The Weekly Practice Quiz for OSSSC RI, ARI, and Amin is an essential tool for aspirants preparing for the Odisha Sub-ordinate Staff Selection Commission exams. These quizzes help candidates regularly assess their knowledge and understanding of the syllabus, covering topics like general awareness, mathematics, reasoning, and English. By consistently participating in these practice sessions, candidates can identify their strengths and weaknesses, improve their time management skills, and become familiar with the exam pattern. Regular practice through these quizzes enhances confidence and competence, paving the way for better performance in the actual examination.
Weekly Practice Quiz For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-9 PDF Download
Weekly Practice Quiz For For OSSSC RI,ARI, Amin: June-9
- How much investment has the Odisha government approved for green energy projects?
(a) Rs 102.22 crore
(b) Rs 903.41 crore
(c) Rs 500 crore
(d) Rs 1,200 crore
Ans.: (b) Rs 903.41 crore - What is the targeted capacity for the green energy projects approved by the Odisha government?
(a) 50 MW
(b) 75 MW
(c) 102.22 MW
(d) 150 MW
Ans.: (c) 102.22 MW - Which of the following sectors will benefit from Odisha’s Rs 903.41 crore green energy projects?
(a) Traditional energy
(b) Fossil fuels
(c) Renewable energy
(d) Nuclear energy
Ans.: (c) Renewable energy - Which beach in Odisha is famous for its endangered Olive Ridley turtles?
(a) Puri Beach
(b) Gahirmatha Beach
(c) Gopalpur Beach
(d) Konark Beach
Ans. (b) Gahirmatha Beach - Which district in Odisha is known for its ancient rock-cut caves?
(a) Kandhamal
(b) Kalahandi
(c) Rayagada
(d) Dhenkanal
Ans. (b) Kalahandi - Which Hindu deity is the Puri Jagannath Temple primarily dedicated to?
(a) Shiva
(b) Vishnu
(c) Brahma
(d) Ganesha
Ans. (b) Vishnu - The Puri Jagannath Temple is part of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites in Indi(a) Which of the following is NOT one of the Char Dham?
(a) Badrinath
(b) Dwarka
(c) Varanasi
(d) Rameswaram
Ans. (c) Varanasi - The annual Ratha Yatra at the Puri Jagannath Temple involves the deities being taken to which temple?
(a) Lingaraj Temple
(b) Konark Sun Temple
(c) Shri Gundicha Temple
(d) Maa Tarini Temple
Ans. (c) Shri Gundicha Temple - The practice of replacing the old idols with new ones in the Puri Jagannath Temple is known as what?
(a) Ratha Yatra
(b) Nabakalebara
(c) Prana Pratishtha
(d) Murtikaran
Ans. (b) Nabakalebara - Which of the following is the largest freshwater lake in Odisha?
(a) Chilika Lake
(b) Ansupa Lake
(c) Hirakud Reservoir
(d) Balimela Reservoir
Ans. (b) Ansupa Lake - The city in Odisha famous for its appliqué work is:
(a) Baripada
(b) Bargarh
(c) Puri
(d) Raghurajpur
Ans. (c) Puri - Which dance form, dedicated to Lord Krishna, originated in Odisha?
(a) Ranappa
(b) Kathak
(c) Bharatanatyam
(d) Manipuri
Ans. (a) Ranappa - Which government department initially established the Academy of Tribal Dialects and Culture (ATDC)?
(a) Education Department
(b) Tourism Department
(c) ST and SC Development Department
(d) Health Department
Ans.: (c) ST and SC Development Department - Which national highway connects Kolkata with Chennai, passing through Odisha?
(a) NH-6
(b) NH-16
(c) NH-26
(d) NH-55
Ans. (b) NH-16 - The largest tribal group in Odisha is:
(a) Santhal
(b) Gond
(c) Kondh
(d) Bhil
Ans. (c) Kondh - Which district in Odisha is renowned for its silver filigree work?
(a) Nuapada
(b) Cuttack
(c) Sonepur
(d) Puri
Ans. (b) Cuttack - The “Black Pagoda,” a UNESCO World Heritage Site, refers to which temple in Odisha?
(a) Lingaraja Temple
(b) Jagannath Temple
(c) Mukteshvara Temple
(d) Konark Sun Temple
Ans. (d) Konark Sun Temple - Who was known as the “Lion of Odisha” for his role in India’s independence movement?
(a) Biju Patnaik
(b) Veer Surendra Sai
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Harekrushna Mahatab
Ans. (d) Harekrushna Mahatab - Which district in Odisha is famous for its natural hot water spring used for therapeutic purposes?
(a) Mayurbhanj
(b) Angul
(c) Jharsuguda
(d) Atri, Orissa
Ans. (d) Atri, Orissa - Which national park is located in Odisha?
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park
(c) Kanha National Park
(d) Sundarbans National Park
Ans. (a) Bhitarkanika National Park - Who is the first woman Chief Minister of Odisha?
(a) Nandini Satpathy
(b) Pratibha Patil
(c) Mamata Banerjee
(d) Mayawati
Ans. (a) Nandini Satpathy - Which temple in Odisha is famous for its annual Rath Yatra?
(a) Lingaraja Temple
(b) Konark Sun Temple
(c) Jagannath Temple
(d) Mukteshvara Temple
Ans. (c) Jagannath Temple - Which district of Odisha is known for its rich tribal culture?
(a) Koraput
(b) Jajpur
(c) Bhadrak
(d) Angul
Ans. (a) Koraput - Which word in English is derived from Jagannath, referring to a large and powerful force or institution?
(a) Juggernaut
(b) Jigsaw
(c) Jargon
(d) Jubilee
Ans. (a) Juggernaut - Who is believed to have founded the Govardhana Matha in Puri around 810 CE?
(a) Adi Shankaracharya
(b) Ramanujacharya
(c) Madhvacharya
(d) Vallabhacharya
Ans. (a) Adi Shankaracharya - Which of the following dynasties was responsible for rebuilding the Jagannath Temple in the 12th century CE?
(a) Maurya Dynasty
(b) Gupta Dynasty
(c) Ganga Dynasty
(d) Maratha Dynasty
Ans. (c) Ganga Dynasty - The temple of Jagannath is surrounded by two compound walls. The outer wall is known as what?
(a) Kurma Pracira
(b) Meghanada Pracira
(c) Mandapa Pracira
(d) Simhadwara Pracira
Ans. (b) Meghanada Pracira - The architectural style of the Jagannath Temple combines which two types?
(a) Dravida and Nagara
(b) Vesara and Kalinga
(c) Rekha and Pidha
(d) Pallava and Chalukya
Ans. (c) Rekha and Pidha - What is the objective of the Mukhyamantri Bus Seva (formerly LAccMI scheme) in Odisha?
(a) To promote tourism in rural areas
(b) To connect gram panchayats with block and district headquarters
(c) To provide free bus services to senior citizens
(d) To improve urban transportation facilities
Ans.: (b) To connect gram panchayats with block and district headquarters - Which scheme was renamed as Mukhyamantri Bus Seva by the Odisha government?
(a) PM-KISAN
(b) Ujjwala Yojana
(c) LAccMI scheme
(d) Ayushman Bharat
Ans.: (c) LAccMI scheme - Who is the newly appointed Chief Secretary of Odisha?
(a) Naveen Patnaik
(b) Bibhuti Bhusan Jena
(c) Manoj Ahuja
(d) Pradeep Kumar Jena
Ans.: (c) Manoj Ahuja - Where will the new academic centre and language laboratory under the Academy of Tribal Languages and Culture (ATLC) be located?
(a) Bhubaneswar city centre
(b) Puri district
(c) Cuttack town
(d) Gothapatana near Bhubaneswar
Ans.: (d) Gothapatana near Bhubaneswar - Who was the Prime Minister of Britain when the Simon Commission was appointed in 1927?
A. Ramsay MacDonald
B. Stanley Baldwin
C. Winston Churchill
D. Neville Chamberlain
Answer: B. Stanley Baldwin - The Simon Commission was criticized because:
A. It included Indian members.
B. It recommended immediate independence for India.
C. It was an all-white Commission with no Indian members.
D. It proposed increased taxation.
Answer: C. It was an all-white Commission with no Indian members. - Which slogan was chanted by Indian protesters against the Simon Commission?
A. “Quit India”
B. “Jai Hind”
C. “Simon go back”
D. “Bande Mataram”
Answer: C. “Simon go back” - In which year did Lala Lajpat Rai die after being injured during a protest against the Simon Commission?
A. 1928
B. 1930
C. 1927
D. 1932
Answer: A. 1928 - What was the primary purpose of the Simon Commission?
A. To recommend new taxation policies.
B. To study constitutional reforms in British India.
C. To promote British goods in India.
D. To organize Indian defense against Japan.
Answer: B. To study constitutional reforms in British India. - The Morley-Minto Reforms were introduced in which year?
A. 1919
B. 1909
C. 1927
D. 1935
Answer: B. 1909 - Which feature was introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms?
A. Separate electorates for Muslims
B. Complete independence for India
C. Formation of the Indian National Congress
D. Prohibition of Indian participation in legislative councils
Answer: A. Separate electorates for Muslims - Who is known as the ‘Father of Communal Electorate’ in India?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Morley
C. Lord Minto
D. Lord Irwin
Answer: C. Lord Minto - Which province was partitioned by Lord Curzon in 1905?
A. Punjab
B. Bengal
C. Bombay
D. Madras
Answer: B. Bengal - What was the main objective of the Partition of Bengal?
A. To reduce British administrative costs
B. To weaken the growing nationalism in Bengal
C. To increase British investment in Bengal
D. To merge Bengal with Assam
Answer: B. To weaken the growing nationalism in Bengal - Rabindranath Tagore composed which song in protest against the Partition of Bengal?
A. Jana Gana Mana
B. Amar Sonar Bangla
C. Vande Mataram
D. Saare Jahan Se Achha
Answer: B. Amar Sonar Bangla - Which movement was initiated as a response to the Partition of Bengal?
A. Civil Disobedience Movement
B. Swadeshi Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Khilafat Movement
Answer: B. Swadeshi Movement - What was the primary form of protest in the Swadeshi Movement?
A. Armed rebellion
B. Non-violent protest
C. Boycotting British goods
D. Petitioning the British Parliament
Answer: C. Boycotting British goods - The Champaran Satyagraha was related to which issue?
A. Salt monopoly
B. Indigo cultivation
C. Textile industry strike
D. Partition of Bengal
Answer: B. Indigo cultivation - In which year was the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhi?
A. 1919
B. 1920
C. 1930
D. 1942
Answer: B. 1920 - The Dandi March initiated the:
A. Non-Cooperation Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Khilafat Movement
Answer: B. Civil Disobedience Movement - Who was the viceroy of India during the Quit India Movement in 1942?
A. Lord Linlithgow
B. Lord Irwin
C. Lord Mountbatten
D. Lord Wavell
Answer: A. Lord Linlithgow - Which resolution called for “complete independence” as the goal of the Indian National Congress in 1929?
A. Lahore Resolution
B. Poona Pact
C. Lucknow Pact
D. Karachi Resolution
Answer: A. Lahore Resolution - Who was the political mentor of Mahatma Gandhi?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C. Sardar Patel
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale - Which movement did Gandhi lead to protest against the Rowlatt Act?
A. Champaran Satyagraha
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Satyagraha Against the Rowlatt Act
D. Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer: C. Satyagraha Against the Rowlatt Act - The Cripps Mission was sent to India in:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1946
Answer: B. 1942 - What was the primary objective of the Cripps Mission?
A. To negotiate Indian support for World War II
B. To grant immediate independence to India
C. To divide India into separate countries
D. To reform the Indian education system
Answer: A. To negotiate Indian support for World War II - Which agreement proposed separate constituencies for the depressed classes in 1932?
A. Poona Pact
B. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
C. Lucknow Pact
D. Cabinet Mission Plan
Answer: A. Poona Pact - The slogan “Do or Die” was associated with which movement?
A. Non-Cooperation Movement
B. Civil Disobedience Movement
C. Quit India Movement
D. Khilafat Movement
Answer: C. Quit India Movement - Who was the first Indian to be appointed to the Viceroy’s Executive Council?A. Satyendra Prasad Sinha
B. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: A. Satyendra Prasad Sinha - The partition of Bengal was annulled in:A. 1905
B. 1911
C. 1920
D. 1935
Answer: B. 1911 - Which Indian leader presided over the Congress session that decided to boycott the Simon Commission?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. M.A. Ansari
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Sardar Patel
Answer: B. M.A. Ansari - The Doctrine of Lapse was associated with which British Governor-General?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Curzon
C. Lord Wellesley
D. Lord Minto
Answer: A. Lord Dalhousie - Which event marked the beginning of Mahatma Gandhi’s mass involvement in Indian politics?
A. Champaran Satyagraha
B. Non-Cooperation Movement
C. Dandi March
D. Quit India Movement
Answer: A. Champaran Satyagraha - Which reform is often referred to as the ‘Father of Communal Electorate’ due to its provisions?
A. Government of India Act 1935
B. Morley-Minto Reforms
C. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
D. Simon Commission
Answer: B. Morley-Minto Reforms - Which state houses the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2000?
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C) Tamil Nadu - The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2001, is located in which Indian state?
A) Kerala
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Gujarat
D) Karnataka
Answer: B) Tamil Nadu - In which year was the Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve in West Bengal designated?
A) 2000
B) 2001
C) 2004
D) 2009
Answer: B) 2001 - Which city in India falls under Earthquake Zone III?
A) Delhi
B) Chennai
C) Kolkata
D) Guwahati
Answer: C) Kolkata - Guwahati is classified under which Earthquake Zone in India?
A) Zone II
B) Zone III
C) Zone IV
D) Zone V
Answer: D) Zone V - Delhi is situated in which Earthquake Zone according to Indian seismic zoning?
A) Zone II
B) Zone III
C) Zone IV
D) Zone V
Answer: C) Zone IV - The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2009, is located in which state?
A) Assam
B) Meghalaya
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Manipur
Answer: B) Meghalaya - Simlipal Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2009, belongs to which Indian state?
A) West Bengal
B) Odisha
C) Jharkhand
D) Bihar
Answer: B) Odisha - Which Indian territory is home to the Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2013?
A) Andaman Islands
B) Great Nicobar
C) Lakshadweep
D) Kavaratti
Answer: B) Great Nicobar - The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2016, spans which states?
A) Kerala and Karnataka
B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
C) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Answer: B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu - Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2018, is part of which state’s districts?
A) Sikkim
B) Arunachal Pradesh
C) West Bengal
D) Assam
Answer: A) Sikkim - Panna Biosphere Reserve, designated in 2020, is located in which Indian state?
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Rajasthan
D) Gujarat
Answer: A) Madhya Pradesh - What percentage of the Earth’s atmosphere is composed of Nitrogen (N2)?
A) 20.95%
B) 78.08%
C) 0.93%
D) 0.036%
Answer: B) 78.08% - Which gas in the Earth’s atmosphere has a percentage volume of 20.95%?
A) Oxygen (O2)
B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
C) Argon (Ar)
D) Nitrogen (N2)
Answer: A) Oxygen (O2) - What is the approximate percentage of Argon (Ar) in the Earth’s atmosphere?
A) 0.05%
B) 0.93%
C) 0.036%
D) 0.002%
Answer: B) 0.93% - Which layer of the Earth’s atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Answer: B) Stratosphere - The layer of the atmosphere where meteorites burn up upon entry is called:
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Answer: C) Mesosphere - In which layer of the atmosphere does temperature increase with height due to absorption of UV radiation?
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Answer: D) Thermosphere - Which layer of the atmosphere helps in radio transmission by reflecting radio waves?
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Ionosphere
D) Exosphere
Answer: C) Ionosphere - The uppermost layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is called:
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Exosphere
Answer: D) Exosphere - Which wind is known for causing early ripening of mangoes in Kerala and Karnataka?
A) Chinook
B) Loo
C) Mango shower
D) Mistral
Answer: C) Mango shower - Harmattan winds, known as “doctor winds,” are associated with which region?
A) Sahara desert
B) Coastal regions
C) Hill regions
D) Mediterranean
Answer: A) Sahara desert - Which wind causes “blood rain” in Italy and is harmful to agriculture?
A) Mistral
B) Sirocco
C) Foehn
D) Bora
Answer: B) Sirocco - Which wind affects the North Indian plains with heat waves and heat strokes?
A) Loo
B) Bora
C) Blizzard
D) Harmattan
Answer: A) Loo - Which is the single largest cottage industry in the state of Manipur, India?
A) Sericulture Industry
B) Handloom Industry
C) Leather Industry
D) Jute Industry
Answer: B) Handloom Industry - How many states share their borders with Uttar Pradesh?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: D) 8 - Zawar mines, known for zinc, are located in which Indian state?
A) Rajasthan
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Maharashtra
Answer: A) Rajasthan - Tehri Dam, the tallest dam in India, is built on which river?
A) Alaknanda
B) Bhagirathi
C) Gandak
D) Ghagghar
Answer: B) Bhagirathi - Jadugoda mines in Jharkhand are famous for which mineral deposit?
A) Iron ore
B) Mica deposits
C) Gold deposits
D) Uranium deposits
Answer: D) Uranium deposits - The Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which cultivation?
A) Petroleum Production
B) Tea Cultivation
C) Bamboo Industry
D) Cottage Industries
Answer: B) Tea Cultivation - Which ancient Indian mathematician wrote the earliest book on mathematics, Shulbasutra, around the 6th century BC?
a) Aryabhata
b) Brahmagupta
c) Baudhayana
d) Bhaskara I
Answer: c) Baudhayana - What is the meaning of the term “Bijaganita” in ancient Indian mathematics?
a) Geometry
b) Arithmetic
c) Algebra
d) Astronomy
Answer: c) Algebra - In which century did Apastamba introduce the concepts of practical geometry involving different angles?
a) 1st century BC
b) 2nd century BC
c) 5th century AD
d) 7th century AD
Answer: b) 2nd century BC - Aryabhata’s book “Aryabhatiya” contains sections on several subjects. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
a) Number theory
b) Chemistry
c) Geometry
d) Astronomy
Answer: b) Chemistry - Who introduced the concept of zero as a number in his book “Brahmasputa Siddhanta”?
a) Aryabhata
b) Bhaskara I
c) Brahmagupta
d) Mahaviracharya
Answer: c) Brahmagupta - Which ancient text is considered the earliest Indian text entirely dedicated to Mathematics?
a) Aryabhatiya
b) Siddhanta Shiromani
c) Ganit Sara Sangraha
d) Lilavati
Answer: c) Ganit Sara Sangraha - Bhaskara II’s book “Siddhanta Shiromani” is divided into four sections. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
a) Lilavati
b) Bijaganita
c) Goladhyaya
d) Jyotisa
Answer: d) Jyotisa - What unique method for solving algebraic equations was introduced by Bhaskara II in his book Lilavati?
a) Factorization method
b) Matrix method
c) Chakrawat method
d) Substitution method
Answer: c) Chakrawat method - Which Persian scholar translated the book “Lilavati” into Persian in the court of Akbar?
a) Al-Khwarizmi
b) Faizi
c) Omar Khayyam
d) Avicenna
Answer: b) Faizi - Which ruler set up five astronomical observatories in different cities including Delhi and Jaipur?
a) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
b) Sawai Jai Singh
c) Akbar
d) Feroz Shah Bahamani
Answer: b) Sawai Jai Singh - Who were the practitioners of medicine given divine status during Vedic times?
a) Charaka
b) Sushruta
c) Ashwini Kumars
d) Agnivesa
Answer: c) Ashwini Kumars
Explanation: In the Vedic times, Ashwini Kumars were revered as divine practitioners of medicine. - Which Veda is the first to mention diseases, their cures, and medicines?
a) Rig Veda
b) Yajur Veda
c) Sama Veda
d) Atharva Veda
Answer: d) Atharva Veda
Explanation: Atharva Veda is the earliest Vedic text mentioning diseases and their cures, attributing illnesses to demons and spirits. - Who is considered the Father of Ayurveda and authored the Charak Samhita?
a) Charaka
b) Sushruta
c) Atreya
d) Agnivesa
Answer: a) Charaka
Explanation: Charaka is hailed as the Father of Ayurveda and is the author of the Charak Samhita, focusing on medicinal plants and herbs. - Which ancient Indian text deals with surgery and is attributed to the Father of Surgery?
a) Charak Samhita
b) Atharva Veda
c) Sushruta Samhita
d) Sarangdhara Samhita
Answer: c) Sushruta Samhita
Explanation: The Sushruta Samhita, attributed to Sushruta, the Father of Surgery, is a comprehensive treatise on surgery. - What are the three Doshas according to Charak Samhita that determine the functioning of the human body?
a) Blood, flesh, and marrow
b) Bile, phlegm, and wind
c) Heart, liver, and kidney
d) Brain, nerves, and muscles
Answer: b) Bile, phlegm, and wind
Explanation: Charak Samhita describes the three Doshas—bile, phlegm, and wind—as crucial elements that affect the human body’s functioning. - Which element among the panchbhootas is associated with the sense of smell?
a) Fire (Agni)
b) Earth (Prithvi)
c) Water (Apa)
d) Ether (Akash)
Answer: b) Earth (Prithvi) - Which Buddhist philosophers replaced ether with which new elements in their theory?
a) Air, Water, and Earth
b) Life, Joy, and Sorrow
c) Vision, Feeling, and Taste
d) Earth, Fire, and Water
Answer: b) Life, Joy, and Sorrow - Who were the ancient Indian philosophers that first conceived the idea of atoms?
a) Nagarjuna and Varahamihira
b) Kanada and Pakudha Katyayana
c) Aryabhata and Brahmagupta
d) Patanjali and Panini
Answer: b) Kanada and Pakudha Katyayana - What term did Kanada use to describe the smallest indestructible particle of matter?
a) Atom
b) Parmanu
c) Kana
d) Rasadanya
Answer: c) Kana - In ancient India, chemistry was known by several names. Which of the following was NOT one of them?
a) Rasayan Shastra
b) Rasatantra
c) Rasa Vidya
d) Jyotish Shastra
Answer: d) Jyotish Shastra - Which famous ancient Indian metallurgical monument has not rusted even after thousands of years?
a) Iron Pillar of Mehrauli
b) Qutub Minar
c) Charminar
d) Statue of Unity
Answer: a) Iron Pillar of Mehrauli - What did Nagarjuna primarily focus on in his treatise Rasaratnakara?
a) Metallurgy and alchemy
b) Astronomy and astrology
c) Medicine and surgery
d) Mathematics and geometry
Answer: a) Metallurgy and alchemy - Which city was NOT mentioned as a center for paper production in medieval India?
a) Kashmir
b) Patna
c) Murshidabad
d) Delhi
Answer: d) Delhi - Who is credited with the discovery of attar of roses?
a) King Vikramaditya
b) Mother of Noorjahan
c) Varahamihira
d) Aryabhata
Answer: b) Mother of Noorjahan - Varahamihira, an ancient Indian scientist, made significant contributions to which fields?
a) Astronomy and Astrology
b) Chemistry and Metallurgy
c) Medicine and Surgery
d) Geology, Hydrology, and Ecology
Answer: d) Geology, Hydrology, and Ecology - Which ancient text provides detailed information on shipbuilding techniques in ancient India?
a) Arthashastra
b) Yukti Kalpa Taru
c) Ramayana
d) Mahabharata
Answer: b) Yukti Kalpa Taru - What were the two main classes of ships mentioned in Yukti Kalpa Taru?
a) Sarvamandira and Madhyamandira
b) Samanya and Vishesha
c) Dirgha and Unnata
d) Agramandira and Vata Vastra
Answer: b) Samanya and Vishesha - Which type of ship had a long and narrow hull according to Yukti Kalpa Taru?
a) Sarvamandira
b) Madhyamandira
c) Dirgha
d) Unnata
Answer: c) Dirgha - What was the term used for the sail of a ship in ancient Sanskrit terminology?
a) Nava Bandhan Kilaha
b) Jeni Pata
c) Vata Vastra
d) Machayantra
Answer: c) Vata Vastra - What type of vessels were referred to as Agramandira in the Yukti Kalpa Taru?
a) Ships with cabins extending from one end to another
b) Pleasure trip vessels
c) Warfare vessels
d) Vessels used for royal voyages
Answer: c) Warfare vessels - What river was the Harappan Civilization primarily located near?
A) Ganges
B) Nile
C) Indus
D) Yangtze
Answer: C) Indus - Which site is known for the Great Bath?
A) Harappa
B) Mohenjo-daro
C) Dholavira
D) Lothal
Answer: B) Mohenjo-daro - What material were most Harappan seals made from?
A) Copper
B) Steatite
C) Gold
D) Ivory
Answer: B) Steatite - The “Dancing Girl” sculpture was found at which site?
A) Harappa
B) Mohenjo-daro
C) Rakhigarhi
D) Lothal
Answer: B) Mohenjo-daro - What type of town planning is characteristic of Harappan cities?
A) Circular
B) Grid pattern
C) Spiral
D) Random
Answer: B) Grid pattern - Which Harappan site is referred to as the “Manchester of the Indus Valley”?
A) Mohenjo-daro
B) Harappa
C) Lothal
D) Dholavira
Answer: C) Lothal - Which item was primarily used for making Harappan terracotta figurines?
A) Marble
B) Bronze
C) Clay
D) Stone
Answer: C) Clay - What kind of drainage system was present in the Harappan Civilization?
A) Open drains only
B) Covered drains with regular cleaning
C) No drainage system
D) Underground sewers
Answer: B) Covered drains with regular cleaning - The Pashupati Seal depicts a figure surrounded by how many animals?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
Answer: B) Four - Which site is known for having an advanced water management system?
A) Harappa
B) Mohenjo-daro
C) Dholavira
D) Rakhigarhi
Answer: C) Dholavira - Which dynasty introduced the torans, or gateways, to stupas?
A) Kushanas
B) Shungas
C) Kanvas
D) Satvahanas
Answer: B) Shungas - The Gandhara School of Art is known for its influence from which cultures?
A) Persian and Indian
B) Greek and Roman
C) Chinese and Indian
D) Egyptian and Indian
Answer: B) Greek and Roman - The Mathura School of Art primarily used which material for its sculptures?
A) Bluish-grey sandstone
B) White marble
C) Spotted red sandstone
D) Granite
Answer: C) Spotted red sandstone - What type of rock-cut cave was primarily used as a prayer hall?
A) Vihara
B) Chaitya
C) Griha
D) Mandapa
Answer: B) Chaitya - Which ruler is associated with the Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves?
A) Ashoka
B) Kanishka
C) Kharavela
D) Samudragupta
Answer: C) Kharavela - Which post-Mauryan school of sculpture emphasized dynamic images and narrative art?
A) Gandhara
B) Mathura
C) Amaravati
D) Sarnath
Answer: C) Amaravati - The Hathigumpha inscription is written in which script?
A) Devanagari
B) Kharosthi
C) Brahmi
D) Greek
Answer: C) Brahmi - Which mudra of Buddha signifies fearlessness?
A) Dhyana Mudra
B) Abhaya Mudra
C) Bhumisparsha Mudra
D) Vitarka Mudra
Answer: B) Abhaya Mudra - The Shaka dynasty ruled in which part of India?
A) Eastern India
B) Northern India
C) Southern India
D) Western India
Answer: D) Western India - Which Buddhist site contains mural paintings and is located in Maharashtra?
A) Ajanta Caves
B) Ellora Caves
C) Udayagiri Caves
D) Bagh Caves
Answer: A) Ajanta Caves - Which period marked the emergence of square sanctum and pillared portico in temple architecture?
A) Maurya Period
B) Gupta Period
C) Kushan Period
D) Harappan Period
Answer: B) Gupta Period - What was the distinctive architectural feature of temples during the First Stage of development?
A) Curvilinear shikharas
B) Flat roofs
C) Circular platforms
D) Elaborate gateways
Answer: B) Flat roofs - During which stage did temples start to feature covered ambulatory passageways around the sanctum sanctorum?
A) First Stage
B) Second Stage
C) Third Stage
D) Fourth Stage
Answer: B) Second Stage - Which architectural style introduced the Panchayatan style of temple making?
A) Nagara Style
B) Dravidian Style
C) Solanki School
D) Odisha School
Answer: A) Nagara Style - Which type of shikhara is characterized by its square base and inward curving walls?
A) Latina or Rekha-prasad
B) Phamsana
C) Valabhi
D) Amalak
Answer: A) Latina or Rekha-prasad - The Odisha School of temple architecture is known for its distinctive _____.
A) Pillared porticos
B) Plain interior walls
C) Circular platforms
D) Elaborate gateways
Answer: D) Elaborate gateways - Which Chola temple is known for its vimana in the form of a stepped pyramid?
A) Brihadeeswara Temple, Thanjavur
B) Sun Temple, Konark
C) Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneswar
D) Kailashnath Temple, Kanchipuram
Answer: A) Brihadeeswara Temple, Thanjavur - Which style of temple architecture developed in central India under the Chandela rulers?
A) Odisha School
B) Dravidian Style
C) Khajuraho School
D) Solanki School
Answer: C) Khajuraho School - What unique feature is associated with the Solanki School of temple architecture?
A) Lavishly decorated interior walls
B) Presence of step-tanks
C) Sandstone construction
D) Spherical kalash on shikhara
Answer: B) Presence of step-tanks - Which UNESCO World Heritage site includes the Shore Temple and Pancha Rathas?
A) Brihadeeswara Temple Complex
B) Sun Temple, Konark
C) Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram
D) Khajuraho Group of Monuments
Answer: C) Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram - Kalaripayattu originated in which Indian state?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: c) Kerala - What does the term ‘Kalari’ refer to in the context of Kalaripayattu?
a) A type of weapon
b) A training hall
c) A form of meditation
d) A fighting technique
Answer: b) A training hall - Which aspect is considered the most important in Kalaripayattu?
a) Drumming
b) Song
c) Footwork
d) Meditation
Answer: c) Footwork - What is ‘Uzhichil’ in Kalaripayattu?
a) A type of combat
b) A weapon
c) A ritual
d) A massage with Gingli oil
Answer: d) A massage with Gingli oil - What does ‘Verumkai’ refer to in Kalaripayattu?
a) Sword fight
b) Bare-handed fight
c) Body exercises
d) Use of metal weapons
Answer: b) Bare-handed fight - Silambam is a martial art form from which Indian state?
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: c) Tamil Nadu - Which literature mentions the trade of Silambam staves?
a) Ramayana
b) Silappadikaram
c) Mahabharata
d) Thirukkural
Answer: b) Silappadikaram - What is the primary weapon used in Silambam?
a) Sword
b) Spear
c) Bamboo stave
d) Shield
Answer: c) Bamboo stave - Thang-ta is an armed martial art form created by which people?
a) Meitei
b) Tamil
c) Malayali
d) Kannadiga
Answer: a) Meitei - What does ‘Thang’ and ‘Ta’ refer to in Thang-ta?
a) Shield and spear
b) Sword and spear
c) Sword and shield
d) Spear and bow
Answer: b) Sword and spear - What is the primary weapon used in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Sword and Shield
B) Stick encased in soft leather and Leather Shield
C) Bow and Arrow
D) Spear and Shield
Answer: B) Stick encased in soft leather and Leather Shield - What is the diameter of the contest circle in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 5 meters
B) 6 meters
C) 7 meters
D) 8 meters
Answer: C) 7 meters - How far apart are the two lines within the contest circle of Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 1 meter
B) 2 meters
C) 3 meters
D) 4 meters
Answer: B) 2 meters - What is the length range of the ‘Cheibi’ stick used in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 1 to 1.5 feet
B) 1.5 to 2 feet
C) 2 to 2.5 feet
D) 2.5 to 3 feet
Answer: C) 2 to 2.5 feet - What is the diameter of the shield used in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) 0.5 meters
B) 1 meter
C) 1.5 meters
D) 2 meters
Answer: B) 1 meter - On what basis is victory achieved in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) The number of rounds won
B) The points earned during a duel
C) The duration of the fight
D) The number of knockouts
Answer: B) The points earned during a duel - What is the main criteria for awarding points in Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Number of hits
B) Length of the duel
C) Skills and brute force
D) Defensive maneuvers
Answer: C) Skills and brute force - Which state in India is the origin of Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Bihar
B) Himachal Pradesh
C) Manipur
D) Punjab
Answer: C) Manipur - What does the term ‘Cheibi’ refer to in the context of Cheibi Gad-ga?
A) Shield
B) Stick
C) Sword
D) Circle
Answer: B) Stick - Which of the following martial arts involves archery skills?
A) Cheibi Gad-ga
B) Pari-khanda
C) Thoda
D) Gatka
Answer: C) Thoda - What is the origin state of Pari-khanda?
A) Bihar
B) Maharashtra
C) Punjab
D) Mizoram
Answer: A) Bihar - Which festival is Thoda associated with?
A) Holi
B) Diwali
C) Baisakhi
D) Navratri
Answer: C) Baisakhi - What do the two teams in Thoda symbolize?
A) Pandavas and Kauravas
B) Rama and Ravana
C) Krishna and Kansa
D) Arjuna and Karna
Answer: A) Pandavas and Kauravas - Which martial art is performed by the Sikhs of Punjab?
A) Cheibi Gad-ga
B) Gatka
C) Lathi
D) Musti Yuddha
Answer: B) Gatka - What are the unique weapons used in Mardani Khel?
A) Sword and Shield
B) Stick and Leather Shield
C) Patta and Vita
D) Bow and Arrow
Answer: C) Patta and Vita - Where is Inbuan Wrestling predominantly practiced?
A) Manipur
B) Punjab
C) Maharashtra
D) Mizoram
Answer: D) Mizoram - Which unarmed Dravidian martial art is mainly practiced in Tamil Nadu?
A) Kuttu Varisai
B) Lathi
C) Thoda
D) Mardani Khel
Answer: A) Kuttu Varisai - Which martial art involves techniques such as grappling, striking, and locking?
A) Cheibi Gad-ga
B) Thoda
C) Kuttu Varisai
D) Gatka
Answer: C) Kuttu Varisai - In Musti Yuddha, what does the category ‘Hanumanti’ focus on?
A) Technical superiority
B) Sheer strength
C) Limb and joint breaking
D) Forcing the opponent into submission
Answer: A) Technical superiority - Which martial art was once popular in Varanasi and resembles boxing?
A) Gatka
B) Musti Yuddha
C) Pari-khanda
D) Lathi
Answer: B) Musti Yuddha - Adya Dhara niradhara, niralamba Saraswati, thus lamented a poet at the demise of which among the following Kings?
[A] Chahmana Visaladeva
[B] Chandela Kirtivarma
[C] Mihira Bhoja
[D] Bhoja Paramara
Correct Answer: [D] Bhoja Paramara - Which among the following temples of India is known as Black Pagoda?
[A] Sun Temple, Konark
[B] Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjore
[C] Lord Jagannath Temple, Puri
[D] Meenakshi Temple, Madurai
Correct Answer: [A] Sun Temple, Konark - Mattur Village, whose inhabitants are known to speak Sanskrit Language is located in which among the following states of India?
[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Karnataka
[C] Kerala
[D] Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: [B] Karnataka - Shintoism is a religion or belief expanded greatly in which country?
[A] China
[B] Thailand
[C] Burma
[D] Japan
Correct Answer: [D] Japan - Singhey Khababs Festival is celebrated in which among the following states of India?
[A] Himachal Pradesh
[B] Jammu & Kashmir
[C] Uttarakhand
[D] Punjab
Correct Answer: [B] Jammu & Kashmir - The Victoria Falls are located on which river?
[A] Amazon
[B] Zambezi
[C] Nile
[D] Congo
Correct Answer: [B] Zambezi - Which is the largest freshwater lake by volume in the world?
[A] Lake Superior
[B] Lake Baikal
[C] Caspian Sea
[D] Lake Victoria
Correct Answer: [B] Lake Baikal - Which is the only floating National Park in the world?
[A] Sundarbans National Park
[B] Keibul Lamjao National Park
[C] Kaziranga National Park
[D] Manas National Park
Correct Answer: [B] Keibul Lamjao National Park - Which continent has the highest number of countries?
[A] Africa
[B] Asia
[C] Europe
[D] North America
Correct Answer: [A] Africa - The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of these countries?
[A] India
[B] Mexico
[C] Egypt
[D] Australia
Correct Answer: [D] Australia - Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
[A] Part III
[B] Part IV
[C] Part V
[D] Part VI
Correct Answer: [B] Part IV - What is the minimum age required to become the President of India?
[A] 25 years
[B] 30 years
[C] 35 years
[D] 40 years
Correct Answer: [C] 35 years - The Rajya Sabha can delay a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of:
[A] 10 days
[B] 14 days
[C] 30 days
[D] 60 days
Correct Answer: [B] 14 days - Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
[A] Sukumar Sen
[B] T. N. Seshan
[C] R. V. S. Peri Sastri
[D] V. S. Ramadevi
Correct Answer: [A] Sukumar Sen - Which Amendment Act added the words “Socialist”, “Secular” to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
[A] 24th Amendment Act
[B] 42nd Amendment Act
[C] 44th Amendment Act
[D] 52nd Amendment Act
Correct Answer: [B] 42nd Amendment Act - Who is known as the Father of Economics?
[A] Karl Marx
[B] Adam Smith
[C] David Ricardo
[D] John Maynard Keynes
Correct Answer: [B] Adam Smith - Which is the apex institution in India for industrial finance?
[A] SIDBI
[B] IFCI
[C] IDBI
[D] ICICI
Correct Answer: [C] IDBI - What does SEBI stand for?
[A] Securities and Exchange Board of India
[B] Socio-Economic Board of India
[C] State Economic Board of India
[D] Special Economic Board of India
Correct Answer: [A] Securities and Exchange Board of India - Which index is used to measure changes in the price level of a market basket of consumer goods and services?
[A] Consumer Price Index (CPI)
[B] Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
[C] Producer Price Index (PPI)
[D] Retail Price Index (RPI)
Correct Answer: [A] Consumer Price Index (CPI) - In which year was the GST (Goods and Services Tax) implemented in India?
[A] 2015
[B] 2016
[C] 2017
[D] 2018
Correct Answer: [C] 2017 - Which element is the most abundant in the Earth’s crust?
[A] Silicon
[B] Aluminum
[C] Iron
[D] Oxygen
Correct Answer: [D] Oxygen - Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
[A] Carbon dioxide
[B] Methane
[C] Oxygen
[D] Nitrous oxide
Correct Answer: [C] Oxygen - What is the process of cell division in somatic cells called?
[A] Mitosis
[B] Meiosis
[C] Binary Fission
[D] Budding
Correct Answer: [A] Mitosis - Who is known as the father of the Internet?
[A] Tim Berners-Lee
[B] Vint Cerf
[C] Bill Gates
[D] Steve Jobs
Correct Answer: [B] Vint Cerf - In which year did the World Health Organization (WHO) declare COVID-19 a pandemic?
[A] 2018
[B] 2019
[C] 2020
[D] 2021
Correct Answer: [C] 2020 - Which country hosted the 2022 FIFA World Cup?
[A] Russia
[B] Qatar
[C] USA
[D] Germany
Correct Answer: [B] Qatar - Which Indian state was the first to launch its own internet service?
[A] Kerala
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Karnataka
[D] Maharashtra
Correct Answer: [A] Kerala - Where are the headquarters of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?
[A] Paris, France
[B] Vienna, Austria
[C] New York, USA
[D] Geneva, Switzerland
Correct Answer: [B] Vienna, Austria - Which Indian state is the largest producer of coffee?
[A] Kerala
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Karnataka
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: [C] Karnataka - Which of the following is the capital of Canada?
[A] Toronto
[B] Vancouver
[C] Ottawa
[D] Montreal
Correct Answer: [C] Ottawa - What is the official currency of Japan?
[A] Won
[B] Yen
[C] Yuan
[D] Baht
Correct Answer: [B] Yen - Who established Prithvi Theatre?
(a) Prithviraj Kapoor
(b) Raj Kapoor
(c) Shashi Kapoor
(d) Shammi Kapoor
Ans: (a) Prithviraj Kapoor - Which theatre group was associated with Indian People’s Theatre Association (IPTA)?
(a) Prithvi Theatre
(b) NINASAM
(c) Chorus Repertory Theatre
(d) Sangeet Natak Akademi
Ans: (a) Prithvi Theatre - Who is known for keeping traditional Manipuri theatre alive through Kalakshetra Manipur?
(a) Heisnam Kanhailal
(b) Ratan Thiyam
(c) B.V. Karanth
(d) Kuppali Venkatappa Puttappa
Ans: (a) Heisnam Kanhailal - Which playwright wrote the famous play ‘Nildarpan’?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra
(c) Girish Karnad
(d) Vijay Tendulkar
Ans: (b) Dinabandhu Mitra - Who established the Chorus Repertory Theatre in 1976?
(a) Ratan Thiyam
(b) Heisnam Kanhailal
(c) BV Karanth
(d) Girish Karnad
Ans: (a) Ratan Thiyam - Which playwright wrote the play ‘Tughlaq’?
(a) Vijay Tendulkar
(b) Mohan Rakesh
(c) Badal Sarkar
(d) Girish Karnad
Ans: (d) Girish Karnad - Who founded the NINASAM theatre group?
(a) B.V. Karanth
(b) KV Subbanna
(c) Habib Tanvir
(d) Dharamvir Bharati
Ans: (b) KV Subbanna - Which theatre personality won the Ramon Magsaysay award?
(a) Vijay Tendulkar
(b) Habib Tanvir
(c) BV Karanth
(d) Girish Karnad
Ans: (c) BV Karanth - Which Indian playwright is known for the play ‘Andha Yug’?
(a) Badal Sarkar
(b) Vijay Tendulkar
(c) Mohan Rakesh
(d) Dharamvir Bharati
Ans: (b) Vijay Tendulkar - Who wrote the play ‘Hayavadana’?
(a) Girish Karnad
(b) Mohan Rakesh
(c) Vijay Tendulkar
(d) Badal Sarkar
Ans: (a) Girish Karnad - What does the Sanskrit word ‘nataka’ mean?
(a) Actor
(b) Dance
(c) Drama
(d) Music
Ans: (c) Drama - Who is considered the first classical Sanskrit playwright?
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Bhasa
(c) Sudraka
(d) Ashvaghosha
Ans: (d) Ashvaghosha - Which Sanskrit play introduced the essence of conflict with an antagonist character for the first time?
(a) Malavikagnimitram
(b) Vikramorvashi
(c) Shakuntalam
(d) Mricchakatika
Ans: (d) Mricchakatika - Who is known for the portrayal of the eternal conflict between desire and duty in Sanskrit drama?
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Bhavabhuti
(c) Visakhadatta
(d) Harshavardhana
Ans: (a) Kalidasa - Which type of Sanskrit play was characterized by realistic depictions of daily life?
(a) Lokadharmi
(b) Natyadharmi
(c) Rupaka
(d) Drishyakavya
Ans: (a) Lokadharmi - Who was the stage manager and director in classical Sanskrit theatre?
(a) Sutradhar
(b) Nayaka
(c) Vidusaka
(d) Nayika
Ans: (a) Sutradhar - Which instrument provides background music in Koodiyattam performances?
(a) Veena
(b) Mizhavu
(c) Tabla
(d) Flute
Ans: (b) Mizhavu - Which type of Sanskrit play typically had happy endings?
(a) Nataka
(b) Prakarana
(c) Prahasana
(d) Vyayoga
Ans: (a) Nataka - Who is known for introducing dance and music in the narrative art form of theatre in ancient India?
(a) Bhasa
(b) Kalidasa
(c) Ashvaghosha
(d) Bharata
Ans: (d) Bharata - Which traditional form of Indian theatre has survived since the 10th century AD in Kerala?
(a) Yakshagana
(b) Kuchipudi
(c) Koodiyattam
(d) Bhavai
Ans: (c) Koodiyattam - What is the traditional one-act play of Assam, started by Sankaradeva?
(a) Ankia Naat
(b) Ramlila
(c) Raslila
(d) Bhuta Aradhana
Ans: a) Ankia Naat - Which ritualistic theatre of Uttarakhand is dedicated to Bhumiyal Devta?
(a) Ramman
(b) Bhavai
(c) Daskathia
(d) Jatra
Ans: a) Ramman - Bhavai, a folk theatre form, is primarily associated with which Indian state?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Odisha
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: a) Rajasthan - Which folk theatre of Odisha involves two narrators – Gayaka and Palia?
(a) Garoda
(b) Maach
(c) Kariyila
(d) Daskathia
Ans: d) Daskathia - Nautanki, a popular North Indian theatre form, finds its roots in which earlier form?
(a) Swang
(b) Tamasha
(c) Ojapali
(d) Powada
Ans: a) Swang - Which South Indian theatre tradition is known for its emphasis on dance?
(a) Villu Paatu
(b) Yakshagana
(c) Theyyam
(d) Krishnanattam
Ans: b) Yakshagana - What is the folk theatre form from Maharashtra known for its humour and female actors in male roles?
(a) Bhand Pather
(b) Bhavai
(c) Tamasha
(d) Naqal
Ans: c) Tamasha - Which theatre form is associated with the storytelling tradition of Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Burra Katha
(b) Pagati Veshaalu
(c) Bayalata
(d) Tal-Maddale
Ans: a) Burra Katha - The ritual theatre honouring the ancestors in Kerala is known as:
(a) Theyyam
(b) Krishnanattam
(c) Kuruvanji
(d) Villu Paatu
Ans: a) Theyyam - Which form of theatre is dedicated to Lord Vishnu’s incarnations in the Konkan region?
(a) Dashavatar
(b) Bhavai
(c) Swang
(d) Bhaona
Ans: a) Dashavatar - Who framed the Constitution of India?
(a) Constituent Assembly
(b) British Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Parliament of India
Ans: (a) Constituent Assembly - The Constituent Assembly took how long to draft the Constitution?
(a) 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days
(b) 3 years, 6 months, and 20 days
(c) 4 years, 1 month, and 5 days
(d) 1 year, 7 months, and 15 days
Ans: (a) 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days - How many sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 15
Ans: (b) 11 - What was the total membership of the Constituent Assembly after the partition?
(a) 299
(b) 389
(c) 250
(d) 400
Ans: (a) 299 - Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly?(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (c) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha - When did the Cabinet Mission arrive in India?(a) March 1945
(b) March 1946
(c) August 1947
(d) May 1946
Ans: (b) March 1946 - Which of the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(a) Lord Pethick-Lawrence
(b) Stafford Cripps
(c) A.V. Alexander
(d) Winston Churchill
Ans: (d) Winston Churchill - The Cabinet Mission was in India for how long?
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 5 months
Ans: (b) 3 months - Which country’s constitution influenced the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution?
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
(d) Canada
Ans: (b) USA - The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution were borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Ireland
(d) Australia
Ans: (c) Ireland - The concept of the Parliamentary System in the Indian Constitution is taken from which country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Canada
(d) Australia
Ans: (b) UK - Which country’s constitution influenced the idea of suspension of fundamental rights during an emergency in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) South Africa
Ans: (a) Germany - The procedure established by law in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution?
(a) UK
(b) Japan
(c) USA
(d) Germany
Ans: (b) Japan - How many articles are there in Part I of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans: (a) 4 - Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part V
Ans: (b) Part III - What is covered under Part IV of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) The Union
Ans: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy - The Fundamental Duties are listed in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part IVA
(d) Part V
Ans: (c) Part IVA - The Emergency Provisions are contained in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Part XVII
(b) Part XVIII
(c) Part XIX
(d) Part XX
Ans: (b) Part XVIII - Which Schedule contains the list of states and union territories?
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Third Schedule
(d) Fourth Schedule
Ans: (a) First Schedule - Provisions regarding disqualification on ground of defection are found in which Schedule?
(a) Ninth Schedule
(b) Tenth Schedule
(c) Eleventh Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
Ans: (b) Tenth Schedule - Which Schedule lists the recognised languages of India?
(a) Fifth Schedule
(b) Sixth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Eighth Schedule
Ans: (d) Eighth Schedule - The Union List, State List, and Concurrent List are contained in which Schedule?
(a) Fifth Schedule
(b) Sixth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Eighth Schedule
Ans: (c) Seventh Schedule - The term “Secular” was added to the Preamble of the Constitution by which Amendment Act?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(c) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
(d) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
Ans: (a) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 - Article 5 to 11 in the Indian Constitution deals with which topic?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Citizenship
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Union Territories
Ans: (b) Citizenship - Which Article provides for the right to constitutional remedies?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 35
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 19
Ans: (a) Article 32
The Union Executive - Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Chief of Defence Staff
(d) Defence Minister
Ans: (b) President - The President of India is elected by which method?
(a) Direct election
(b) Proportional representation
(c) Simple majority
(d) Indirect election by electoral college
Ans: (d) Indirect election by electoral college - The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in which House of Parliament?
(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Only Rajya Sabha
(c) Either House
(d) Neither House
Ans: (c) Either House - The President of India must be at least how many years old?
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 40
Ans: (c) 35 - Who represents the Anglo-Indian community in the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Frank Anthony
(b) H.C. Mookherjee
(c) Sachidanand Sinha
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (a) Frank Anthony - What is Koodiyattam?
(A) Classical dance form
(B) Sanskrit theatre form
(C) Tribal martial art
(D) Folk music tradition
Answer: B) Sanskrit theatre form - Who traditionally plays the male roles in Koodiyattam?
(A) Nangiars
(B) Ambalavasi Nambiar women
C) Chakyars
(D) Theyyam performers
Answer: C) Chakyars - Which caste traditionally plays the female roles in Koodiyattam?
(A) Nangiars
(B) Chakyars
(C) Ambalavasi Nambiar women
(D) Thiyyas
Answer: C) Ambalavasi Nambiar women - Where are Koodiyattam performances mainly enacted?
(A) Marketplaces
(B) Palaces
(C) Temples
(D) Theatres
Answer: C) Temples - What is the role of “Vidushaka” in Koodiyattam performances?
(A) Lead actor
(B) Female protagonist
(C) Narrator in Malayalam
(D) Musician
Answer: C) Narrator in Malayalam - Which musical instrument is central to Koodiyattam performances?
(A) Veena
(B) Mridangam
(C) Mizhavu
(D) Sitar
Answer: C) Mizhavu - What is the typical duration of a Koodiyattam performance?
(A) 1-2 hours
(B) 3-5 hours
(C) 6-10 days
(D) 11-15 days
Answer: C) 6-10 days - In which language are the characters, except for Vidushaka, spoken during Koodiyattam?
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Kannada
Answer: A) Sanskrit - Which mythological themes are often depicted in Koodiyattam?
(A) Ramayana
(B) Mahabharata
(C) Puranas
(D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - Which of the following regions is famous for Koodiyattam?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Kerala
(C) Odisha
(D) Assam
Answer: B) Kerala - What makes Koodiyattam unique among traditional theatre forms?
(A) Use of masks
(B) Heavy makeup
(C) Inclusion of ritualistic elements
(D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above - When is Koodiyattam traditionally performed?
(A) Monsoon season
(B) Harvesting season
(C) Winter solstice
(D) Spring festival
Answer: B) Harvesting season - Who declared Koodiyattam as a Masterpiece of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity?
(A) UNESCO
(B) The Government of India
(C) Kerala State Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: A) UNESCO - What role does Mizhavu play in Koodiyattam performances?
(A) Lead actor
(B) Narrator
(C) Musical accompaniment
(D) Costume designer
Answer: C) Musical accompaniment - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Koodiyattam makeup?
(A) Heavy makeup
(B) Conventional facial painting
(C) Use of masks
(D) Simple attire
Answer: D) Simple attire - Which community traditionally performs Koodiyattam?
(A) Chakyars
(B) Nairs
(C) Ezhavas
(D) Christians
Answer: A) Chakyars - What is the traditional venue for Koodiyattam performances?
(A) Theatres
(B) Marketplaces
(C) Temples
(D) Schools
Answer: C) Temples - Which season is ideal for Koodiyattam performances?
(A) Winter
(B) Monsoon
(C) Summer
(D) Post-harvest
Answer: D) Post-harvest - Which of the following is a Sanskrit theatre form similar to Koodiyattam?
(A) Yakshagana
(B) Bihu
(C) Garba
(D) Kathakali
Answer: A) Yakshagana - What role does “Vidushaka” play in Koodiyattam performances?
(A) Comic relief and narrator
(B) Lead actor
(C) Music director
(D) Costume designer
Answer: A) Comic relief and narrator - Where is Ladakh located?
(A) Nepal
(B) Tibet
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Bhutan
Answer: C) Jammu and Kashmir - Which Buddhist sects primarily practice chanting in Ladakh?
(A) Theravada and Zen
(B) Mahayana and Vajrayana
(C) Zen and Vajrayana
(D) Theravada and Mahayana
Answer: B) Mahayana and Vajrayana - When was the practice of Buddhist chanting of Ladakh included in the UNESCO list?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
Answer: C) 2012 - Where are Buddhist chantings typically performed in Ladakh?
(A) Outdoor festivals
(B) Monastery courtyards
(C) Public squares
(D) Mountain caves
Answer: B) Monastery courtyards - What are ‘duennas’ in the context of Ladakh’s Buddhist chanting?
(A) Religious artifacts
(B) Sacred dances
(C) Monastic scholars
(D) Chanting companions
Answer: D) Chanting companions - Which musical instruments are commonly used during Buddhist chanting in Ladakh?
(A) Sitar and tabla
(B) Flute and tambourine
(C) Cymbals and drums
(D) Harmonium and dholak
Answer: C) Cymbals and drums - What is the main purpose of Buddhist chanting in Ladakh?
(A) Entertainment
(B) Healing rituals
(C) Spiritual purification
(D) Agricultural blessings
Answer: C) Spiritual purification - How are Buddhist texts transmitted in Ladakh?
(A) Written manuscripts
(B) Orally
(C) Through dance performances
(D) Via digital media
Answer: B) Orally - Which of the following is NOT true about Buddhist chanting in Ladakh?
(A) It includes recitation of Mahayana texts
(B) It is practiced indoors and outdoors
(C) It involves dance as a central element
(D) It is an integral part of Vajrayana Buddhism
Answer: C) It involves dance as a central element - What cultural significance does Buddhist chanting hold in Ladakh?
(A) Cultural preservation
(B) Environmental conservation
(C) Political activism
(D) Technological advancement
Answer: A) Cultural preservation - 1.Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is located in which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (b) Tamil Nadu - 2.What is the date for World Day of Social Justice?
(a) 22 February
(b) 20 February
(c) 24 February
(d) 28 February
Ans: (b) 20 February
3. Which day is celebrated as World Water Day?
(a) 20 March
(b) 21 March
(c) 22 March
(d) 23 March
Ans: (c) 22 March
4. National Science Day is observed on:
(a) 27 February
(b) 28 February
(c) 1 March
(d) 3 March
Ans: (b) 28 February
5. International Women’s Day falls on which date?
(a) 8 March
(b) 10 March
(c) 15 March
(d) 18 March
Ans: (a) 8 March
6. In which year was the Simlipal Biosphere Reserve notified?
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1994
(d) 1996
Ans: (c) 1994
7.The Sankosh river forms the boundary between which of the following two states?
(a) Bihar and West Bengal
(b) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam and West Bengal
(d) Bihar and Jharkhand
Ans: (c) Assam and West Bengal
8. Which state contains the Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Sikkim
(b) West Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (a) Sikkim
9. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (b) Madhya Pradesh
10. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve spans which states?
(a) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala
(c) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (a) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka
11.Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about Alluvial soil?
(a) Alluvial soil is the most abundant type of soil found in India
(b) Alluvial soil is generally fertile
(c) Alluvial soil lacks nitrogen and tends to be phosphoric
(d) Alluvial soil generally comprises a high percentage of clay and retains moisture for a long time
Ans: (d) Alluvial soil generally comprises a high percentage of clay and retains moisture for a long time
12. Bandhavgarh National Park was established in:
(a) 1967
(b) 1968
(c) 1972
(d) 1974
Ans: (b) 1968
13. Gir National Park was established in:
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1977
(d) 1978
Ans: (a) 1975
14.Which state has Navegaon National Park?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b) Maharashtra - 15. Jaipur, known as The Pink City, became a UNESCO World Heritage Site in:
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2021
Ans: (b) 2019 - 16. Which among the following mountain peaks is not in the Himalayan Range?
(a) K2
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Cho Oyu
Ans: (a) K2 - 17. India’s largest inland saline wetland system is located in which of the following states?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Odisha
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (b) Rajasthan - 18. Kakatiya Rudreshwara (Ramappa) Temple is located in which state?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Telangana
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (c) Telangana - 19. Santiniketan was added to the UNESCO World Heritage list in:
(a) 2022
(b) 2023
(c) 2021
(d) 2020
Ans: (b) 2023 - 20. The Hoysala temples of Belur, Halebid, and Somananthpura were inscribed in which year?
(a) 2020
(b) 2021
(c) 2022
(d) 2023
Ans: (d) 2023 - 21.Which article of the Indian Constitution mentions the connection between the Prime Minister and the President with the Council of Ministers?
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 78
(d) Article 80
Ans: (a) Article 74 - 22. Article 75 deals with:
(a) The President’s power to summon Parliament.
(b) The appointment and responsibilities of the Prime Minister and other ministers.
(c) The distribution of revenue between the Union and States.
(d) The procedure for impeachment of the President.
Ans: (b) The appointment and responsibilities of the Prime Minister and other ministers. - 23. According to Article 78, the Prime Minister is responsible for:
(a) Advising the President on legal matters.
(b) Communicating decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President.
(c) Handling financial matters of the Union.
(d) Appointing the Chief Justice of India.
Ans: (b) Communicating decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President. - 24.Who was the longest-serving Prime Minister of India?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (d) Jawaharlal Nehru - 25.Who was the youngest Prime Minister of India?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) V.P. Singh
Ans: (a) Rajiv Gandhi - 26. The first woman Prime Minister to receive the Bharat Ratna was:
(a) Sonia Gandhi
(b) Pratibha Patil
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Sushma Swaraj
Ans: (c) Indira Gandhi - 27. Which Indian Prime Minister received Pakistan’s highest civilian award?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans: (d) Morarji Desai - 28. “Tso Moriri,” located in the Ladakh region, is a:
(a) Mountain
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) Mountain Pass
Ans: (b) Lake - 29.Which among the following steel plants of India is sometimes called India’s First Swadeshi Steel Plant?
(a) Bengal Iron Works Company
(b) TISCO
(c) IISCO
(d) Bokaro Steel Plant
Ans: (b) TISCO - 30.Who was the second person to be elected as Prime Minister for the third time after Nehru?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Narendra Modi
Ans: (d) Narendra Modi - Where will the second edition of the Tech Mahindra Global Chess League be held?
a) New York
b) Paris
c) London
d) Mumbai
Answer: c) London - Who has been elected as the new president of the Professional Golf Tour of India (PGTI)?
a) Sunil Gavaskar
b) Sachin Tendulkar
c) Kapil Dev
d) Ravi Shastri
Answer: c) Kapil Dev - Which cricketer retired from international cricket in June 2024?
a) Steve Smith
b) David Warner
c) Glenn Maxwell
d) Aaron Finch
Answer: b) David Warner - Pat Cummins created history by achieving what milestone in the T20 World Cup?
a) First bowler to take a hat-trick in T20 World Cups
b) First player to pick up two hat-tricks in T20 World Cups
c) Most runs scored in T20 World Cups
d) Most wickets taken in a single T20 World Cup
Answer: b) First player to pick up two hat-tricks in T20 - In which match did Pat Cummins achieve his second T20 World Cup hat-trick?
a) Australia vs England
b) Australia vs South Africa
c) Australia vs Afghanistan
d) Australia vs India
Answer: c) Australia vs Afghanistan - Smriti Mandhana became the first Indian woman cricketer to score consecutive centuries in which format?
a) T20
b) ODI
c) Test
d) None of the above
Answer: b) ODI - Against which team did Smriti Mandhana achieve her consecutive ODI centuries?
a) England
b) Australia
c) South Africa
d) New Zealand
Answer: c) South Africa - How many medals did India win at the U-17 Asian Wrestling Championship 2024?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
Answer: c) 11 - Where was the U-17 Asian Wrestling Championship 2024 held?
a) New Delhi
b) Tokyo
c) Amman
d) Jakarta
Answer: c) Amman - Who won the Spanish Grand Prix 2024?
a) Lewis Hamilton
b) Charles Leclerc
c) Max Verstappen
d) Sergio Pérez
Answer: c) Max Verstappen - Max Verstappen’s victory at the Spanish Grand Prix 2024 further solidified his position in which championship?
a) MotoGP
b) Formula E
c) Formula 1
d) IndyCar
Answer: c) Formula 1 - At which event did Neeraj Chopra win gold in 2024?
a) Diamond League
b) Asian Games
c) Paavo Nurmi Games
d) Commonwealth Games
Answer: c) Paavo Nurmi Games - In which sport did Neeraj Chopra win gold at the Paavo Nurmi Games 2024?
a) Discus Throw
b) Shot Put
c) Long Jump
d) Javelin Throw
Answer: d) Javelin Throw - Which New Zealand cricketer announced his retirement from international cricket in 2024?
a) Kane Williamson
b) Trent Boult
c) Tim Southee
d) Ross Taylor
Answer: b) Trent Boult - Against which team did Trent Boult play his final international match?
a) India
b) England
c) Papua New Guinea
d) South Africa
Answer: c) Papua New Guinea - What position did the Indian National Ultimate Frisbee team secure at the 2024 Asia Oceanic Beach Ultimate Championships?
a) Champions
b) Runners-up
c) Semi-finalists
d) Quarter-finalists
Answer: b) Runners-up - Where was the 2024 Asia Oceanic Beach Ultimate Championships held?
a) China
b) Japan
c) Australia
d) New Zealand
Answer: b) Japan - Which player won the BWF Australian Open 2024?
a) Viktor Axelsen
b) Kento Momota
c) Lee Zii Jia
d) Anthony Ginting
Answer: c) Lee Zii Jia - What is the significance of May 25th in sports?
a) World Hockey Day
b) World Tennis Day
c) World Football Day
d) World Cricket Day
Answer: c) World Football Day - May 25th commemorates the centenary of which historic event?
a) First World Cup
b) First Olympic Games
c) First international football tournament
d) First FIFA Congress
Answer: c) First international football tournament - Until what year has Odisha extended its sponsorship of the Indian Hockey team?
a) 2026
b) 2028
c) 2030
d) 2033
Answer: d) 2033 - Which state is the official sponsor of the Indian Men’s and Women’s Hockey Teams?
a) Punjab
b) Haryana
c) Odisha
d) Karnataka
Answer: c) Odisha - Which Formula 1 driver is leading the championship as of June 2024?
a) Charles Leclerc
b) Lewis Hamilton
c) Max Verstappen
d) Fernando Alonso
Answer: c) Max Verstappen - What new role has Kapil Dev taken on in 2024?
a) President of the Indian Cricket Board
b) President of the Professional Golf Tour of India (PGTI)
c) Head Coach of the Indian Cricket Team
d) Chairman of the Olympic Committee
Answer: b) President of the Professional Golf Tour of India (PGTI) - Harshit Kumar won a gold medal in which event at the 21st U-20 Asian Athletics Championship 2024?
a) Discus Throw
b) Hammer Throw
c) Javelin Throw
d) Long Jump
Answer: b) Hammer Throw - How many total medals had the Indian contingent won by the end of the third day of the U-20 Asian Athletics Championship 2024?
a) 15
b) 16
c) 17
d) 18
Answer: d) 18 - Who won the men’s elite race at the 16th TCS World 10K Bengaluru 2024?
a) Kenenisa Bekele
b) Joshua Cheptegei
c) Peter Mwaniki
d) Jacob Kiplimo
Answer: c) Peter Mwaniki - Which company became the Lead Arm sponsor for the USA and South Africa cricket teams during the T20 World Cup 2024?
a) Nestle
b) Amul
c) Pepsi
d) Britannia
Answer: b) Amul - What is the duration of the ineligibility period imposed on Devon Thomas by the ICC?
a) 2 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 5 years
Answer: d) 5 years - Where will the 2025 BWF World Junior Championships be held?
a) New Delhi
b) Guwahati
c) Mumbai
d) Hyderabad
Answer: b) Guwahati - When will India host the BWF World Junior Championships 2025?
a) 2026
b) 2025
c) 2027
d) 2028
Answer: b) 2025 - Q1) The primary function of the pollen tube is to transport:
[A] Pollen Grains
[B] Sperm Cells
[C] Eggs
[D] All of them
Correct Answer: B [Sperm Cells]
Explanation: The pollen tube transports sperm cells from the pollen grain to the ovule in seed plants. - Q2) Which organisms are primarily known as decomposers in an ecosystem?
[A] Bacteria
[B] Fungi & Bacteria
[C] Algae
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: B [Fungi & Bacteria]
Explanation: Fungi and bacteria decompose dead organic material, recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem. - Q3) Where does digestion occur in amoeba?
[A] Food vacuole
[B] Mitochondria
[C] Pseudopodia
[D] Chloroplast
Correct Answer: A [Food vacuole]
Explanation: Amoeba digests food within the food vacuole. - Q4) Which organisms break down food materials outside their bodies and then absorb it?
[A] Mushroom, Green plants, Amoeba
[B] Yeast, Mushroom, Bread mould
[C] Paramecium, Amoeba, Cuscuta
[D] Cuscuta, Lice, Tapeworm
Correct Answer: B [Yeast, Mushroom, Bread mould]
Explanation: Yeast, mushroom, and bread mould break down food materials externally before absorbing them. - Q5) What indicates the presence of starch when iodine is added to rice water?
[A] Blue-black color
[B] No color change
[C] Red color
[D] Yellow color
Correct Answer: A [Blue-black color]
Explanation: Iodine reacts with starch, turning blue-black. - Q6) The respiratory pigment in humans is:
[A] Carotene
[B] Chlorophyll
[C] Haemoglobin
[D] Mitochondria
Correct Answer: C [Haemoglobin]
Explanation: Haemoglobin in blood binds oxygen for transport. - Q7) Which of the following structures in humans controls the size of the pupil?
[A] Retina
[B] Iris
[C] Cornea
[D] Lens
Correct Answer: B [Iris]
Explanation: The iris adjusts the pupil’s size to regulate the amount of light entering the eye. - Q8) The contraction and expansion of the food pipe’s walls is called:
[A] Translocation
[B] Transpiration
[C] Peristaltic movement
[D] Digestion
Correct Answer: C [Peristaltic movement]
Explanation: Peristaltic movements propel food through the digestive tract. - Q9) Which part of the plant is involved in photosynthesis?
[A] Roots
[B] Stems
[C] Leaves
[D] Flowers
Correct Answer: C [Leaves]
Explanation: Leaves contain chlorophyll, essential for photosynthesis. - Q10) What is the role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?
[A] Absorbs water
[B] Absorbs sunlight
[C] Stores starch
[D] Releases oxygen
Correct Answer: B [Absorbs sunlight]
Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs light energy to drive photosynthesis. - Q11) Which of the following affects the velocity of a rocket?
[A] Exhaust speed of gases
[B] Natural log of the initial mass to current mass ratio
[C] Both A and B
[D] Length of the rocket Correct Answer: C [Both A and B]
Explanation: The rocket’s velocity depends on exhaust speed and the mass ratio. - Q12) 1 nautical mile is equivalent to:
[A] 1.44 x 1000 m
[B] 1.852 x 100 m
[C] 1.852 x 1000 m
[D] 1.44 x 100 m
Correct Answer: C [1.852 x 1000 m]
Explanation: A nautical mile is 1.852 kilometers. - Q13) The universal gravitational constant represents:
[A] The force of attraction between unit masses at unit distance
[B] Twice the force of attraction between unit masses at unit distance
[C] Half the force of attraction between unit masses at unit distance
[D] Ten times the force of attraction between unit masses at unit distance
Correct Answer: A [The force of attraction between unit masses at unit distance]
Explanation: It quantifies gravitational attraction between unit masses at unit distance. - Q14) What factors affect the value of acceleration due to gravity?
[A] Shape of the Earth
[B] Height above Earth’s surface
[C] Axial rotation of the Earth
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Explanation: Gravity varies with Earth’s shape, height, and rotation. - Q15) Buoyancy depends on:
[A] Density of the fluid
[B] Volume of the submerged body
[C] Both A and B
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: C [Both A and B]
Explanation: Buoyancy is affected by fluid density and the submerged body’s volume. - Q16) According to Ohm’s law, if resistance is doubled, the current will:
[A] Double
[B] Halve
[C] Increase four times
[D] Remain unchanged
Correct Answer: B [Halve]
Explanation: Doubling resistance reduces current by half, as per Ohm’s law. - Q17) The minimum number of logic gates in a VLSI circuit is:
[A] 10
[B] 100
[C] 1000
[D] 10000
Correct Answer: C [1000]
Explanation: VLSI circuits contain more than 1000 logic gates. - Q18) The acceleration due to gravity is zero at:
[A] Earth’s surface
[B] Center of the Earth
[C] Poles
[D] Equator
Correct Answer: B [Center of the Earth]
Explanation: Gravity is zero at Earth’s center. - Q19) Which of these devices measures electric current?
[A] Voltmeter
[B] Ammeter
[C] Ohmmeter
[D] Barometer
Correct Answer: B [Ammeter]
Explanation: Ammeters measure electric current. - Q20) What type of mirror is used in a car’s rearview mirror?
[A] Convex
[B] Concave
[C] Plane
[D] Spherical
Correct Answer: A [Convex]
Explanation: Convex mirrors provide a wider field of view. - Q21) The basis of the modern periodic table is:
[A] Atomic mass
[B] Atomic number
[C] Number of nucleons
[D] All of the above
Correct Answer: B [Atomic number]
Explanation: Elements are arranged by increasing atomic number. - Q22) The most reactive element in group 17 is:
[A] Oxygen
[B] Sodium
[C] Fluorine
[D] Magnesium
Correct Answer: C [Fluorine]
Explanation: Fluorine is the most reactive halogen. - Q23) Which order is correct for atomic radii of oxygen, fluorine, and nitrogen?
[A] O < F < N
[B] N < F < O
[C] O < N < F
[D] F < O < N
Correct Answer: D [F < O < N]
Explanation: Fluorine has the smallest, and nitrogen the largest atomic radius among the three. - Q24) The element X forms a chloride XCl2, a solid with a high melting point. X is likely in the same group as:
[A] Na
[B] Mg
[C] Al
[D] Si
Correct Answer: B [Mg]
Explanation: Magnesium forms MgCl2, a similar compound. - Q25) Electropositive character of elements decreases as you move:
[A] Left to right across a period
[B] Right to left across a period
[C] Top to bottom down a group
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [Left to right across a period]
Explanation: Electropositive character decreases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge. - Q26) Group 18 elements are also known as:
[A] Noble gases
[B] Alkali metals
[C] Alkali earth metals
[D] Halogens
Correct Answer: A [Noble gases]
Explanation: Group 18 contains noble gases, which are inert. - Q27) Transition metals are located in groups:
[A] 1 to 2
[B] 13 to 18
[C] 3 to 12
[D] 1 to 8
Correct Answer: C [3 to 12]
Explanation: Transition metals are found in groups 3 to 12. - Q28) An element with electronic configuration 2, 8, 4 belongs to:
[A] 4th group
[B] 2nd group
[C] 14th group
[D] 18th group
Correct Answer: C [14th group]
Explanation: This configuration matches group 14 elements. - Q29) An element with 2 completely filled shells is:
[A] Helium
[B] Neon
[C] Calcium
[D] Boron
Correct Answer: B [Neon] - 30) What is the other name for group 18 elements in the periodic table?
[A] Noble gases
[B] Alkali metals
[C] Alkali earth metals
[D] Halogens
Correct Answer: [A] Noble gases
Explanation: Group 18 elements are also known as noble gases because they are inert and have very low reactivity due to their stable electron configurations. - Who is considered the Father of Indian Circus?
(a) Baburao Kadam
(b) Vishnupant Chatre
(c) M. K. Raman
(d) Keeleri Kunhikannan
Ans. (b) Vishnupant Chatre - In which year was The Great Indian Circus founded?
(a) 1880
(b) 1901
(c) 1920
(d) 1930
Ans. (a) 1880 - Which Indian city is known as the ‘Cradle of Indian Circus’?
(a) Pune
(b) Bilimora
(c) Thalassery
(d) Kurduvadi
Ans. (c) Thalassery - Who founded the first circus school in India?
(a) Vishnupant Chatre
(b) M. V. Shankaran
(c) K. M. Kunhikannan
(d) Keeleri Kunhikannan
Ans. (d) Keeleri Kunhikannan - Which circus company was the first to attend the International Circus Festival in USSR?
(a) Jumbo Circus
(b) Great Bombay Circus
(c) Gemini Circus
(d) Three Ring Circus
Ans. (c) Gemini Circus - What was the original name of Great Royal Circus?
(a) Grand Malabar Circus
(b) Madhuskar’s Circus
(c) Great Lion Circus
(d) Eastern Circus
Ans. (b) Madhuskar’s Circus - Who merged his circus company with the Grand Bombay Circus in 1947?
(a) K. Damodaran
(b) Keeleri Kunhikannan
(c) K. M. Kunhikannan
(d) Damoo Dhotre
Ans. (c) K. M. Kunhikannan - Which circus is known as “The Pride of India”?
(a) Jumbo Circus
(b) Gemini Circus
(c) Great Bombay Circus
(d) Three Ring Circus
Ans. (a) Jumbo Circus - Who was known as the “Wild Animal Man”?
(a) Kannan Bombayo
(b) M. K. Raman
(c) Damoo Dhotre
(d) N.R. Walawalkar
Ans. (c) Damoo Dhotre - What major event in 2011 affected the resource pool of Indian circus companies?
(a) Ban on wild animals
(b) Opening of a circus academy
(c) Ban on hiring children below 14
(d) Closure of circus schools
Ans. (c) Ban on hiring children below 14 - Which circus company was started by Baburao Kadam?
(a) Jumbo Circus
(b) Great Bombay Circus
(c) Three Ring Circus
(d) Grand Malabar Circus
Ans. (b) Great Bombay Circus - What was the primary reason for the decline of Indian circus industry according to the passage?
(a) Lack of audience interest
(b) Competition from international circuses
(c) Government bans and regulations
(d) Financial mismanagement
Ans. (c) Government bans and regulations - In what year did the Government of Kerala start a Circus Academy in Thalassery?
(a) 1939
(b) 1947
(c) 2010
(d) 2017
Ans. (c) 2010 - Who is known for graduating from Kunhikannan’s academy and performing for European and American circuses?
(a) Damoo Dhotre
(b) K. M. Kunhikannan
(c) M. K. Raman
(d) Kannan Bombayo
Ans. (d) Kannan Bombayo - Which circus is mentioned as having the largest troupe in India?
(a) Jumbo Circus
(b) Great Bombay Circus
(c) Gemini Circus
(d) Three Ring Circus
Ans. (b) Great Bombay Circus - Where did Gemini Circus originate?
(a) Thalassery
(b) Pune
(c) Bilimora
(d) Kurduvadi
Ans. (c) Bilimora - What notable feature did the Three Ring Circus have?
(a) Only Indian circus to include wild animals
(b) First six-pole three-ring circus of Asia
(c) Largest troupe of acrobats
(d) First Indian circus to tour North America
Ans. (b) First six-pole three-ring circus of Asia - Who continued Keeleri Kunhikannan’s legacy after his death?
(a) M. V. Shankaran
(b) M. K. Raman
(c) Damoo Dhotre
(d) Baburao Kadam
Ans. (b) M. K. Raman
