Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 Out For All Sets, Download Free PDF

Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025: The Central Board of Secondary Education conducted the crucial CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam on February 25 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. Students are going to appear for the CBSE Class 10th Social Science exam and search for the solutions to the official question paper after the exam’s conclusion. According to the student’s first reaction, the CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam 2025 was easy to moderately difficult. The paper included a balanced mix of theory, map-based, and case-study questions. While most students found the direct questions uncomplicated, some believed that the case-based and assertion-reasoning questions required a more in-depth comprehension of the concepts. To help students get correct answers to every question, we provide the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 on this page.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 is prepared by our in-house experts. The answers provided here will be 100% accurate and will help students match their responses. The correct answers also help students to know the shortcomings in their concept level leading to strengthening of conceptual understanding in the upcoming exams. our subject specialists could issue an unofficial CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 which is completely accurate and as per the latest marking scheme of CBSE. These can assist students in evaluating their performance, precision, and time management skills.

CBSE Class 10 SST Answer Key 2025 for All Sets

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam concluded at 01:30 P.M. Once students return home from the exam centre, they hurry to search for the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer key 2025 online. By utilizing the Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025, students can match their responses to every question from the exam and estimate their scores. They can get the expert-made answer key for all questions in this section. Stay tuned to us to get Social Science board exam questions and answers right away.

CBSE Social Science Answer Key 2025 Set 1

SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions) (20×1=20)

1. Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Bhojpuri
(B) Magadhi
(C) Rajasthani
(D) Tamil

2. In which one of the following organs of India are women taking advantage of reservation?
(A) Municipality
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Judiciary

3. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:
(A) Concurrent List-Education
(B) Concurrent List- Defence
(C) Concurrent List- Police
(D) Concurrent List- Trade

4. Which of the following statements represent gender equality?
(A) The value of women’s vote is more than that of men.
(B) Restricting women to household chores.
(C) Providing more rights to men.
(D) Providing voting rights equally to men and women.

5. To reform the party system, which of the following tasks have been made compulsory for the political parties? Choose the most appropriate option.
1. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to file income tax returns.
II. It is now compulsory for all parties to have one-third women candidates.
III. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to hold their organisational election. muntry of
IV. It is now compulsory for all candidates to disclose information about pending criminal cases against them through affidavit.

Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct. Ho
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

6. Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka ?
(A) Tamil-speakers
(B) Sinhala-speakers
(C) Telugu-speakers
(D) English-speakers

7. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission.
Reason (R) : The Government provides election symbols to all political parties in India.
Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

8. Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data 1 and answer the question that follows:

The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is
(A) 90 percent
(B) 80 percent
(C) 70 percent
(D) 60 percent
9. Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the

9. Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the correct option:

• The objective of this sector is to earn profit.
• This sector is owned by a person or company.
• Tata Iron and Steel is a example of this sector.

Options:
(A) Cooperative Sector
(B) Unorganised Sector
(C) Public Sector
(D) Private Sector

10.’ Why is it not easy to get loans from the formal sector? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option:
I. Availability of Banks
II. Availability of Collateral
III. Long and Complicated Loan Process
IV. Awareness of Borrower
Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

11. By which organization is the Human Development Report published?
(A) World Trade Organisation
(B) Amnesty International
(C) United Nations Development Programme
(D) World Health Organisation

12. Identify the odd one out.
(A) Hindustan Computers Limited
(B) Bharti Airtel Limited
(C) Hindustan Unilever Limited
(D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

13. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:
The process of removing barriers on foreign trade and investment by the government is known as
Options:
(A) Import Tax
(B) Export Tax
(C) Liberalisation
(D) Industrialisation

14. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.
Reason (R) : India is the second largest exporter of jute.
Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: 1

Options:
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

16. Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows grain and other food crops to feed her family. When the soil’s fertility decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use?
(A) Plantation farming
(B) Slash and burn farming
(C) Intensive subsistence farming
(D) Commercial farming

17. The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe’s conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century?
(A) Cholera
(B) Smallpox
(C) Jaundice
(D) Malaria

18. In reference to the Germania allegory the “olive branch around the sword” symbolizes which one of the following?
(A) Being freed
(B) Heroism and strength
(C) Willingness to make peace
(D) Beginning of a new era

19. Which among the following newspapers is related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
(A) Hindustan
(B) Bangla Patrika
(C) Veer Bhoomi
(D) Kesari
20. Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:
I. Bardoli Satyagraha
II. Rowlatt Satyagraha
III Champaran Satyagraha
IV. Kheda Satyagraha
Options:
(A) 1. 11, III, IV
(B) III, II, I, IV
(C) II, I, IV, III
(D) III, IV, II, I

CBSE Class 10th SST Answer Key 2025 for Set 2

1. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
   Assertion (A) : There was civil war in Sri Lanka.
   Reason (R) : An Act was passed in 1956 to secure dominance of Sinhala community on the government.
   Options :
   (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
   (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
   (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
   (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

2. Choose the correct option related to the regional political parties of India: Party Name Election Symbol State
(A) Rashtriya Lok Dal – Mashal – Uttar Pradesh
(B) Telugu Desam – Cycle- Andhra Pradesh
(C) Telangana Rashtra Samiti – Kite – Telangana
(D) Shiromani Akali Dal – Chashma – Punjab
Answer: (B) Telugu Desam – Cycle – Andhra Pradesh

3. Choose the correct option related to Union list.
(A) Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture
(B) Trade, Irrigation, Marriage
(C) Education, Commerce, Banking
(D) Currency, Communication, Defence
Answer: (D) Currency, Communication, Defence

4.Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options:
I.Formation of states on the basis of language made the country more united and stronger.
II.Formation of states on the basis of language made administration easier.
III. Formation of states on the basis of language has weakened the federal structure.
IV. Formation of states on the basis of language led to the development of Indian languages.

Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct. or ha
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Answer: (C) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

5.How is democracy better than other forms of Government ? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) It enhances the dignity of individuals.
(B) It promotes equality among elites.
(C) It promotes tendency of private ownership only.
(D) It increases the individualism.
Answer: (A) It enhances the dignity of individuals.

6.Belgium took some measures to solve its problem. Read the following measures and choose the correct option:
I.Formation of community government.
II.Following majoritarian policy.
III. By providing equal representation of language groups.
IV. By providing additional powers to local governments.
Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Answer: (B) Only I, III, and IV are correct

7. Which state of India has the maximum area under permanent forest?
(A) Haryana
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh

8.Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the option given below:
This is low grade brown coal.
The principal reserves are in Neyveli in Tamilnadu.
It is soft with high moisture content.
Options:
(A) Pit Coal
(B) Anthrasite Coal
(C) Lignite Coal
(D) Bituminous Coal
Answer: (C) Lignite Coal

9. Which among the following crop is known as ‘Golden Fibre’?
(A) Cotton
(B) Wool
(C) Jute
(D) Silk
Answer: (C) Jute

10. Choose the correctly matched pair :

Answer:
Multi-purpose River Project River
(A) Gandhi Sagar Chambal
(B) Hirakud Godavari
(C) Nagarjuna Sagar Kaveri
(D) Salal Beas
11. Rama is a farmer. She needs loan for agriculture work. Which of the following sources of loan will be beneficial for Rama? Choose the most appropriate option :
I. Bank
II. Agricultural Trader
III. Self-Help Group
IV. Government
Options:
(A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(B) Only I, II and III are correct.
(C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Answer: (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.

12. ‘Per capita income’ is criterion for development of which one of the following?
(A) United Nations Development Programme
(B) World Health Organisation
(C) World Trade Organisation
(D) World Bank

Answer: (A) United Nations Development Programme

13. Read the following statements for stimulating the process of globalization and choose the correct options :
I. Government reduces trade barriers.
II. Government reduces competition among producers.
III. Government reduces import and export taxes.
IV. Government removes restrictions on foreign investment.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

14. Which of the following provisions have been made under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act – 2005′?
(A) Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.
(B) Government ensures 200 days of employment for all rural residents.
(C) Government provides grains in exchange of work in rural areas.
D) Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.

Answer: (A) Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.

15. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : Rupees is accepted as medium of exchange in India.
Reason (R) : The World Bank legalises the use of rupee as a medium of Options : payment in India.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

16. Find the odd one out.
(A) Hindustan Computers Limited
(B) Hindustan Unilever
(C) Bharti Airtel Limited
(D) Indian Postal Service

Answer: (D) Indian Postal Service

CBSE Class 10th Social Science Question Paper 2025

The CBSE Class 10 Social Science question paper 2025 becomes available to the public after the conclusion of the exam. Students can get the official question paper of the February 25th Social Science exam here for all sets. The CBSE formulates different sets of question papers for the exam that contain almost identical questions but with little reshuffling to prevent instances of cheating. Download the CBSE Class 10th SST Question Paper 2025 PDF for all sets by simply clicking the direct link shared below.

CBSE Class 10th SST Question Paper 2025 PDF Download

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 PDF Download

Our experts are ready to provide the Class 10 Social Answer Key 2025 for students, eliminating the need to search other sites. Students need to save this page as a bookmark and check it often, as we release the CBSE Social Science Class 10 answer key 2025 for all sets ahead of others. Students can download the PDF for all paper sets from the direct link given in the table below.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Exam Pattern 2025

Students should know the CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam paper pattern to use the answer key effectively to calculate their marks. The CBSE Class 10 Social Studies paper pattern is mentioned below.

• The CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam is held for 80 marks. The passing marks is 33%.
• Students are given 3 hours to solve the CBSE Class 10 Social Science question paper 2025.
• The question paper consists of six sections: A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are a total of 37 questions included in the paper. Every question must be answered.
• Section A – Questions 1–20 are multiple-choice questions, each valued at 1 mark.
• Section B – Questions 21-24 require brief responses and are worth 2 marks each. Every answer to a question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section C includes Short Answer Type Questions (Q.25-Q.29) valued at three marks each. Answers to every question should not exceed 60 words.
• Section D – Questions 30–33 consist of extended answer questions worth 5 marks each. Answers to each question must not exceed 120 words.
• Section-E – Questions 34-36 are based on a case and have three sub-questions, each worth 4 marks. Every response to the questions must not exceed 100 words.
• Section F – Question number 37 is based on a map and carries a value of 5 marks. It is made up of two sections: 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
• There is no comprehensive selection on the exam paper. Certain questions incorporate an internal option. Only one of the options in such inquiries should be tried.
• Distinct guidelines are given for every section and questions when necessary.

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