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AILET Expected Question Paper 2025 gives students ideas on what type of questions they should expect in the AILET 2025 exam. The AILET exam will be administered on December 8, 2024. Candidates who are seeking admission to BA LLB, BCom LLB, LLM, and LLM programs must practice the AILET expected questions and sample paper before the exam to maximize their scores.

AILET Expected Question Paper 2025

The best approach to test your AILET 2025 preparedness is to solve AILET previous years’ question papers, expected questions as well as exam AILET sample papers. This technique can assist applicants in becoming acquainted with the exam pattern, question paper structure, and difficulty level of questions asked during the exam. candidates can improve their efficiency and accuracy in answering the question paper if they practice these questions with a timer.  To assist applicants with their AILET 2025 last-minute preparation we have provided the Expected AILET questions in this article.

AILET 2025 Expected Questions

Practicing AILET 2025 Exam expected questions will help you comprehend the exam’s format better. It also helps you recognize your strengths and weaknesses for the exam and you can revise them in the last few days. The AILET 2025 question papers will be provided alongside the answer keys after December 8th for the BA LLB, BCom LLB, LLM, and PhD courses. Also, you can download the expected question paper PDF at the end of the article.

AILET Expected Question Paper 2025

SECTION – A : ENGLISH
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 5): Each set of questions in this section is based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.
In order to understand the development of Gangetic Valley plains, scholars have traditionally relied primarily on evidence from historical documents. However, such documentary sources provide a fragmentary record at best. Reliable accounts are very scarce for many parts of Northern India prior to the fifteenth century, and many of the relevant documents from the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries focus selectively on matters relating to cultural or commercial interests.
Studies of fossilized pollens preserved in peats and lake muds provide an additional means of investigating vegetative landscape change. Details of changes in vegetation resulting from both human activities and natural events are reflected in the kinds and quantities of minute pollens that become trapped in sediments. Analysis of samples can identify which kinds of plants produced the preserved pollens and when they were deposited, and in many cases the findings can serve to supplement or correct the documentary record.
For example, analysis of samples from a bay in Jammu has revealed significant patterns of cereal-grain pollens beginning by about fourth century. The substantial clay content of the soil in this part of Jammu makes cultivation by primitive tools difficult. Historians thought that such soils were not tilled to any significant extent until the introduction of the wooden plough to India in the seventh century. Because cereal cultivation would have required tiling of the soil, the pollens evidence indicates that these soils must indeed have been successfully tilled before the introduction of the new plough.
Another example concerns flax cultivation in Jammu, one of the great linen-producing areas of India during the sixteenth century. Some aspects of linen production in Jammu are well documented, but the documentary record tells little about the cultivation of flax, the plant from which linen is made, in that area. The record of sixteenth-century linen production in Jammu, together with the knowledge that flax cultivation had been established in India centuries before that time, led some historians to surmise that this plant was being cultivated in Jammu before the sixteenth century. But pollens analyses indicate that this is not the case; flax pollens were found only in deposits laid down since the sixteenth century.
It must be stressed, though, that there are limits to the ability of the pollen record to reflect the vegetative history of the landscape. For example, pollen analysis cannot identify the species, but only the genus or family, of some plants. Among these is turmeric, a cultivated plant of medicinal importance in India. Turmeric belongs to a plant family that also comprises various native weeds, including Brahma Thandu. If Turmeric pollen were present in a deposit it would be indistinguishable from that of uncultivated native species.
1. The phrase “documentary record” (para 2 and 4) primarily refers to –
(A) articles, books, and other documents by current historians listing and analyzing all the available evidence regarding a particular historical period.
(B) government and commercial records, maps, and similar documents produced in the past that recoded conditions and events of that time.
(C) documented results of analyses of fossilized pollen.
(D) the kinds and qualities of fossilized pollen grains preserved in peats and lake muds.
2. The passage indicates that pollen analyses have provided evidence against which one of the following views?
(A) In certain parts of Jammu, cereal grains were not cultivated to any significant extent before the seventh century.
(B) Cereal grain cultivation began in Jammu around fourth century.
(C) In certain parts of India, cereal grains have been cultivated continuously since the introduction of the wooden plough.
(D) Cereal grain cultivation requires successful tilling of the soil.
3. The passage indicates that prior to the use of pollen analysis in the study of the history of the Gangetic Valley plains, at least some historians believed which one of the following?
(A) Turmeric was not used as a medicinal plant in India until after the sixteenth century.
(B) Cereal grain was not cultivated anywhere in India until at least the seventh century.
(C) The history of the Gangetic Valley plains during the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries was well documented.
(D) The beginning of flax cultivation in Jammu may well have occurred before the sixteenth century.
4. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between the second paragraph and the final paragraph?
(A) The second paragraph describes a view against which the author intends to argue, and the final paragraph states the author’s argument against that view.
(B) The second paragraph proposes a hypothesis for which the final paragraph offers a supporting example.
(C) The final paragraph qualifies the claim made in the second paragraph.
(D) The final paragraph describes a problem that must be solved before the method advocated in the second paragraph can be considered viable.
5. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) While pollen evidence can sometimes supplement other sources of historical information, its applicability is severely limited, since it cannot be used to identify plant species.
(B) Analysis of fossilized pollen is a useful means of supplementing and in some cases correcting other sources of information regarding changes in the Gangetic Valley plains.
(C) Analysis of fossilized pollen has provided new evidence that the cultivation of such crops as cereal grains, flax, and turmeric had a significant impact on the Gangetic Valley plains.
(D) Analysis of fossilized pollen has proven to be a valuable tool in the identification of ancient plant species.
Directions (Q. 6 – Q. 8): In each of the following questions, a word is highlighted. Choose the word which is a synonym of the highlighted word.
6. The systematic vilification of facts and expertise, the violent abnegation of diverse thought, the constant blasts of paranoia-stoking crime reports and patriotic sound bites on an inescapable news network—could this be more now?
(A) indulgence (B) denial
(C) acceptance (D) adoption
7. Her 2014 autobiography, A Fighting Chance, and recent stump speeches are festooned in pep club spirit and folksy blandishments, cloying bits of business that have attached themselves to her life story.
(A) cajolery (B) roughness
(C) criticism (D) bully
8. Were other international trade negotiations to be put back because of the virus — for example those being conducted between London and Washington — Britain’s government could start to look obdurate about the Brexit talks.
(A) sensitive (B) illusive
(C) flexible (D) callous
Directions (Q. 9 – Q. 11): Complete the following sentences with an appropriate irregular verb and one of these phases.
ailet question
9. The road repairs might delay traffic.
(A) I – b (B) VII – c
(C) VI – g (D) III – f
10. All the bijouterie have now been recovered.
(A) VII – a (B) III – f
(C) VI – a (D) III – a
11. The admonition about their behaviour on the pitch was ignored.
(A) I – a (B) VII – b
(C) VI – g (D) IV – c
Directions (Q. 12 – Q. 13): Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.
12. Back
1. Noun a. The back portion of the house is in dilapidated condition.
2. Adverb b. In a coalition government a number of parties back the single largest party to form the government.
3. Adjective c. There is a road at the back of this theater.
4. Verb d. She has come back from America.
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
13. Near
1. Adjective a. Draw near while I speak to you.
2. Verb b. There is a mango tree near our house.
3. Adverb c. Lajwanti is a near relative of mine.
4. Preposition d. I am nearing the end of the given work.
(A) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(C) 4-c, 1-b, 2-d, 3-a (D) 3-c, 2-b, 1-a, 4-d
Directions (Q. 14 – Q. 16): Observe the following sentences where some changes are made in the sentence but keeping the sense of the sentence same. In the following questions, the sentences have some element of similarity. You have to find out the similarity and choose the option which is odd one out.
14. (A) His behaviour displeased his officers.
His officers were displeased at his behaviour.
(B) One must respect one’s elders. One’s elders must be respected.
(C) I said, “Do not speak of the past.”
I advised him not to speak of the past.
(D) A crash radio message was handed over to me. They handed over a crash radio message to me.
15. (A) I don’t expect to see him back here.
I don’t expect that I will see him back here.
(B) In spite of his poverty, he is satisfied. He is poor but he is satisfied.
(C) He gave them not only food but some money also. Besides food, he gave him some money also.
(D) Escaping arrest, he ran away.
He ran away in order to escape arrest.
16. (A) The teacher was strict but always loving.
Though the teacher was strict, she was always loving.
(B) He is very rich and can buy a car. He is so rich that he can buy a car.
(C) He ran hard but missed the bus. Although he ran, he missed the bus.
(D) You know what my errand is. You know my errand.
Direction (Q. 17 – Q. 22): Choose the sentence which is correct grammatically.
17. (A) “Mr. Sharma has conveyed his heart-felt thanks to the Principal of the school and its management for their support to the cause of children with special needs.”
(B) “The government was adviced to take immediate steps”.
(C) This colt will make a good mare.
(D) Is your mother the executrix of this deed?
18. (A) You have fallen in bad company.
(B) Please run through the book.
(C) He set every thing to naught.
(D) He is calling you a bad name.
19. (A) All of the reptiles lay eggs.
(B) Waiting in the queue for half an hour, Jay suddenly realised that he had left his wallet at home.
(C) ‘Do you think Meena will remember your birthday?’ ‘I suspect not.’
(D) The coffee in this coffee shop is the best one in town.
20. (A) He has a shave every morning, but you wouldn’t think he had.
(B) Supposing you don’t get the job – what will you do then?
(C) The strikes were mainly concerned about working conditions.
(D)She is quite younger than me.
ailet questions
Direction (Q. 23 – Q. 26): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.
question
Directions (Q. 27 – Q. 29): Replace the underlined word/words with one of these two- or three-word verbs in an appropriate form.
27. If I tell you the secret, you must promise not to tell anyone else.
(A) let in on (B) bring in
(C) put down to (D) shoot down
28. They’re going to suffer a lot of criticism for increasing bus fares by so much.
(A) put down to (B) gather up
(C) come in for (D) put up with
29. It’s best to attribute his bad mood to tiredness and just forget it.
(A) flick through (B) put down to
(C) take on (D) see through
Direction (Q. 30 – Q. 35): Choose the best word to fill in the blanks
30. Owing to the combination of its proximity and ………………. atmosphere, Mars is the only planet in our solar system whose surface details can be discerned from the Earth.
(A) viscous (B) ossified
(C) rarefied (D) copious
31. Using the hardships of the Ganguli family as a model, Jhumpa Lahiri’s The Namesake
effectively demonstrated how one clan’s struggles epitomized the experienced by an entire community.
(A) reticence (B) quiescence
(C) verisimilitude (D) tribulation
32. The Pyramid of Giza is more than just edifice; this imposing structure was
built to create a chirping echo whenever people clap their hands on the staircase.
(A) a venerable (B) a specious
(C) a prosaic (D) a humble
33. Some wealthy city-dwellers become enchanted with the prospect of trading their hectic schedules for a bucolic life in the countryside, and they buy property with a pleasant view of farmland – only to find the stench of the livestock so that they move back
to the city.
(A) bovine (B) atavistic
(C) olfactory (D) noisome
34. When Sheena brought home the irascible puppy, her more quiescent dogs were rattled by their new housemate.
(A) languid (B) bellicose
(C) diminutive (D) phlegmatic
35. Despite the vast amount of time Tarun dedicated to learning six different languages, he was ……………… communicator; his mastery of vocabulary and grammar failed to redress his inability to redress his inability to construct cogent prose.
(A) an astute (B) a prolific
(C) a maladroit (D) a florid

Expected AILET Exam Questions 2025

SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Bru Settlement is regarding Bru refugee crisis and it was entered between:
(A) Central Government, Tripura, Mizoram and Reang Tribe
(B) Central Govt. and Indian Coffee Trade Association
(C) Tripura, Mizoram and Reang Tribe
(D) Central Government, Indian Coffee Trade Association and Reang Tribe

37. Which Movie won the Best Picture in 92nd Academy Awards 2020?
(A) Joker (B) Parasite

(C) Jojo Rabbit (D) Once Upon a Time in Hollywood
38. Which State in India tops the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) India Index 2019?
(A) Kerala (B) Gujarat
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Himachal

39. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Blue Dot Network (BDN)?
(A) Blue Dot network is an initiative to grade the infrastructure projects in terms of debt, environment safety, labour standards, etc.
(B) The Blue Dot Network project is being led by USA. Japan and Australia.
(C) BDN offer public funds or loans for the project.
(D) It is expected to serve as a globally recognised evaluation and certification system with a focus on the Indo-Pacific region.

40. Who among the following is not a recipient of Padma Vibhushan Award 2020?
(A) Sushma Swaraj (B) George Fernandez
(C) Arun Jaitley (D) Teejan Bai
41. Which of the following from India is included in the SCO list of eight wonders of the world?
(A) Soho House (B) Statue of Unity
(C) Signature Bridge (D) Ajanta Caves

42. Which of the following statements on Bond Yields is /are true?
I. Yield from Government Bond is always lower than yields from corporate bonds.
II. When the economy is in recession, the Bond Yields usually tends to decrease.
III. Government Bonds are known as Treasury Bills in India.
IV. When the Bond price increases then Bond Yield decreases.

(A) II, IV (B) I, III
(C) I, II, III (D) I, II, III, IV

43. Which of the following first-ever talked about the concept of ‘Sustainable Development’?
(A) Earth Summit 1992 (B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Paris Summit (D) Brundtland Report

44. In Global Democracy Index 2019, which of the following criteria is the main reason for India’s sliding ranking?
(A) Electoral process and pluralism
(B) Civil liberties
(C) Functioning of government
(D) Political participation
45. From which of the following sites, the female skeleton 16614 is recovered whose DNA sequencing has revealed that the people in the Indus Valley Civilization have an independent origin?
(A) Ganveriwala (B) Mohenjo-Daro

(C) Dholavira (D) Rakhigarhi
46. Tishreen Revolution of 2019 is regarding:
I. Corruption
II. unemployment
III. inefficient public services
V. to stop Iranian intervention in Iraq

(A) I, II (B) II, III
(C) I, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

47. The term Cytokine Storm is related to which of the following?
(A) Earth’s Weather (B) Human body’s Immune system
(C) Atomic energy (D) Space Exploration
48. What is the main reason of people’s protest in Hong Kong in 2019-20?
(A) Unemployment (B) Economic slow down
(C) Extradition law (D) labour laws

49. Which of the following is/are not true about the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)?
I. India is an observer to OIC.
II. Only Muslim majority states are members to the body.
III. It is the second largest inter-governmental organization after the United Nation.
IV. The recent summit of the OIC was held in Mecca, Saudi Arabia.
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, II, III
(C) I, II (D) III, IV
50. Who won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2019 for Journalism?
(A) Ravish Kumar (B) Dibang
(C) Sudhir Chaudhary (D) Rahul Kanwal

51. Who is the writer of the patriotic song Saare Jahan Se Accha ?
(A) Allama Mohd. Iqbal (B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (D) Kavi Pradeep
52. Apple has started a credit card named “Apple Card” in collaboration with which of the following companies?
(A) MasterCard (B) CitiBank
(C) American Express (D) Goldman Sachs

53. India has signed the Singapore Convention on Mediation in 2019. It is regarding –
(A) Cross-border river disputes
(B) Cross-border commercial disputes
(C) Terrorism
(D) War crimes

54. Consider the following statements:

I. The Administer, appointed by the President, is the constitutional head of the Union Territory.
II. The relationship of the Union Territories with the Central Government is a part of the federal structure.
Which of the abovementioned statements is/are correct?
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) I, II (D) None

55. Where is the Nine Dash Line located?
(A) South China Sea (B) North Atlantic Ocean
(C) Arctic Ocean (D) East Philippine Sea

56. What is the duration of Solar Cycle?
(A) 100 years (B) 6 months
(C) 11 years (D) 12 months

57. Which city in the World is declared the Most Liveable City in 2019?
(A) Melbourne (B) Vienna
(C) Sydney (D) Osaka

58. The Central Board of Secondary Education has collaborated with which of the following companies for developing Artificial Intelligence (AI) based tools for learning in schools?
(A) IBM (B) Google
(C) Intel (D) Wipro

59. Who has said “How dare you? You have stolen my dreams, my childhood with your empty word.”?
(A) Malala Yousafzai (B) Greta Thunberg
(C) Jaden Anthony (D) Martinez

60. Sound cannot travel through
(A) Gas (B) Liquid
(C) Metal (D) Vacuum
61. The chemical component which is found in most of the virus is –
(A) Protein (B) Lipids
(C) DNA (D) RNA

62. Ajanta Caves depicts paintings and sculptures from which of the following?
(A) Panchtantra Tales (B) Animals
(C) Jataka Tales (D) dance forms

63. In which of the following countries, a law to criminalize fake news came into effect in October 2019?
(A) Singapore (B) Finland
(C) China (D) India

64. ‘Singularity’ has been in the news in the context of the Black Hole image. It refers to which of the following?

(A) Gravitational waves generated by the merger of Black Holes.
(B) The boundary around a Black Hole, beyond which no light or other radiation can escape.
(C) It is a stage in the life-cycle of a star.
(D) It is the centre of the Black Hole, which contains a huge mass in an infinitely small space, where density and gravity become infinite.

65. Who has been elected as the Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha?
(A) Rjiv Gauba (B) Om Birla
(C) Adhir Ranjan Chowdhary (D) Sumitra Mahajan

66. Who among the following became youngest ever elected Member of Parliament in India?
(A) Dushyant Chautala (B) Tejasvi Surya
(C) Chandrani Murmu (D) Raksha Khadse
67. Who has been appointed India’s first Lokpal?
(A) Justice (retd.)Pinaki Chandra Ghose (B) Shri. Suresh Mathur
(C) Justice (retd.) A. D. Koshal (D) Justice (retd.) A.K. Sikri
68. Who has been declared the winner of the Nobel Peace Prize, 2019?
(A) Abhijit Banerjee
(B) Abdel Fattah el-Sisi, President of Egypt
(C) Greta Thunberg, Climate Activist
(D) Abiy Ahmed Ali, the Prime Minister of Ethiopia

69. The Neelakurinji flower, which grows after a period of 12 years, grows in which of the following areas?
(A) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands (B) Lakshadweep
(C) The Western Ghats (D) Arunachal Pradesh

70. Which of the following Statements correctly relates to ‘Pink Tax’?
(A) It is a tax legally imposed on women in some countries.
(B) It is a tax imposed legally, the proceeds of which go for the development of women.
(C) It is the name of the phenomenon wherein women pay more for women specific goods and services.
(D) It is a kind of tax relief given for women specific products.

AILET Expected Paper

SECTION – C : LEGAL APTITUDE

Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 74): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Legal Principles:

1. Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who has a duty to take care but fails to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person would regard as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.
3. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred ‘but for’ the negligence of the defendant.
4. Duty of care is a legal obligation which is imposed on an individual requiring adherence to a standard of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeably harm others.
5. Conversations between a doctor and patient are generally confidential but there are few exceptions.

71. A company called KLM, manufacturers of electrical equipment, was the target of a takeover by ABS Industries. KLM was not doing well. In March 2019, KLM had issued a profit warning, which had halved its share price. In May 2019, KLM’s directors made a preliminary announcement in its annual profits for the year up to March. This confirmed that the position was bad. The share price fell again. At this point, ABS had begun buying up shares in large numbers. In June 2019, the annual accounts, which were done with the help of the accountant Dinesh, were issued to the shareholders, which now included ABS. ABS reached a shareholding of 29.9% of the company, at which point it made a general offer for the remaining shares, as the City Code’s rules on takeovers required. But once it had control, ABS found that KLM’s accounts were in an even worse state than had been revealed by the directors or the auditors. It sued Dinesh for negligence in preparing the accounts and sought to recover its losses. This was the difference in value between the company as it had and what it would have had if the accounts had been accurate. Which of the following answers in incorrect?
(A) No duty of care had arisen in relation to existing or potential shareholders. The only duty of care the auditor`s owed was to the governance of the firm.
(B) Dinesh is not liable as it is a case of pure economic loss in the absence of contractual agreements between parties.
(C) There are circumstances where an auditor will owe a duty of care in respect of reports produced. These are conditional that at the time the report is prepared it is known by the auditors that the results are for a specific class and for a specific purpose.
)D( An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result of a defendant’s conduct automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take care to avoid that loss.

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