answer: A. Lord Cornwallis - What was the outcome of the Treaty of Seringapatam (1792)?
A. Tipu Sultan regained all lost territories
B. Tipu Sultan paid war indemnity to the Marathas
C. Tipu Sultan ceded half of his kingdom to the British
D. Tipu Sultan allied with the French
Answer: C. Tipu Sultan ceded half of his kingdom to the British - What led to the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799?
A. Tipu Sultan’s rejection of the Subsidiary Alliance
B. British invasion of Mysore
C. Marathas’ attack on Seringapatam
D. Tipu Sultan’s death
Answer: A. Tipu Sultan’s rejection of the Subsidiary Alliance - How did the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War end?
A. Tipu Sultan fled to France
B. Mysore became a British colony
C. Tipu Sultan died defending Seringapatam
D. Nizam of Hyderabad became ruler of Mysore
Answer: C. Tipu Sultan died defending Seringapatam - Chanakya, the teacher, philosopher, and royal advisor of the Mauryan dynasty, is also known by which two other names?
A) Kautilya and Vishnugupta
B) Kautilya and Aryabhata
C) Vishnugupta and Patanjali
D) Aryabhata and Patanjali
Answer: A) Kautilya and Vishnugupta - Which two major works are attributed to Chanakya?
A) Arthrasastra and Chanakya Niti
B) Manusmriti and Arthrasastra
C) Ramayana and Chanakya Niti
D) Bhagavad Gita and Manusmriti
Answer: A) Arthrasastra and Chanakya Niti - Who was the first ruler of the Mauryan Empire under the guidance of Chanakya?
A) Ashoka
B) Bindusara
C) Chandragupta Maurya
D) Brihadratha
Answer: C) Chandragupta Maurya - Ashoka the Great followed which religion after the Battle of Kalinga?
A) Hinduism
B) Jainism
C) Buddhism
D) Sikhism
Answer: C) Buddhism - Which structure built by Ashoka is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
A) Konark Sun Temple
B) Mahabodhi Temple
C) Great Sanchi Stupa
D) Ajanta Caves
Answer: C) Great Sanchi Stupa - What symbol from Ashoka’s reign was adopted as the national emblem of India?
A) Lotus Flower
B) Peacock
C) Four-lion capital
D) Tiger
Answer: C) Four-lion capital - Who composed the inscriptions in praise of Samudragupta on the Allahabad Pillar?
A) Kalidasa
B) Harisena
C) Varahamihira
D) Aryabhata
Answer: B) Harisena - Which title was given to Samudragupta for his poetic skills?
A) Kaviraj
B) Veena Shrestha
C) Kavi Kumara
D) Vidhyapati
Answer: A) Kaviraj - Kalidasa, a renowned poet of the Gupta period, wrote which of the following plays?
A) Malavikagnimitra
B) Ratnavali
C) Mudrarakshasa
D) Mrichchhakatika
Answer: A) Malavikagnimitra - Which epic poems were authored by Kalidasa?
A) Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava
B) Mahabharata and Ramayana
C) Meghaduta and Ritusamhara
D) Silappadikaram and Manimekalai
Answer: A) Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava - Who was the first king of ancient Bengal and a great patron of Hinduism?
A) Harshavardhana
B) Shashanka
C) Dharmapala
D) Chandragupta II
Answer: B) Shashanka - Harshavardhana initially worshipped which deities before becoming a Mahayana Buddhist?
A) Vishnu and Krishna
B) Shiva and Surya
C) Brahma and Saraswati
D) Ganesh and Hanuman
Answer: B) Shiva and Surya - Which ruler revived Nalanda University and founded Vikramshila University?
A) Ashoka
B) Harshavardhana
C) Dharmapala
D) Chandragupta II
Answer: C) Dharmapala - Gorakhnath was connected to which religious tradition?
A) Shaivism
B) Vaishnavism
C) Jainism
D) Buddhism
Answer: A) Shaivism - Amir Khusrow, known as the “Parrot of India,” is regarded as the father of which musical genre?
A) Qawwali
B) Bhajan
C) Ghazal
D) Dhrupad
Answer: A) Qawwali - Marco Polo, an Italian traveler, wrote about the wealth of which South Indian kingdom?
A) Chola
B) Pandya
C) Vijayanagara
D) Chera
Answer: B) Pandya - Rudrama Devi was a ruler of which dynasty?
A) Chalukya
B) Pallava
C) Kakatiya
D) Rashtrakuta
Answer: C) Kakatiya - Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted the capital of his kingdom from Delhi to which city?
A) Agra
B) Lahore
C) Daulatabad
D) Jaipur
Answer: C) Daulatabad - Which Gujarati saint poet’s bhajan “Vaishnav jana toh tene kahiye je” was Mahatma Gandhi’s favorite?
A) Narsinh Mehta
B) Mirabai
C) Tulsidas
D) Surdas
Answer: A) Narsinh Mehta - Mahmud Begada ruled which Indian state and had capitals at Ahmedabad and Champaner?
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Rajasthan
D) Punjab
Answer: B) Gujarat - Eknath, a Marathi saint, was a follower of which religious sect?
A) Nath
B) Varkari
C) Shaiva
D) Shakta
Answer: B) Varkari - Akbar the Great followed which religious path to promote unity and tolerance?
A) Din-i-illahi
B) Sikhism
C) Jainism
D) Sufism
Answer: A) Din-i-illahi - Who was the Queen of the Kingdom of Malwa and known for her contributions to building temples and roads?
A) Rani Durgavati
B) Ahilyabai Holkar
C) Rani Laxmi Bai
D) Rani Padmini
Answer: B) Ahilyabai Holkar - Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, a 19th-century Indian yogi, was the chief patron at which temple?
A) Somnath Temple
B) Jagannath Temple
C) Dakshineswar Kali Temple
D) Meenakshi Temple
Answer: C) Dakshineswar Kali Temple - Who was the chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded the Ramakrishna Mission?
A) Swami Vivekananda
B) Swami Dayananda
C) Swami Sivananda
D) Swami Ramdas
Answer: A) Swami Vivekananda - Which Indian emperor’s reign is associated with the spread of Mahayana Buddhism and the holding of two large meetings on Buddhism?
A) Ashoka
B) Harshavardhana
C) Chandragupta Maurya
D) Bindusara
Answer: B) Harshavardhana - Kalidasa’s play ‘Abhigyanashakuntalam’ is based on a story from which ancient Indian epic?
A) Mahabharata
B) Ramayana
C) Bhagavad Gita
D) Puranas
Answer: A) Mahabharata - Which dynasty did Samudragupta belong to?
A) Maurya
B) Gupta
C) Chola
D) Pallava
Answer: B) Gupta - What was the purpose of the Ashvamedha sacrifice performed by Samudragupta?
A) To seek divine blessings
B) To expand his kingdom
C) To appease the gods
D) To ensure his rule was legitimate
Answer: B) To expand his kingdom - Which religious leader and poet is credited with contributing to the fusion of Persian and Indian music, and also known for the khyal and tarana styles?
A) Amir Khusrow
B) Tansen
C) Mirabai
D) Kabir
Answer: A) Amir Khusrow - Chanakya, the teacher, philosopher, and royal advisor of the Mauryan dynasty, is also known by which two other names?
A) Kautilya and Vishnugupta
B) Kautilya and Aryabhata
C) Vishnugupta and Patanjali
D) Aryabhata and Patanjali
Answer: A) Kautilya and Vishnugupta - Which two major works are attributed to Chanakya?
A) Arthrasastra and Chanakya Niti
B) Manusmriti and Arthrasastra
C) Ramayana and Chanakya Niti
D) Bhagavad Gita and Manusmriti
Answer: A) Arthrasastra and Chanakya Niti - Who was the first ruler of the Mauryan Empire under the guidance of Chanakya?
A) Ashoka
B) Bindusara
C) Chandragupta Maurya
D) Brihadratha
Answer: C) Chandragupta Maurya - Ashoka the Great followed which religion after the Battle of Kalinga?
A) Hinduism
B) Jainism
C) Buddhism
D) Sikhism
Answer: C) Buddhism - Which structure built by Ashoka is a UNESCO World Heritage Site?
A) Konark Sun Temple
B) Mahabodhi Temple
C) Great Sanchi Stupa
D) Ajanta Caves
Answer: C) Great Sanchi Stupa - What symbol from Ashoka’s reign was adopted as the national emblem of India?
A) Lotus Flower
B) Peacock
C) Four-lion capital
D) Tiger
Answer: C) Four-lion capital - Who composed the inscriptions in praise of Samudragupta on the Allahabad Pillar?
A) Kalidasa
B) Harisena
C) Varahamihira
D) Aryabhata
Answer: B) Harisena - Which title was given to Samudragupta for his poetic skills?
A) Kaviraj
B) Veena Shrestha
C) Kavi Kumara
D) Vidhyapati
Answer: A) Kaviraj - Kalidasa, a renowned poet of the Gupta period, wrote which of the following plays?
A) Malavikagnimitra
B) Ratnavali
C) Mudrarakshasa
D) Mrichchhakatika
Answer: A) Malavikagnimitra - Which epic poems were authored by Kalidasa?
A) Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava
B) Mahabharata and Ramayana
C) Meghaduta and Ritusamhara
D) Silappadikaram and Manimekalai
Answer: A) Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava - Who was the first king of ancient Bengal and a great patron of Hinduism?
A) Harshavardhana
B) Shashanka
C) Dharmapala
D) Chandragupta II
Answer: B) Shashanka - Harshavardhana initially worshipped which deities before becoming a Mahayana Buddhist?
A) Vishnu and Krishna
B) Shiva and Surya
C) Brahma and Saraswati
D) Ganesh and Hanuman
Answer: B) Shiva and Surya - Which ruler revived Nalanda University and founded Vikramshila University?
A) Ashoka
B) Harshavardhana
C) Dharmapala
D) Chandragupta II
Answer: C) Dharmapala - Gorakhnath was connected to which religious tradition?
A) Shaivism
B) Vaishnavism
C) Jainism
D) Buddhism
Answer: A) Shaivism - Amir Khusrow, known as the “Parrot of India,” is regarded as the father of which musical genre?
A) Qawwali
B) Bhajan
C) Ghazal
D) Dhrupad
Answer: A) Qawwali - Marco Polo, an Italian traveler, wrote about the wealth of which South Indian kingdom?
A) Chola
B) Pandya
C) Vijayanagara
D) Chera
Answer: B) Pandya - Rudrama Devi was a ruler of which dynasty?
A) Chalukya
B) Pallava
C) Kakatiya
D) Rashtrakuta
Answer: C) Kakatiya - Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shifted the capital of his kingdom from Delhi to which city?
A) Agra
B) Lahore
C) Daulatabad
D) Jaipur
Answer: C) Daulatabad - Which Gujarati saint poet’s bhajan “Vaishnav jana toh tene kahiye je” was Mahatma Gandhi’s favorite?
A) Narsinh Mehta
B) Mirabai
C) Tulsidas
D) Surdas
Answer: A) Narsinh Mehta - Mahmud Begada ruled which Indian state and had capitals at Ahmedabad and Champaner?
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Rajasthan
D) Punjab
Answer: B) Gujarat - Eknath, a Marathi saint, was a follower of which religious sect?
A) Nath
B) Varkari
C) Shaiva
D) Shakta
Answer: B) Varkari - Akbar the Great followed which religious path to promote unity and tolerance?
A) Din-i-illahi
B) Sikhism
C) Jainism
D) Sufism
Answer: A) Din-i-illahi - Who was the Queen of the Kingdom of Malwa and known for her contributions to building temples and roads?
A) Rani Durgavati
B) Ahilyabai Holkar
C) Rani Laxmi Bai
D) Rani Padmini
Answer: B) Ahilyabai Holkar - Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, a 19th-century Indian yogi, was the chief patron at which temple?
A) Somnath Temple
B) Jagannath Temple
C) Dakshineswar Kali Temple
D) Meenakshi Temple
Answer: C) Dakshineswar Kali Temple - Who was the chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and founded the Ramakrishna Mission?
A) Swami Vivekananda
B) Swami Dayananda
C) Swami Sivananda
D) Swami Ramdas
Answer: A) Swami Vivekananda - Which Indian emperor’s reign is associated with the spread of Mahayana Buddhism and the holding of two large meetings on Buddhism?
A) Ashoka
B) Harshavardhana
C) Chandragupta Maurya
D) Bindusara
Answer: B) Harshavardhana - Kalidasa’s play ‘Abhigyanashakuntalam’ is based on a story from which ancient Indian epic?
A) Mahabharata
B) Ramayana
C) Bhagavad Gita
D) Puranas
Answer: A) Mahabharata - Which dynasty did Samudragupta belong to?
A) Maurya
B) Gupta
C) Chola
D) Pallava
Answer: B) Gupta - What was the purpose of the Ashvamedha sacrifice performed by Samudragupta?
A) To seek divine blessings
B) To expand his kingdom
C) To appease the gods
D) To ensure his rule was legitimate
Answer: B) To expand his kingdom - Which religious leader and poet is credited with contributing to the fusion of Persian and Indian music, and also known for the khyal and tarana styles?
A) Amir Khusrow
B) Tansen
C) Mirabai
D) Kabir
Answer: A) Amir Khusrow - What is the primary function of the plasma membrane in a cell?
A. Providing rigidity to the cell
B. Synthesizing proteins
C. Controlling the passage of materials in and out of the cell
D. Storing genetic information
Answer: C. Controlling the passage of materials in and out of the cell - Which of the following is not a component of the cell wall in plant cells?
A. Cellulose
B. Hemicelluloses
C. Pectin
D. Phospholipids
Answer: D. Phospholipids - What structure within the nucleus is responsible for the formation of ribosomes?
A. Chromatin
B. Nucleolus
C. Nuclear envelope
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B. Nucleolus - Which type of endoplasmic reticulum is associated with the synthesis of proteins?
A. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)
B. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosomes
Answer: B. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) - What is the primary function of mitochondria in the cell?
A. Synthesizing proteins
B. Synthesizing lipids
C. Generating energy (ATP)
D. Storing genetic information
Answer: C. Generating energy (ATP) - Which organelle is known as the “suicidal bag” of the cell due to its role in digesting cellular waste and debris?
A. Ribosomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Peroxisomes
D. Vacuoles
Answer: B. Lysosomes - Which of the following structures is found only in plant cells and not in animal cells?
A. Centrosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi apparatus
Answer: C. Chloroplasts - Which component of the cell is responsible for packaging and dispatching materials synthesized inside the cell?
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Ribosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondria
Answer: C. Golgi apparatus - What are vacuoles primarily responsible for in plant cells?
A. Synthesizing proteins
B. Providing turgidity and rigidity
C. Storing genetic information
D. Generating energy (ATP)
Answer: B. Providing turgidity and rigidity - Which organelles are involved in detoxification processes within the cell?
A. Lysosomes
B. Peroxisomes
C. Ribosomes
D. Vacuoles
Answer: B. Peroxisomes - Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Kingdom Monera?
A) Multicellular organisms
B) Eukaryotic cells
C) Presence of a well-defined nucleus
D) Prokaryotic cells
Answer: D) Prokaryotic cells - What distinguishes Archaebacteria from Eubacteria?
A) Archaebacteria are eukaryotic
B) Archaebacteria live in extreme environments
C) Eubacteria have a well-defined nucleus
D) Eubacteria are autotrophs
Answer: B) Archaebacteria live in extreme environments - Which of the following is an example of an organism from Kingdom Protista?
A) Yeast
B) Mushroom
C) Amoeba
D) Penicillium
Answer: C) Amoeba - Kingdom Fungi includes organisms that:
A) Are photosynthetic
B) Have a cell wall made of chitin
C) Have a well-defined nucleus
D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C - Which kingdom includes multicellular green plants and advanced algae?
A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Plantae
Answer: D) Plantae - Kingdom Animalia is characterized by organisms that:
A) Are autotrophic
B) Have a cell wall
C) Have limited growth
D) Are immobile
Answer: C) Have limited growth - Which group of organisms is known for using chemical energy sources like ammonia or methane for metabolic activities?
A) Eubacteria
B) Archaebacteria
C) Protista
D) Fungi
Answer: B) Archaebacteria - Plasmodium, which causes malaria, belongs to which kingdom?
A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Animalia
Answer: B) Protista - What is the reserve food material in Kingdom Fungi?
A) Starch
B) Lipids
C) Glycogen
D) Cellulose
Answer: C) Glycogen - Which kingdom consists of organisms that are heterotrophic, lack a cell wall, and are usually mobile?
A) Monera
B) Protista
C) Fungi
D) Animalia
Answer: D) Animalia - What is the main purpose of nutrition in living organisms?
A) Reproduction
B) Energy production
C) Movement
D) Respiration
Answer: B) Energy production - Which mode of nutrition involves organisms producing their own food using sunlight?
A) Holozoic
B) Parasitic
C) Autotrophic
D) Saprotrophic
Answer: C) Autotrophic - Which of the following organisms is an example of a heterotroph?
A) Algae
B) Fungi
C) Euglena
D) Cyanobacteria
Answer: B) Fungi - Which type of nutrition involves feeding on dead and decaying organic matter?
A) Holozoic
B) Parasitic
C) Autotrophic
D) Saprotrophic
Answer: D) Saprotrophic - How do parasites obtain their nutrition?
A) By photosynthesis
B) By feeding on living organisms
C) By feeding on dead matter
D) By absorbing nutrients from the soil
Answer: B) By feeding on living organisms - Which term describes the mode of nutrition where organisms ingest solid food and digest it internally?
A) Autotrophic
B) Heterotrophic
C) Holozoic
D) Parasitic
Answer: C) Holozoic - Animals that eat only plants are classified as:
A) Herbivores
B) Carnivores
C) Omnivores
D) Autotrophs
Answer: A) Herbivores - What is the process where food molecules are absorbed into the bloodstream from the intestine called?
A) Digestion
B) Egestion
C) Absorption
D) Assimilation
Answer: C) Absorption - Which step in the process of nutrition involves the breakdown of food molecules into simpler forms?
A) Assimilation
B) Ingestion
C) Digestion
D) Egestion
Answer: C) Digestion - After digestion, what happens to the absorbed nutrients in animals?
A) They are excreted as waste
B) They are transported to cells for energy and growth
C) They are converted into carbon dioxide
D) They are stored as fat
Answer: B) They are transported to cells for energy and growth - What is celebrated on 1st March?
A. World Wildlife Day
B. Zero Discrimination Day
C. National Safety Day
D. World Meteorological Day
Answer: B. Zero Discrimination Day - Where is the headquarters of the World Trade Organisation located?
A. Paris, France
B. Vienna, Austria
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. New York, USA
Answer: C. Geneva, Switzerland - Which day is observed on 3rd March?
A. World Hearing Day
B. World Civil Defence Day
C. World Wildlife Day
D. National Safety Day
Answer: C. World Wildlife Day - What does Article 324 of the Indian Constitution deal with?
A. Superintendence, direction, and control of elections
B. No person to be ineligible for inclusion in electoral rolls
C. Elections to the House of the People
D. Power of Parliament with respect to elections
Answer: A. Superintendence, direction, and control of elections - Which organization is headquartered in Paris, France?
A. World Trade Organisation
B. World Meteorological Organisation
C. United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation
D. UNAIDS
Answer: C. United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation - Article 326 of the Indian Constitution is about:
A. Superintendence, direction, and control of elections
B. Elections to the House of the People and Legislative Assemblies
C. Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections
D. Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections
Answer: B. Elections to the House of the People and Legislative Assemblies - The Bosphorus Strait connects which two bodies of water?
A. The Tyrrhenian Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
B. The Black Sea and the Sea of Marmara
C. The Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea
D. The Baffin Bay and the Labrador Sea
Answer: B. The Black Sea and the Sea of Marmara - Which instrument is Braj Bhushan Kabra known for?
A. Mandolin
B. Guitar
C. Piano
D. Santoor
Answer: B. Guitar - Which day is celebrated on 4th March?
A. World Trade Organisation Day
B. World Meteorological Day
C. National Safety Day
D. World Civil Defence Day
Answer: C. National Safety Day - Which article of the Indian Constitution bars interference by courts in electoral matters?
A. Article 324
B. Article 325
C. Article 328
D. Article 329
Answer: D. Article 329 - The Palk Strait separates which two countries?
A. India and Bangladesh
B. India and Sri Lanka
C. Pakistan and India
D. Nepal and India
Answer: B. India and Sri Lanka - Who is associated with the Mohan Veena?
A. Bhajan Sopori
B. Pt Vishwa Mohan Bhat
C. Asad Ali Khan
D. Abdul Aziz Khan
Answer: B. Pt Vishwa Mohan Bhat - Which organization is based in Vienna, Austria?
A. UNESCO
B. OECD
C. UNIDO
D. ISO
Answer: C. UNIDO - Article 327 of the Indian Constitution gives power to whom?
A. Election Commission
B. President of India
C. Parliament
D. State Legislature
Answer: C. Parliament - The Hudson Strait connects which bodies of water?
A. Hudson Bay and the Labrador Sea
B. Caribbean Sea and North Atlantic
C. Great Australian Bight and the Tasman Sea
D. Bay of Bengal and Palk Bay
Answer: A. Hudson Bay and the Labrador Sea - What is the correct name for the channel between the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands?
A. Grand Channel
B. Six Degree Channel
C. Ten Degree Channel
D. Palk Strait
Answer: C. Ten Degree Channel - The headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is located in:
A. Paris, France
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Vienna, Austria
D. New York, USA
Answer: B. Geneva, Switzerland - The Bonifacio Strait separates which two islands?
A. Corsica and Sardinia
B. Jamaica and Hispaniola
C. Greenland and Canada
D. Tasmania and Australia
Answer: A. Corsica and Sardinia - Which article deals with the ineligibility of persons based on religion, race, caste, or sex for electoral rolls?
A. Article 324
B. Article 325
C. Article 326
D. Article 327
Answer: B. Article 325 - Who is associated with the Santoor?
A. Pt Vishwa Mohan Bhat
B. Bhajan Sopori
C. Asad Ali Khan
D. Abdul Latif Khan
Answer: B. Bhajan Sopori - The Davis Strait lies between which two regions?
A. Greenland and Iceland
B. Greenland and Canada
C. Iceland and Canada
D. Baffin Island and Labrador
Answer: B. Greenland and Canada - Which organization has its headquarters in Paris, France?
A. World Trade Organisation
B. International Organization for Standardization
C. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
D. World Meteorological Organisation
Answer: C. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development - Which article grants the Legislature of a State the power to make provisions with respect to elections?
A. Article 324
B. Article 328
C. Article 327
D. Article 329
Answer: B. Article 328 - The Jamaica Channel connects which two bodies of water?
A. Caribbean Sea and North Atlantic
B. Hudson Bay and Labrador Sea
C. Baffin Bay and Labrador Sea
D. Bay of Bengal and Palk Bay
Answer: A. Caribbean Sea and North Atlantic - Who is known for playing the Rudra Veena?
A. Bhajan Sopori
B. Asad Ali Khan
C. Pt Shiv Kumar Sharma
D. S Balamurali Krishna
Answer: B. Asad Ali Khan - Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for elections based on adult suffrage?
A. Article 324
B. Article 325
C. Article 326
D. Article 327
Answer: C. Article 326 - What is the significance of the Grand Channel?
A. Separates Greenland and Iceland
B. Located between Great Nicobar Islands and Sumatra Islands
C. Connects Baffin Bay and Labrador Sea
D. Separates Jamaica and Hispaniola
Answer: B. Located between Great Nicobar Islands and Sumatra Islands - Where is the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) headquartered?
A. Vienna, Austria
B. Paris, France
C. Geneva, Switzerland
D. New York, USA
Answer: C. Geneva, Switzerland - Who is associated with the Vichitra Veena?
A. Abdul Aziz Khan
B. Pt Shiv Kumar Sharma
C. Ustad Binda Khan
D. Pt Tarun Bhattacharya
Answer: A. Abdul Aziz Khan - The Bass Strait separates which two landmasses?
A. Tasmania and mainland Australia
B. Greenland and Iceland
C. Jamaica and Hispaniola
D. Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
Answer: A. Tasmania and mainland Australia - Which mineral was commonly used to create pigments for pre-historic paintings in the Upper Paleolithic Period?
A. Graphite
B. Ochre
C. Charcoal
D. Limestone
Answer: B. Ochre
Explanation: During the Upper Paleolithic Period, minerals were used to create pigments for painting on the quartzite walls of rock shelters. Ochre, mixed with lime and water, was one of the most common minerals used. - The majority of paintings at Bhimbetka rock shelters belong to which period?
A. Upper Paleolithic
B. Mesolithic
C. Chalcolithic
D. Medieval
Answer: B. Mesolithic
Explanation: Although the Bhimbetka rock shelters exhibit paintings from various periods, most of the paintings belong to the Mesolithic age. - What is the main difference between the paintings found in Ajanta and Bagh caves?
A. Ajanta paintings depict Hindu themes, while Bagh paintings depict Buddhist themes.
B. Ajanta paintings use brighter colors than Bagh paintings.
C. Bagh figures are more tightly modeled, have a stronger outline, and are more earthly and human.
D. Ajanta paintings are more secular, while Bagh paintings are more religious.
Answer: C. Bagh figures are more tightly modeled, have a stronger outline, and are more earthly and human.
Explanation: The Bagh cave paintings are noted for their tight modeling, strong outlines, and earthly, human characteristics compared to the Ajanta cave paintings. - Which period is known for paintings primarily depicting group hunting scenes?
A. Upper Paleolithic
B. Mesolithic
C. Chalcolithic
D. Early Historic
Answer: B. Mesolithic
Explanation: The Mesolithic period is characterized by paintings that are smaller in size and often depict group hunting scenes, along with grazing and riding activities. - Where were the first set of pre-historic paintings discovered in India?
A. Ajanta Caves
B. Ellora Caves
C. Bhimbetka Caves
D. Jogimara Caves
Answer: C. Bhimbetka Caves
Explanation: The first set of pre-historic paintings in India were discovered in the Bhimbetka caves in Madhya Pradesh. - The Armamalai Cave Paintings are primarily associated with which religion?
A) Hinduism
B) Buddhism
C) Jainism
D) Sikhism
Answer: C) Jainism - The central element of the Sittanavasal Cave Paintings depicts:
A) A battle scene
B) A royal procession
C) A pond with lotuses
D) A marriage ceremony
Answer: C) A pond with lotuses - The Ravan Chhaya Rock Shelter paintings are believed to date back to which century?
A) 5th century AD
B) 7th century AD
C) 9th century AD
D) 11th century AD
Answer: B) 7th century AD - The Lepakshi Temple Paintings are noted for their complete absence of which primary color?
A) Red
B) Green
C) Blue
D) Yellow
Answer: C) Blue - The Jogimara Cave Paintings in Chhattisgarh are unique for their inscriptions in which script?
A) Devanagari
B) Brahmi
C) Tamil
D) Kharosthi
Answer: B) Brahmi - The murals in the Badami Cave Temples are primarily associated with which period?
A) Gupta period
B) Chola period
C) Chalukya period
D) Vijayanagara period
Answer: C) Chalukya period - The term ‘miniature’ in Miniature Paintings is derived from which Latin word?
A) Minimus
B) Miniare
C) Minutiae
D) Minimus pictura
Answer: B) Miniare - The Pala School of Art primarily flourished during which centuries?
A) 5th-8th centuries AD
B) 8th-12th centuries AD
C) 12th-15th centuries AD
D) 15th-18th centuries AD
Answer: B) 8th-12th centuries AD - The Apabhramsa School of Art traces its origin to which regions in India?
A) Bengal and Bihar
B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
C) Gujarat and Rajasthan
D) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh
Answer: C) Gujarat and Rajasthan - The medium used for painting in the Sittanavasal Caves involved:
A) Oil paints on canvas
B) Watercolors on paper
C) Vegetable and mineral dyes on wet lime plaster
D) Acrylics on wood
Answer: C) Vegetable and mineral dyes on wet lime plaster - The coming of the Muslims in the Indian subcontinent in the 14th century led to:
a) Complete abandonment of traditional Indian art styles.
b) A cultural renaissance and synthesis with existing traditions.
c) Isolation of Indian art from other cultural influences.
d) Predominance of only Persian art forms.
Answer: b) A cultural renaissance and synthesis with existing traditions. - During the transition period, the Southern States of Vijayanagara developed a painting style that was:
a) Identical to the Mughal style.
b) Closer to the Deccan style of painting.
c) Dominant over Western Indian styles.
d) Completely different from Deccan style.
Answer: b) Closer to the Deccan style of painting. - One key feature of the transition period miniatures was:
a) Use of vibrant colors with realistic human figures.
b) Flat application of colors with human outlines demarcated in black.
c) Focus on religious themes and iconography.
d) Detailed replication of natural landscapes.
Answer: b) Flat application of colors with human outlines demarcated in black. - Miniature art during the Delhi Sultanate was notable for:
a) Completely abandoning Indian traditional elements.
b) A synthesis of Persian and Indian traditional elements.
c) The exclusive use of Persian themes and techniques.
d) Focusing solely on religious manuscripts.
Answer: b) A synthesis of Persian and Indian traditional elements. - The early Mughal painters who influenced Humayun’s court after his return from Persia were:
a) Bihzad and Daswanth.
b) Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad.
c) Basawan and Kesu.
d) Ustad Mansoor and Bihzad.
Answer: b) Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad. - Akbar’s painting studio, Tasvir Khana, was known for:
a) Only employing Persian artists.
b) Developing lifelike images and employing both Persian and Indian artists.
c) Focusing solely on religious themes.
d) Rejecting Indian influence in art.
Answer: b) Developing lifelike images and employing both Persian and Indian artists. - During Jahangir’s reign, Mughal paintings were most renowned for:
a) Depictions of court life and historical events.
b) Naturalistic paintings of flora and fauna.
c) Abstract themes and minimalism.
d) Exclusively religious subjects.
Answer: b) Naturalistic paintings of flora and fauna. - Under Shah Jahan’s reign, Mughal painting style saw:
a) A shift to more naturalistic depictions.
b) The introduction of European influences and increased use of gold and silver.
c) A complete abandonment of Mughal painting traditions.
d) A focus on religious and spiritual themes.
Answer: b) The introduction of European influences and increased use of gold and silver. - The decline in Mughal painting activities occurred during the reign of:
a) Babur.
b) Akbar.
c) Jahangir.
d) Aurangzeb.
Answer: d) Aurangzeb. - The Rajput School of painting emerged due to:
a) Complete independence from Mughal influence.
b) The arrival of artists from the Mughal atelier and local traditions.
c) Solely indigenous artistic practices with no external influence.
d) Uniformity with Deccan Sultanate styles.
Answer: b) The arrival of artists from the Mughal atelier and local traditions. - Who was the most extraordinary painter of the Mewar School of Painting in the 17th century?
A. Nihal Chand
B. Raja Ravi Varma
C. Sahibdin
D. Abanindranath Tagore
Answer: C. Sahibdin - Which literary texts were depicted by Sahibdin in his Mewar paintings?
A. Ragamala, Ramayana, and Bhagavata Purana
B. Mahabharata, Bhagavad Gita, and Vedas
C. Geeta Govinda, Rasamanjari, and Shiva Purana
D. Satsai of Bihari, Gita Govinda, and Nal Damayanti
Answer: A. Ragamala, Ramayana, and Bhagavata Purana - After Sahibdin’s death, what became a prominent theme in Mewari paintings?
A. Depictions of Mughal courts
B. Life at court in Mewar
C. Religious rituals
D. Daily life of common people
Answer: B. Life at court in Mewar - What is unique about the ‘tamasha’ paintings of the Mewar School?
A. They use vibrant colors and geometric patterns.
B. They show court ceremonial and city views in unprecedented detail.
C. They depict only religious events.
D. They focus exclusively on Mughal architecture.
Answer: B. They show court ceremonial and city views in unprecedented detail. - During whose reign did the kingdom of Mewar agree to Mughal suzerainty?
A. Akbar
B. Aurangzeb
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan
Answer: D. Shah Jahan - Cyclones are called as hurricanes in:
A. Bangladesh
B. China
C. Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean Sea
D. Japan
Answer: C. Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean Sea
Discussion: Hurricanes are specific to the North Atlantic, Gulf of Mexico, and Caribbean Sea regions, whereas similar systems in the Northwest Pacific are called typhoons, and in the South Pacific and Indian Ocean, they are called cyclones. - Which among the following forms of precipitation is different from the rest?
A. Dew
B. Fog
C. Mist
D. Hail
Answer: D. Hail
Discussion: Hail is solid precipitation in the form of balls or lumps of ice, while dew, fog, and mist are forms of liquid precipitation or condensation. - The Savannas or Orinoco Basin are termed as:
A. Pampas
B. Steppes
C. Prairies
D. Llanos
Answer: D. Llanos
Discussion: Llanos refers to the vast tropical grassland plain situated to the east of the Andes in Colombia and Venezuela. - Which among the following countries lies at the junction of three continents (Asia, Africa, and Europe)?
A. Turkey
B. Cyprus
C. Syria
D. Yemen
Answer: B. Cyprus
Discussion: Cyprus is geographically positioned at the intersection of Europe, Asia, and Africa, although it is politically and culturally closer to Europe. - Trincomalee is a port situated on the:
A. East coast, Tamil Nadu
B. East coast of Sri Lanka
C. East coast, Andhra Pradesh
D. West coast of Sri Lanka
Answer: B. East coast of Sri Lanka
Discussion: Trincomalee is a natural harbor and port city on the northeastern coast of Sri Lanka. - Borobudur in Java is famous for:
A. Lord Buddha’s tooth preserved for posterity
B. A Buddhist Temple
C. Its natural museum
D. Fisheries Research Station
Answer: B. A Buddhist Temple
Discussion: Borobudur is a 9th-century Mahayana Buddhist temple in Central Java, Indonesia, and is a UNESCO World Heritage site. - Shwedagon pagoda is located in:
A. Mahabalipuram
B. Rangoon
C. Mandalay
D. Jakarta
Answer: B. Rangoon
Discussion: The Shwedagon Pagoda is a prominent stupa located in Yangon (formerly Rangoon), Myanmar. - Which of the following countries has got its map on its flag?
A. Congo
B. Cyprus
C. Jordan
D. Libya
Answer: B. Cyprus
Discussion: The flag of Cyprus features a map of the island above two olive branches. - The Earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of ____ degrees from the perpendicular to its orbital plane.
A. 17.5°
B. 23.5°
C. 36°
D. 45°
Answer: B. 23.5°
Discussion: The Earth’s axis is tilted at approximately 23.5 degrees relative to its orbital plane around the Sun, causing the seasons. - The first oil well in the world was drilled at:
A. Assam
B. Japan
C. Pennsylvania
D. Former USSR
Answer: C. Pennsylvania
Discussion: The first commercial oil well was drilled by Edwin Drake in Titusville, Pennsylvania, in 1859. - The most valuable cash crop of Brazil is:
A. Tea
B. Coffee
C. Cardamom
D. Spices
Answer: B. Coffee
Discussion: Brazil is one of the largest producers of coffee in the world. - Pearl Harbour, the target of the Japanese attack on the American fleet, is in:
A. Japan
B. Philippines
C. Hawaiian Islands
D. Singapore
Answer: C. Hawaiian Islands
Discussion: Pearl Harbor is a lagoon harbor on the island of Oahu, Hawaii, west of Honolulu. - ‘Abadan’ is well known as:
A. A major Air Force base in Iraq
B. The main oil terminal in Iran
C. A pilgrim center for Muslims and Christians as well
D. An archaeological site throwing new light on the civilization that flourished in Arabia before the advent of Aryans into India
Answer: B. The main oil terminal in Iran
Discussion: Abadan is a city in Iran known for its oil refinery, one of the largest in the world. - ‘Roaring Forties’ are:
A. Waterfalls in Canada
B. Cyclonic winds
C. The turbulent years in world history from 1940 to 1944
D. Westerly winds blowing throughout the year over the oceans of the Southern Hemisphere between 40° and 60° South
Answer: D. Westerly winds blowing throughout the year over the oceans of the Southern Hemisphere between 40° and 60° South
Discussion: The Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere between the latitudes of 40° and 60°. - Tokyo, the capital of Japan, is situated in the island of:
A. Hokkaido
B. Honshu
C. Shikoku
D. Kyushu
Answer: B. Honshu
Discussion: Tokyo is located on the island of Honshu, the largest of Japan’s islands. - “Haneda” is the name of the international airport in:
A. Hong Kong
B. Dhaka
C. Tokyo
D. Singapore
Answer: C. Tokyo
Discussion: Haneda Airport, also known as Tokyo International Airport, is one of the primary airports serving Tokyo, Japan. - The river Mahaweli flows through:
A. India
B. Bangladesh
C. Sri Lanka
D. Pakistan
Answer: C. Sri Lanka
Discussion: The Mahaweli River is the longest river in Sri Lanka. - Which among the following countries occupies the largest chunk of the Sunderban’s Delta?
A. Bangladesh
B. Myanmar
C. India
D. Thailand
Answer: A. Bangladesh
Discussion: The Sundarbans delta spans both India and Bangladesh, but a larger portion of it lies within Bangladesh. - Japan’s total land is about _____ that of India.
A. One-sixth
B. One-fifth
C. One-ninth
D. One-tenth
Answer: C. One-ninth
Discussion: Japan’s land area is approximately one-ninth the size of India’s land area. - Which among the following statements about the earth is not true?
A. The Earth makes one complete revolution round the Sun every 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes, and 46 seconds
B. The Earth makes one complete revolution on its axis in 48 hours
C. The Earth revolves in its orbit round the Sun at a speed of 66,000 miles per hour
D. The Earth rotates on its axis at an equatorial speed of more than 1000 miles per hour
Answer: B. The Earth makes one complete revolution on its axis in 48 hours
Discussion: The Earth makes one complete rotation on its axis approximately every 24 hours, not 48 hours. - Mount Kilimanjaro is in:
A. Alaska
B. Argentina
C. Chile
D. Tanzania
Answer: D. Tanzania
Discussion: Mount Kilimanjaro is the highest mountain in Africa, located in Tanzania. - Mount Kailas is in:
A. Nepal
B. Tibet
C. Sikkim
D. Bhutan
Answer: B. Tibet
Discussion: Mount Kailas, a sacred peak in several religions, is located in Tibet. - Venus has an atmosphere made up of:
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Helium
D. Hydrogen
Answer: B. Carbon dioxide
Discussion: Venus has a dense atmosphere composed mainly of carbon dioxide, with clouds of sulfuric acid.The dwarf camels, - The dwarf camels, known as Alpacas, Vicunas, and Llamas are found in:
A. Tibet
B. Afghanistan
C. Myanmar
D. Cyprus
Answer: A. Tibet
Discussion: These animals are native to the Andean regions of South America, primarily in Peru, Bolivia, Ecuador, and northern Chile, but Tibet is also known for its similar high-altitude animals. - The difference between the diameter of the Earth at the poles and at the equator is:
A. 27 miles
B. 36 miles
C. 48 miles
D. 57 miles
Answer: A. 27 miles - Madagascar is the only home of many species of:
A. Giraffe
B. Hippopotamus
C. Lemur
D. Orangutan
Answer: C. Lemur
Discussion: Lemurs are native to Madagascar and are not found naturally anywhere else in the world. - A heavenly body which takes nearly the same time to complete one rotation and one revolution is:
A. An asteroid
B. A comet
C. Moon
D. Mars
Answer: C. Moon
Discussion: The Moon takes about the same time to complete one rotation on its axis as it does to orbit the Earth, resulting in the same side always facing Earth (synchronous rotation). - “Limnology” refers to the study of:
A. Limestone
B. Lignite or brown coal
C. Lakes and ponds
D. Laterites
Answer: C. Lakes and ponds
Discussion: Limnology is the scientific study of inland waters, specifically lakes and ponds. - A geographical mile is a measure of length equal to one-sixtieth of a degree or one minute (1′) of latitude. It varies with latitudes, but is approximately equal to:
A. 7200 feet
B. 6080 feet
C. 4500 feet
D. 6000 feet
Answer: B. 6080 feet
Discussion: A geographical mile is approximately 6080 feet. - Which of the following planets:
A. Mars
B. Saturn
C. Uranus
D. Venus
Answer: D. Venus - Who were the prominent leaders during the Moderate Phase of the Indian National Movement?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer: B. Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and others were prominent leaders during the Moderate Phase (1885-1905). - What was the primary objective of the Extremist Phase of the Indian National Movement?
A. Complete Independence (Swaraj)
B. Dominion Status within the British Empire
C. Social Reforms
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Complete Independence (Swaraj)
Explanation: The Extremist Phase (1905-1919) aimed at achieving complete independence from British rule, shifting away from the earlier goal of Dominion Status. - Which event acted as a catalyst for the rise of Extremism in the Indian National Movement?
A. Champaran Satyagraha
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Partition of Bengal
D. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
Answer: C. Partition of Bengal
Explanation: The Partition of Bengal in 1905 sparked widespread protests and catalyzed the rise of Extremism in the movement. - Who among the following leaders advocated non-violent resistance during the Gandhian Phase?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer: C. Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi introduced the philosophy of non-violence (Satyagraha) during the Gandhian Phase (1919-1947). - Which movement marked a significant turning point during the Gandhian Phase due to its call for “Do or Die”?
A. Non-Cooperation Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Individual Satyagraha
Answer: C. Quit India Movement
Explanation: The Quit India Movement (1942) marked a significant turning point in the Gandhian Phase with its call for “Do or Die.” - The Surat Split in 1907 occurred due to:
A. Differences between Moderates and Extremists
B. Partition of Bengal
C. British repression
D. Introduction of separate electorates
Answer: A. Differences between Moderates and Extremists
Explanation: The Surat Split was caused by disagreements between Moderates and Extremists within the Indian National Congress. - Which legislative act introduced limited Indian representation in 1909?
A. Government of India Act, 1935
B. Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Minto-Morley Reforms)
C. Rowlatt Act
D. Simon Commission
Answer: B. Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Minto-Morley Reforms)
Explanation: The Minto-Morley Reforms introduced limited Indian representation in the legislative councils. - The movement associated with the boycott of foreign goods and promotion of Swadeshi was:
A. Non-Cooperation Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Khilafat Movement
D. Swadeshi Movement
Answer: D. Swadeshi Movement
Explanation: The Swadeshi Movement (1905) advocated the boycott of foreign goods and promotion of Indian-made products. - The incident that led to widespread protests against the Rowlatt Act in 1919 was:
A. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
B. Champaran Satyagraha
C. Kheda Satyagraha
D. Bardoli Satyagraha
Answer: A. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
Explanation: The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919) triggered widespread protests against the Rowlatt Act. - Which phase of the Indian National Movement culminated in India gaining independence?
A. Moderate Phase
B. Extremist Phase
C. Gandhian Phase
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Gandhian Phase
Explanation: The Gandhian Phase (1919-1947) culminated in India gaining independence from British rule in 1947. - Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress (INC)?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C) Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee
D) Surendranath Banerjee
Answer: C) Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee - Which leader popularized the concept of “Drain of Wealth” from India to Britain?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer: A) Dadabhai Naoroji - What was the primary objective of the Indian National Congress during the Moderate Phase?
A) Complete Independence (Swaraj)
B) Economic Self-sufficiency
C) Dominion Status within the British Empire
D) Religious Reforms
Answer: C) Dominion Status within the British Empire - Who among the following leaders advocated for the use of constitutional methods and petitions to achieve political reforms?
A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B) Bipin Chandra Pal
C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale - The “Ilbert Bill” controversy was related to:
A) Educational reforms
B) Racial discrimination in judiciary
C) Land revenue policies
D) Indigo cultivation
Answer: B) Racial discrimination in judiciary - Who was the British sympathizer and supporter of the Indian National Congress?
A) Lord Curzon
B) Lord Mountbatten
C) William Wedderburn
D) Lord Macaulay
Answer: C) William Wedderburn - Which session of the Indian National Congress saw the introduction of the “Drain Theory” by Dadabhai Naoroji?
A) Bombay, 1885
B) Calcutta, 1906
C) Lahore, 1929
D) Madras, 1887
Answer: D) Madras, 1887 - Who among the following was known for advocating “Sarvajanikarana” or public participation in government?
A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C) Bipin Chandra Pal
D) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer: A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale - The main focus of the Moderates’ efforts was on:
A) Cultural revival
B) Economic policies
C) Civil rights and political reforms
D) Armed resistance
Answer: C) Civil rights and political reforms - The Moderates believed in achieving political reforms through:
A) Non-cooperation and civil disobedience
B) Armed revolution
C) Petitions and negotiations
D) Religious reforms
Answer: C) Petitions and negotiations - Who founded the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, an organization promoting social and economic reforms?
A) Mahadev Govind Ranade
B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C) Bipin Chandra Pal
D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer: A) Mahadev Govind Ranade - Which British policy during the Moderate Phase sparked widespread resentment among Indians due to its oppressive nature?
A) Arms Act
B) Vernacular Press Act
C) Pitt’s India Act
D) Rowlatt Act
Answer: B) Vernacular Press Act - Who among the following was the President of the Indian National Congress in 1901?
A) Surendranath Banerjee
B) Dadabhai Naoroji
C) Dinshaw Wacha
D) George Yule
Answer: C) Dinshaw Wacha - Which session of the Indian National Congress saw the emergence of a constructive dialogue between Indian leaders and the British government?
A) Calcutta, 1906
B) Madras, 1887
C) Bombay, 1885
D) Lahore, 1929
Answer: B) Madras, 1887 - The founding of the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1885 aimed primarily at:
A) Launching armed resistance
B) Gaining political rights for Indians
C) Promoting religious reforms
D) Implementing economic policies
Answer: B) Gaining political rights for Indians - Who famously declared, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”?
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C) Bipin Chandra Pal
D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak - Which event marked the beginning of the Extremist Phase of the Indian National Movement?
A) Partition of Bengal
B) Morley-Minto Reforms
C) Lucknow Pact
D) Surat Split
Answer: A) Partition of Bengal - the Extremists advocated for:
A) Dominion Status
B) Religious reforms
C) Complete self-government (Swaraj)
D) Economic reforms
Answer: C) Complete self-government (Swaraj) - The Swadeshi Movement aimed at:
A) Promoting communal harmony
B) Boycotting foreign goods
C) Supporting British industries
D) Implementing agrarian reforms
Answer: B) Boycotting foreign goods - Who led the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Subhas Chandra Bose
C) Mahatma Gandhi
D) Bhagat Singh
Answer: C) Mahatma Gandhi - Complete the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?
A. 28
B. 30
C. 36
D. 42
Solution:
The series increases by adding consecutive even numbers: +4, +6, +8, +10. Next term:
20+10=30.
Correct Answer: B. 30 - Find the missing term: A, D, G, J, ?
A. L
B. M
C. N
D. O
Solution:
The series adds 3 to the position of the letters (1, 4, 7, 10, ?). Next term: 13th letter (M).
Correct Answer: B. M - Bread is to Bakery as Brick is to ________.
A. Mason
B. Kiln
C. Cement
D. Building
Solution:
Bread is made in a bakery; similarly, bricks are made in a kiln.
Correct Answer: B. Kiln - Odometer is to Distance as Compass is to ________.A. Speed
B. Direction
C. Energy
D. Altitude
Solution:
Odometer measures distance; compass shows direction.
Correct Answer: B. Direction - Which one does not belong to the group? Iron, Copper, Zinc, OxygenA. Iron
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Oxygen
Solution:
Iron, Copper, and Zinc are metals; Oxygen is a non-metal.
Correct Answer: D. Oxygen - Find the odd one out: Table, Chair, Cupboard, ComputerA. Table
B. Chair
C. Cupboard
D. Computer
Solution:
Table, Chair, and Cupboard are furniture; Computer is an electronic device.
Correct Answer: D. Computer - A is the mother of B. C is the sister of A. D is the son of C. What is D to B?A. Brother
B. Cousin
C. Uncle
D. Nephew
Solution:
D is B’s cousin.
Correct Answer: B. Cousin - Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How is the man related to the woman?A. Brother
B. Uncle
C. Nephew
D. Cousin
Solution:
“Mother’s mother’s only son” is her uncle.
Correct Answer: B. Uncle - A man walks 10 km towards the north. From there, he walks 6 km towards the south. Then he walks 3 km towards the east. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
A. 5 km East
B. 5 km West
C. 4 km North-East
D. 7 km North
Solution:
Net displacement: 4 km north and 3 km east.
Distance: Sq root(4^2+3^2)=16+9=5 km.
Correct Answer: A. 5 km East - Rohan walks 20 meters North. He turns right and walks 6 meters. Then he turns right and walks 35 meters. Then he turns left and walks 6 meters. Finally, he turns left and walks 15 meters. How far is he from the starting point?
A. 20 meters
B. 13 meters.
C. 30 meters
D. 35 meters
Solution:
He ends up 12 meters East and 5 meters South from the starting point. Distance:
sqrt(a2^2+5^2)=13 meters.
Correct Answer: B. 13 meters. - If TABLE is coded as GZYOV, how is CHAIR coded?
A. XSZRI
B. SXZQI
C. SXZSH
D. SXZRJ
Solution:
Reverse the alphabet (A=Z, B=Y, etc.).
TABLE (T=G, A=Z, B=Y, L=O, E=V). Similarly, CHAIR (C=X, H=S, A=Z, I=R, R=I).
Correct Answer: A. XSZRI - If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is ENEMY coded?
A. GQZOC
B. GMZOC
C. GQZNC
D. GQYOC
Solution:
Each letter is shifted two places forward.
FRIEND (F=H, R=U, I=M, E=J, N=T, D=K). Similarly, ENEMY (E=G, N=Q, E=Z, M=O, Y=C).
Correct Answer: A. GQZOC - Which of the following Venn diagrams best illustrates the relationship among Earth, Planet, and Sun?
Solution:
Earth is a part of the Planet, and Planets are part of the Solar System around the Sun.
Correct Answer: B. Three circles with Earth inside Planet and Planet inside Sun - Which Venn diagram best illustrates the relationship among Students, Boys, and Girls?Solution:
Boys and Girls are subsets of Students.
Correct Answer: A. Two intersecting circles within a larger circle - Statements: All dogs are cats. All cats are animals.
Conclusions:
All dogs are animals.
Some animals are cats.
A. Only 1 follows
B. Only 2 follows
C. Both 1 and 2 follow
D. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
Solution:
Both conclusions follow logically.
Correct Answer: C. Both 1 and 2 follow - Statements: Some apples are fruits. No fruit is a vegetable.
Conclusions:
Some apples are vegetables.
No apple is a vegetable.
A. Only 1 follows
B. Only 2 follows
C. Both 1 and 2 follow
D. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
Solution:
No apple is a vegetable.
Correct Answer: B. Only 2 follows - Question: How many children are there in the class?
Statements:
There are 24 chairs in the class.
There are 30 children in the class.
A. Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
B. Statement 2 alone is sufficient.
C. Both statements together are sufficient.
D. Both statements together are not sufficient.
Solution: Statement 2 alone is sufficient. Correct Answer: B. Statement 2 alone is sufficient - Question: Is John older than Mike?
Statements:
John is older than Sara.
Sara is older than Mike.
A. Statement 1 alone is sufficient.
B. Statement 2 alone is sufficient.
C. Both statements together are sufficient.
D. Both statements together are not sufficient.
Solution:
Both statements together are sufficient.
Correct Answer: C. Both statements together are sufficient - Assertion (A): Water boils at 100°C.
Reason (R): Water is a liquid.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Solution:
Both are true, but R does not explain A.
Correct Answer: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A - Assertion (A): Earth rotates on its axis.
Reason (R): Earth is a planet.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Solution:
Both are true, but R does not explain A.
Correct Answer: B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A - Three friends, A, B, and C, are sitting in a row. B is to the right of A, and C is to the right of B. Who is sitting in the middle?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. Cannot be determined
Solution:
The order is A, B, C. So, B is in the middle.
Correct Answer: B. B - In a certain code, ‘123’ means ‘sweet and cold’, ‘147’ means ‘drink is sweet’, and ‘325’ means ‘hot and cold’. Which digit means ‘hot’?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Solution:
‘325’ and ‘123’ have ‘2’ in common which means ‘cold’. ‘325’ means ‘hot and cold’, so ‘5’ must mean ‘hot’.
Correct Answer: D. 5 - At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the hands of the clock be at right angles?
A. 4:20
B. 4:30
C. 4:40
D. 4:45
Solution:
At 4:32, the hands of the clock will be at right angles.
Correct Answer: B. 4:32 - How many times in a day, are the hands of a clock in a straight line but opposite in direction?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 48
Solution:
Hands are opposite 22 times in 24 hours.
Correct Answer: B. 22 - If 15th August 2021 is Sunday, what was the day on 15th August 2020?
A. Friday
B. Saturday
C. Sunday
D. Monday
Solution:
2020 was a leap year, so 15th August 2020 was Saturday.
Correct Answer: B. Saturday - If today is Monday, what day of the week will it be 50 days from now?
A. Wednesday
B. Thursday
C. Friday
D. Saturday
Solution:
50÷7=7 weeks and 1 day. So, 50 days from Monday is Tuesday.
Correct Answer: A. Tuesday - Find the missing number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?A. 95
B. 101
C. 99
D. 103
Solution:
Series doubles and subtracts 1:
(5×2+1,11×2+1,23×2+1).
Next term:47×2+1=95.
Correct Answer: A. 95 - What is the missing number in the sequence: 2, 4, 12, 48, ?A. 120
B. 192
C. 240
D. 336
Solution:
Each term is multiplied by increasing natural numbers:
2×2=4,4×3=12,12×4=48,48×5=240.
Correct Answer: C. 240 - Which letter is midway between the 4th letter from the left and the 18th letter from the right in the alphabet?
A. K
B. L
C. M
D. N
Solution:
The 4th letter from the left is D, the 18th letter from the right is I. Midway letter: (D, E, F, G, H, I) → G.
Correct Answer: B. G - If in a code language, ‘CODING’ is written as ‘XLMROX’, how would ‘DECODER’ be written in that code?
A. WKVDVKW
B. WLVEXKW
C. WLVEVKW
D. WLVFUKW
Solution:
Each letter is replaced by the 23rd letter from it in the alphabet.
DECODER (D=W, E=X, C=X, O=L, D=W, E=X, R=K). The code: WXLLXWK.
Correct Answer: A. WKVDVKW - Where was the first material evidence of glass beads found in India?
A) Harappan Civilisation
B) Painted Grey Ware culture
C) Vedic period
D) Mughal era
Answer: B) Painted Grey Ware culture - Which ancient Indian text refers to glass as ‘kanch’ or ‘kaca’?
A) Mahabharata
B) Satapatha Brahmana
C) Vyasayogacharita
D) Rigveda
Answer: B) Satapatha Brahmana - Which region of India is famous for producing ‘Churi ka jodas’?
A) Hyderabad
B) Firozabad
C) Saharanpur
D) Patna
Answer: A) Hyderabad - The Mughals utilized glassware primarily for:
A) Perfume boxes
B) Spectacles
C) Decorative chandeliers
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - Which state in India is renowned for its Tie and Dye technique known as Bandhani or Bandhej?
A) Rajasthan
B) Gujarat
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: A) Rajasthan - What is Laharia known for in the context of Tie and Dye?
A) Wave-like patterns
B) Intricate knots
C) Use of natural dyes
D) Block printing technique
Answer: A) Wave-like patterns - Which Indian state is famous for its Ikat weaving technique?
A) Telangana
B) Odisha
C) Gujarat
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: A) Telangana - The craft of Kalamkari involves:
A) Batik Art
B) Block printing
C) Hand painting with vegetable dyes
D) Tie and Dye
Answer: C) Hand painting with vegetable dyes - Where is Dabu printing, an ancient mud resist hand block printing technique, predominantly practiced?
A) Rajasthan
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Bihar
Answer: A) Rajasthan - Which Indian state is known for its Kasuti embroidery?
A) Karnataka
B) Punjab
C) Odisha
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: A) Karnataka - Which state is famous for Pata Weaving?
A. Chhattisgarh
B. Gujarat
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: A. Chhattisgarh - What is Mashru Weaving a blend of?
A. Silk and Wool
B. Cotton and Jute
C. Silk and Cotton
D. Linen and Polyester
Answer: C. Silk and Cotton - In which states is Bohra Cap weaving traditionally practiced?
A. Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan and Punjab
C. Maharashtra and Goa
D. Karnataka and Kerala
Answer: A. Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh - What is Patku?
A. Tie-dyed textile
B. Embroidered fabric
C. Block printed cloth
D. Batik patterned material
Answer: A. Tie-dyed textile - Which Indian state is famous for Pattu Weaving?
A. Rajasthan
B. Gujarat
C. Manipur
D. Karnataka
Answer: A. Rajasthan - What is the traditional fabric used in Wangkhei Phee weaving?
A. Silk
B. Cotton
C. Wool
D. Linen
Answer: B. Cotton - Which handicraft involves Shaphee Lanphee weaving?
A. Carpets
B. Shawls
C. Rugs
D. Blankets
Answer: B. Shawls - Navalgund Durrie is associated with which Indian state?
A. Punjab
B. Rajasthan
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C. Karnataka - Which region is renowned for Bidri work?
A. Rajasthan
B. Karnataka
C. Odisha
D. Kerala
Answer: B. Karnataka - Where is Tarkashi work traditionally practiced?
A. Rajasthan
B. Kerala
C. Odisha
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: A. Rajasthan - Which state is famous for Nirmal painting, known for its intricate designs on wood?
A. Telangana
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan
Answer: A. Telangana - Kashtakari wood carving is prominently found in which Indian state?
A. Goa
B. Kerala
C. Maharashtra
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: A. Goa - Which state is renowned for Sandalwood carving used primarily for religious idols?
A. Karnataka
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Kerala
Answer: A. Karnataka - Which craft from Jammu and Kashmir uses Islamic tessellating patterns?
A. Khatamband Woodcraft
B. Sankheda Furniture
C. Walnut Wood Carving
D. Likhai (Wood Carving)
Answer: A. Khatamband Woodcraft - Sikki Grass Craft, known for making ornaments and containers, is from which state?
A. Bihar
B. Assam
C. Odisha
D. West Bengal
Answer: A. Bihar - Khunda, used in the Bhangra dance, is made from which material?
A. Bamboo
B. Cane
C. Palm Leaves
D. Wood
Answer: A. Bamboo - Which state is known for the Kawad mobile shrine, a portable Hindu shrine with folding doors?
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bihar
Answer: A. Rajasthan - Choktse tables, adorned with Buddhist symbols, are a traditional craft of which state?
A. Sikkim
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Mizoram
D. Nagaland
Answer: A. Sikkim - Which craft from Gujarat involves intricate designs and floral paintings on wooden furniture?
A. Sankheda Furniture
B. Pethapur Printing Blocks
C. Thewa Art Work
D. Rambaans Natural Fiber Craft
Answer: A. Sankheda Furniture - Which state is famous for Papier Mache, a craft made of paper pulp and rice flour?
– A. Jammu and Kashmir
– B. Bihar
– C. West Bengal
– D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: A. Jammu and Kashmi - ଅଶୁଦ୍ଧି ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ?
a. ଶିରୋନାମ
b. ଅଭିନେତୃଗଣ
c. ନିନ୍ଦକ
d. ମାର୍ଗଶୀର
Ans: d. ମାର୍ଗଶୀର - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ?
a. ଗ୍ରହିତା
b. ସର୍ଜନା
c. ଉତ୍ତ୍ୟକ୍ତ
d. ସବୁଗୁଡ଼ିକ
Ans: d. ସବୁଗୁଡ଼ିକ - ଅଶୁଦ୍ଧି ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ?
a. ମନୀଷିଗଣ
b. ମନ୍ତ୍ରୀମଣ୍ଡଳ
c. ମନ୍ତ୍ରିମଣ୍ଡଳ
d. କୌଣସି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: b. ମନ୍ତ୍ରୀମଣ୍ଡଳ - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ?
a. ମାନାସ୍ପଦ
b. ସାର୍ବଜନୀନ
c. ଅନାଥା
d. ଉପରକ୍ତ ସବୁ
Ans: d. ଉପରକ୍ତ ସବୁ - ଶୁଦ୍ଧ ଶବ୍ଦଟିକୁ ବାଛ?
a. ବୈର
b. ଯାଚିକା
c. ମୃଗୀ
d. ଉପରକ୍ତ ସବୁ
Ans: d. ଉପରକ୍ତ ସବୁ - ସୁଧା – ଅର୍ଥବୋଧକ ଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ହେଁ
b. ଅମୃତ
c. ବି
d. ପବିତ୍ର
Ans: b. ଅମୃତ - ସୁକର – ଅର୍ଥବୋଧକ ଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଶୁକ୍ରଗ୍ରହ
b. ବରାହ
c. ଶୁକର
d. ସୁସାଧ୍ୟ
Ans: d. ସୁସାଧ୍ୟ - ନିରପେକ୍ଷ – ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର?
a. ଉପେକ୍ଷ
b. ସପେକ୍ଷ
c. ସାପେକ୍ଷ
d. କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: c. ସାପେକ୍ଷ - ବାରି – କାହାର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଜଳ
b. ଝିଅ
c. ନାରୀ
d. ପତାକା
Ans: a. ଜଳ - ସରିତ – କାହାର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଦେବରାଜ
b. ନଦୀ
c. ପଦ୍ମ
d. ତରୁ
Ans: b. ନଦୀ - କେଉଁଟି “କନ୍ଦର୍ପ” ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଅନଙ୍ଗ
b. ପଞ୍ଚଶର
c. କୁସୁମେଷୁ
d. ସବୁଗୁଡିକ ଠିକ୍
Ans: d. ସବୁଗୁଡିକ ଠିକ୍ - ପଙ୍କଜ – କାହାର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ପଦ୍ମ
b. ପବନ
c. ଜହ୍ନ
d. ଚନ୍ଦ୍ର
Ans: a. ପଦ୍ମ - କେଉଁଟି “ପବନ” ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ ନୁହେଁ?
a. ପବମାନ
b. ବାତ
c. ବାୟୁ
d. କଞ୍ଜ
Ans: d. କଞ୍ଜ - କେଉଁଟି “ନିକଟ” ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଉପକଣ୍ଠ
b. ଅମୃତାନ୍ଦ
c. ଅଦିତି ନନ୍ଦନ
d. ନିମ୍ନଗା
Ans: a. ଉପକଣ୍ଠ - କେଉଁଟି “ଘର” ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଆଗାର
b. ନିକାଜ୍ୟ
c. ଆଳୟ
d. ସବୁଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଠିକ୍
Ans: d. ସବୁଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଠିକ୍ - ମହୀରୁହ – କାହାର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ତରୁ
b. ଧନ
c. ଶିଳା
d. ଜିଭ
Ans: a. ତରୁ - କେଉଁଟି “ଅସୁର” ର ପ୍ରତିଶବ୍ଦ?
a. ଦନୁଜ
b. ଦିତିସୁତ
c. ଦାନବ
d. ସବୁଗୁଡିକ ଠିକ୍
Ans: d. ସବୁଗୁଡିକ ଠିକ୍ - ହରି ଗ୍ରାମକୁ ଯାଇଅଛି | କ୍ରିୟାଟିର କାଳ ନିରୂପଣ କର?
a. ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ ସାମୀପ୍ୟ ଭୂତକାଳ
b. ଅନଦ୍ୟତନ ଭୂତ
c. ଅସମ୍ପନ୍ନ ଭୂତ
d. ପ୍ରାଗ୍ ଭୂତ
Ans: a. ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ ସାମୀପ୍ୟ ଭୂତକାଳ - ରବିବାର ଦିନ କଟକରେ ସଭା ହୋଇଥିବା | କ୍ରିୟାଟିର କାଳ ନିରୂପଣ କର?
a. ଆନୁମାନିକ ଭୂତ
b. ନିତ୍ୟ ପ୍ରବୃତ୍ତ ଭୂତ
c. ପ୍ରାଗ୍ ଭୂତ
d. ଅସମ୍ପନ୍ନ ଭୂତ
Ans: a. ଆନୁମାନିକ ଭୂତ - ଭାତ ଫୁଟୁଥିଲା | କ୍ରିୟାଟିର କାଳ ନିରୂପଣ କର?
a. ଅନଦ୍ୟତନ ଭୂତ
b. ଆନୁମାନିକ ଭୂତ
c. ଅଦ୍ୟତନ ଭୂତ
d. କେଉଁଟି ବି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: d. କେଉଁଟି ବି ନୁହେଁ - ତୁମେ କୁଆଡେ ଯାଇଥିଲେ | କ୍ରିୟାଟିତ ପୁରୁଷ ଓ ବଚନ ନିର୍ଣ୍ଣୟ କର?
a. ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ
b. ତୃତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ
c. ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ବହୁବଚନ
d. ପ୍ରଥମ ପୁରୁଷ ବହୁବଚନ
Ans: a. ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ - ମୁଁ ଖାଉଅଛି | କ୍ରିୟାଟିର ପୁରୁଷ ଓ ବଚନ ନିଶ୍ଚୟ କର?
a. ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ
b. ତୃତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ
c. ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ ପୁରୁଷ ବହୁବଚନ
d. ପ୍ରଥମ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ
Ans: d. ପ୍ରଥମ ପୁରୁଷ ଏକବଚନ - ଯେଉଁ କ୍ରିୟା ଦ୍ଵାରା ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ ଘଟଣାର ସମ୍ଭାବନା ସୂଚିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ, ସେ କ୍ରିୟାର ଜାଳକୁ __ କୁହାଯାଏ?
a. ପ୍ରାଗ୍ ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ
b. ନିତ୍ୟ ପ୍ରବୃତ୍ତ ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ
c. ସମ୍ଭାବ୍ୟ ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ
d. ଅସମ୍ପନ୍ନ ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ
Ans: c. ସମ୍ଭାବ୍ୟ ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ - କର୍ତ୍ତାର ଯେଉଁ ପୁରୁଷ ଓ ବଚନ ଥାଏ | କ୍ରିୟାର ମଧ୍ୟ ସେହି ପୁରୁଷ ଓ ବଚନ ହୁଏ | ବାକ୍ୟଟି –
a. ଭଲ ଅଛି
b. ସତ୍ୟ ଅଟେ
c. କିଛି ପରିମାଣରେ ଠିକ୍ ଅଛି
d. କହି ହେବ ନାହିଁ
Ans: b. ସତ୍ୟ ଅଟେ - କରୁ – କ୍ରିୟାଟିର କାଳ ନିରୂପଣ କର?
a. ବିଶୁଦ୍ଧ ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ
b. ସମ୍ଭାବ୍ୟ ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ
c. ନିତ୍ୟପ୍ରବୃତ୍ତ ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ
d. କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: c. ନିତ୍ୟପ୍ରବୃତ୍ତ ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ - ମଧୁ ଖାଇଲା, ତା ଆଗରୁ ହରି ଖାଇଲା | କ୍ରିୟାଟିର କାଳ ନିରୂପଣ କର?
a. ଅଦ୍ୟତନ ଭୂତ
b. ଅନଦ୍ୟ ଭୂତ
c. ବର୍ତ୍ତମାନ ସାମିପ୍ୟ କୃତ
d. ପ୍ରାଗ୍ ଭୂତ
Ans: d. ପ୍ରାଗ୍ ଭୂତ - ଆଙ୍କିବା – କେଉଁ କ୍ରିୟା?
a. ସକର୍ମକ
b. ଅକର୍ମକ
c. ଅସମାପିକା
d. କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: d. କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ - ଅପଚୟ — ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର?
a. ସପଚୟ
b. ପଚୟ
c. ନିପଚୟ
d. ଉପଚୟ
Ans: d. ଉପଚୟ
- ଆଚାର – ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର?
a. ବିଚାର
b. ଉପଚୟ
c. ଅନାଚାର
d. ସପଚାର
Ans: c. ଅନାଚାର
- ଆବଶ୍ୟକ – ବିପରୀତ ଶବ୍ଦ ଚିହ୍ନଟ କର?
a. ନାବଶ୍ୟକ
b. ଅତ୍ୟାବଶ୍ୟକ
c. ଅନାବଶ୍ୟକ
d. କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Ans: c. ଅନାବଶ୍ୟକ - Kalaripayattu originated in which Indian state?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: c) Kerala - What does the term ‘Kalari’ refer to in the context of Kalaripayattu?
a) A type of weapon
b) A training hall
c) A form of meditation
d) A fighting technique
Answer: b) A training hall - Which aspect is considered the most important in Kalaripayattu?
a) Drumming
b) Song
c) Footwork
d) Meditation
Answer: c) Footwork - What is ‘Uzhichil’ in Kalaripayattu?
a) A type of combat
b) A weapon
c) A ritual
d) A massage with Gingli oil
Answer: d) A massage with Gingli oil - What does ‘Verumkai’ refer to in Kalaripayattu?
a) Sword fight
b) Bare-handed fight
c) Body exercises
d) Use of metal weapons
Answer: b) Bare-handed fight - Silambam is a martial art form from which Indian state?
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: c) Tamil Nadu - Which literature mentions the trade of Silambam staves?
a) Ramayana
b) Silappadikaram
c) Mahabharata
d) Thirukkural
Answer: b) Silappadikaram - What is the primary weapon used in Silambam?
a) Sword
b) Spear
c) Bamboo stave
d) Shield
Answer: c) Bamboo stave - Thang-ta is an armed martial art form created by which people?
a) Meitei
b) Tamil
c) Malayali
d) Kannadiga
Answer: a) Meitei - What does ‘Thang’ and ‘Ta’ refer to in Thang-ta?
a) Shield and spear
b) Sword and spear
c) Sword and shield
d) Spear and bow
Answer: b) Sword and spear - What is the primary weapon used in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Sword and Shield
B) Stick encased in soft leather and Leather Shield
C) Bow and Arrow
D) Spear and Shield
Answer: B) Stick encased in soft leather and Leather Shield - What is the diameter of the contest circle in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 5 meters
B) 6 meters
C) 7 meters
D) 8 meters
Answer: C) 7 meters - How far apart are the two lines within the contest circle of Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 1 meter
B) 2 meters
C) 3 meters
D) 4 meters
Answer: B) 2 meters - What is the length range of the ‘Cheibi’ stick used in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 1 to 1.5 feet
B) 1.5 to 2 feet
C) 2 to 2.5 feet
D) 2.5 to 3 feet
Answer: C) 2 to 2.5 feet - What is the diameter of the shield used in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 0.5 meters
B) 1 meter
C) 1.5 meters
D) 2 meters
Answer: B) 1 meter - On what basis is victory achieved in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) The number of rounds won
B) The points earned during a duel
C) The duration of the fight
D) The number of knockouts
Answer: B) The points earned during a duel - What is the main criteria for awarding points in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Number of hits
B) Length of the duel
C) Skills and brute force
D) Defensive maneuvers
Answer: C) Skills and brute force - Which state in India is the origin of Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Bihar
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Manipur
D) Punjab
Answer: C) Manipur - What does the term ‘Cheibi’ refer to in the context of Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Shield
B) Stick
C) Sword
D) Circle
Answer: B) Stick - Which of the following martial arts involves archery skills?
A) Cheibi Gad-ga
B) Pari-khanda
C) Thoda
D) Gatka
Answer: C) Thoda - What is the origin state of Pari-khanda?
A) Bihar
B) Maharashtra
C) Punjab
D) Mizoram
Answer: A) Bihar - Which festival is Thoda associated with?
A) Holi
B) Diwali
C) Baisakhi
D) Navratri
Answer: C) Baisakhi - What do the two teams in Thoda symbolize?
A) Pandavas and Kauravas
B) Rama and Ravana
C) Krishna and Kansa
D) Arjuna and Karna
Answer: A) Pandavas and Kauravas - Which martial art is performed by the Sikhs of Punjab?
A) Cheibi Gad-ga
B) Gatka
C) Lathi
D) Musti Yuddha
Answer: B) Gatka - What are the unique weapons used in Mardani Khel?
A) Sword and Shield
B) Stick and Leather Shield
C) Patta and Vita
D) Bow and Arrow
Answer: C) Patta and Vita - Where is Inbuan Wrestling predominantly practiced?
A) Manipur
B) Punjab
C) Maharashtra
D) Mizoram
Answer: D) Mizoram - Which unarmed Dravidian martial art is mainly practiced in Tamil Nadu?
A) Kuttu Varisai
B) Lathi
C) Thoda
D) Mardani Khel
Answer: A) Kuttu Varisai - Which martial art involves techniques such as grappling, striking, and locking?
A) Cheibi Gad-ga
B) Thoda
C) Kuttu Varisai
D) Gatka
Answer: C) Kuttu Varisai - In Musti Yuddha, what does the category ‘Hanumanti’ focus on?
A) Technical superiority
B) Sheer strength
C) Limb and joint breaking
D) Forcing the opponent into submission
Answer: A) Technical superiority - Which martial art was once popular in Varanasi and resembles boxing?
A) Gatka
B) Musti Yuddha
C) Pari-khanda
D) Lathi
Answer: B) Musti Yuddha - With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?
(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India.
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in Southern part of Coromandel area.
(c) It is an ancient form of dance, drama and a living tradition in the Northern part of Malabar.
(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India.
Answer (d) Kalaripayattu is an ancient martial art practiced predominantly in Kerala.