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The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) is all set to hold one of the most important board exam papers of 2025- Mathematics. The CBSE Class 12 Mathematics board exam 2025 is scheduled for March 06, 2025. Students can find the CBSE Class 12th Maths most important and repeated board exam questions for practice here. After the exam, students can access the official CBSE Class 12 Maths Question Paper 2025 with solutions.
CBSE Class 12 Maths Question Paper 2025
The CBSE Class 12 Mathematics theory exam 2025 is held for 80 marks, the rest 20 marks is allocated for Internal assessment. The CBSE Class 12 Maths question paper 2025 is important for both current and upcoming board students. The official question paper for the CBSE Class 12 Board Exam 2025 is issued after the exam conclusion. Students are given 3 hours to solve the mathematics board exam paper.
CBSE Class 12th Maths Question Paper 2025
The Board prepares different sets of question papers for the CBSE 12th Maths board exam 2025. Prior to upcoming board exams, the official question papers assist students in grasping the exam pattern, key topics, and time allocation. Following the exams, the set-wise CBSE Class 12th Maths Question Papers 2025 along with their answers enable students to verify their response and form a rough assessment of their performance.
CBSE Class 12 Maths Most Expected Questions for Board Exam 2025
With just a few time remaining with students, students should practice the CBSE Class 12 Maths Board Exam 2025 Most Expected Questions shared by experts in their final hours before the exam. These model questions have been shared by the veterans of mathematics filed who have also been formulating the CBSE 12th maths Board exam papers in the past. Such questions or the same concepts are certain to be asked in the exam. Practice these questions to ensure your score 95+ marks in CBSE Class 12 maths board exam 2025.
S.No. | Question |
Q1 | If R = {(a, a³): a is a prime number less than 5} be a relation. Find the range of R. |
Q2 | If f: {1, 3, 4} → {1, 2, 5} and g: {1, 2, 5} → {1, 3} given by f = {(1,2), (3, 5), (4,1)} and g = {(1,3), (2, 3), (5,1)}, write down gof. |
Q3 | Let R be the equivalence relation in the set A = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b): 2 divides (a – b)}. Write the equivalence class [0]. |
Q4 | If R = {(x, y): x + 2y = 8} is a relation on N, then write the range of R. |
Q5 | If A = {1, 2, 3}, S = {4, 5, 6, 7}, and f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)} is a function from A to B, state whether f is one-one or not. |
Q6 | If f : R → R is defined by f(x) = 3x + 2, then define f[f(x)]. |
Q7 | Write fog, if f: R → R and g: R → R are given by f(x) = |
Q8 | Write fog, if f: R → R and g: R → R are given by f(x) = 8x³ and g(x) = x³y. |
Q9 | State the reason for the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} not to be transitive. |
Q10 | What is the range of the function? |
Q11 | Write the value of tan⁻¹(√3) – cot⁻¹(-√3). |
Q12 | Find the principal value of tan⁻¹(√3) – sec⁻¹(-2). |
Q13 | Write the principal value of cos⁻¹[cos(680)°]. |
Q14 | Write the value of cos⁻¹(1/2) – 2 sin⁻¹(1/2). |
Q15 | Using the principal values, write the value of cos⁻¹(1/2) + 2 sin⁻¹(1/2). |
Q16 | What is the principal value of tan⁻¹(-1)? |
Q17 | Write the principal value of sin⁻¹(-1/2). |
Q18 | Write the number of all possible matrices of order 2 × 2 with each entry 1, 2, or 3. |
Q19 | Write the element a of a 3 × 3 matrix A = [aij], whose elements are given by aij = |
Q20 | If A is a square matrix such that A² = A, then write the value of 7A — (I + A)³, where I is an identity matrix. |
Q21 | If a matrix has 5 elements, then write all possible orders it can have. |
Q22 | The total cost C(x) associated with the production of x units of an item is given by C(x) = 0.005x³ – 0.02x² + 30x + 5000. Find the marginal cost when 3 units are produced. |
Q23 | Show that the function f(x) = x³ – 3x² + 6x – 100 is increasing on R. |
Q24 | Show that the function f(x) = 4x³ – 18x² + 27x – 7 is always increasing on R. |
Q25 | The volume of a cube is increasing at the rate of 8 cm³/s. How fast is the surface area increasing when the length of its edge is 12 cm? |
Q26 | The length x of a rectangle is decreasing at the rate of 5 cm/min and the width y is increasing at the rate of 4 cm/min. When x = 8 cm and y = 6 cm, find the rate of change of (i) the perimeter (ii) area of the rectangle. |
Q27 | Using integration, find the area of a triangle whose vertices are (2, 3), (3, 5), and (4, 4). |
Q28 | Using integration, prove that the curves y² = 4x and x² = 4y divide the area of the square bounded by x = 0, x = 4, y = 4, and y = 0 into three equal parts. |
Q29 | Using integration, find the area of the triangular region whose sides have the equations y = 2x + 1, y = 3x + 1, and x = 4. |
Q30 | Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the triangle whose vertices are (-2, 1), (0, 4), and (2, 3). |
Q31 | Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = √(4 − x²), x² + y² − 4x = 0, and the x-axis. |
Q32 | Using integration, find the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the Y-axis, the line y = x, and the circle x² + y² = 32. |
Q33 | Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line x − y + 2 = 0, the curve x = √y, and the Y-axis. |
Q34 | Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = |
Q35 | Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the triangle whose vertices are (-1, 2), (1, 5), and (3, 4). |
Q36 | Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y = x² and the line y = |
Q37 | Find the differential equation representing the family of curves y = ae²ˣ + 5 constant. |
Q38 | Find the differential equation representing the family of curves V = A/r + B, where A and B are arbitrary constants. |
Q39 | Write the differential equation obtained by eliminating the arbitrary constant C in the equation representing the family of curves xy = C cos x. |
Q40 | Write the differential equation representing the family of curves y = mx, where m is an arbitrary constant. |
Q41 | Find the differential equation of the family of curves y = Ae²ˣ + Be⁻²ˣ, where A and B are arbitrary constants. |
Q42 | Form the differential equation of the family of parabolas having the vertex at origin and axis along the positive Y-axis. |
Q43 | Find the differential equation of the family of circles touching the Y-axis at the origin. |
Q44 | Write the solution of the differential equation dy/dx = 2 − y. |
Q45 | Find the unit vector in the direction of the sum of the vectors 2î + 3ĵ − k̂ and 4î − 3ĵ + 2k̂. |
Q46 | Find a vector in the direction of vector 2î − 3ĵ + 6k̂ which has magnitude 21 units. |
Q47 | Find a vector a of magnitude 5√2, making an angle of π/4 with the X-axis, π/2 with the Y-axis, and an acute angle θ with the Z-axis. |
Q48 | Find the angle between the X-axis and the vector î + ĵ + k̂. |
Q49 | Write the direction cosines of vector -2î + ĵ − 5k̂. |
Q50 | What is the cosine of the angle which the vector √2î + ĵ + k̂ makes with the Y-axis? |
Q51 | Find the area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are represented by the vectors 2î − 3k̂ and 4ĵ + 2k̂. |
Q52 | If a line makes angles 90°, 135°, 45° with the x, y, and z axes respectively, find its direction cosines. |
Q53 | What are the direction cosines of a line which makes equal angles with the coordinate axes? |
Q54 | If a line makes angles 90°, 60°, and θ with X, Y, and Z-axis respectively, where θ is an acute angle, then find θ. |
Q55 | Write the distance of a point P(a, b, c) from the X-axis. |
Q56 | Write the vector equation of a line passing through point (1, -1, 2) and parallel to the line whose equation is (x−3)/1 = (y−1)/2 = (z+1)/−2. |
Q57 | Find the vector equation of the line passing through the point A (1, 2, −1) and parallel to the line 5x − 25 = 14 − 7y = 35z. |
Q58 | The x-coordinate of a point on the line joining the points P(2, 2, 1) and Q(5, 1, −2) is 4. Find its z-coordinate. |
Q59 | Two tailors A and B earn ₹300 and ₹400 per day respectively. A can stitch 6 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers, while B can stitch 10 shirts and 4 pairs of trousers per day. To produce at least 60 shirts and 32 pairs of trousers at a minimum labour cost, formulate this as an LPP. |
Q60 | Maximise and minimise Z = x + 2y subject to the constraints x + 2y ≥ 100, 2x – y ≤ 0, 2x + y ≤ 200, x, y ≥ 0. Solve the above LPP graphically. |
Q61 | A company produces two types of goods, A and B, that require gold and silver. Each unit of type A requires 3g of silver and 1g of gold, while type B requires 1g of silver and 2g of gold. The company can use at most 9g of silver and 8g of gold. If each unit of A brings ₹40 and B ₹50, find the number of units of each type to maximize profit. Formulate and solve the LPP graphically. |
Q62 | A retired person wants to invest ₹50,000. His broker recommends investing in two types of bonds A and B yielding 10% and 9% return respectively. He decides to invest at least ₹20,000 in bond A and at least ₹10,000 in bond B, and wants to invest at least as much in bond A as in bond B. Solve this LPP graphically to maximize returns. |
Q63 | Find graphically, the maximum value of Z = 2x + 5y, subject to the constraints: 2x + 4y ≤ 8; 3x + y ≤ 6; x + y ≤ 4; x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0. |
Q64 | If P(not A) = 0.7, P(B) = 0.7, and P(B/A) = 0.5, then find P(A/B). |
Q65 | A and B throw a pair of dice alternately until one of them gets a total of 10 and wins the game. Find their respective probabilities of winning, if A starts first. |
Q66 | Two groups are competing for positions in the Board of Directors. The probabilities that the first and second groups will win are 0.6 and 0.4, respectively. If the first group wins, the probability of introducing a new product is 0.7, and 0.3 for the second group. Find the probability that the new product was introduced by the second group. |
Q67 | A bag A contains 4 black and 6 red balls, and bag B contains 7 black and 3 red balls. A die is thrown. If 1 or 2 appears, bag A is chosen; otherwise, bag B is chosen. If two balls are drawn from the selected bag, find the probability of one being red and the other black. |
Q68 | From a lot of 15 bulbs, including 5 defectives, a sample of 2 bulbs is drawn at random (without replacement). Find the probability distribution of the number of defective bulbs. |
Q69 | Find the mean number of heads in three tosses of a coin. |
Q70 | Find the probability distribution of the number of doublets in three tosses of a pair of dice. |
Q71 | A bag contains 3 red and 7 black balls. Two balls are selected randomly without replacement. If the second selected ball is red, what is the probability that the first selected ball is also red? |
Q72 | Three cards are drawn randomly (without replacement) from a shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the probability distribution of the number of red cards. Hence, find the mean of the distribution. |
Q73 | Two numbers are selected randomly (without replacement) from the integers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. Let X be the larger of the two numbers. Find the mean and variance of the probability distribution of X. |
CBSE 12th Maths Most Repeated Board Questions PDF Download with Solutions
Students can download the CBSE Class 12 Maths most important and most repeated questions for the board exam 2025 in the following PDF. Along with the questions shared by the expert, the PDF also contains the solutions of every question. This will help student know how to write the answer of every question as per the board standard.
CBSE Class 12 Mathematics Most Expected Questions PDF Download
CBSE Class 12 Maths Question Paper 2025 PDF Download All Sets
Students can download the CBSE Class 12 Math board exam 2025 question paper in PDF format here. The official CBSE Class 12 Maths question paper 2025 PDF is presented here after the exam ends. Students can use this question paper to match their responses with the unofficial solution key prepared by the experts. Students can use this paper as a reference to calculate their marks using the marking scheme provided in the paper.
CBSE Class 12 Maths Board Exam Pattern 2025
The CBSE Class 12 Maths question paper 2025 pattern is mentioned below for students.
- This board exam paper includes 38 questions. Every question must be answered.
- The examination paper consists of five sections – A, B, C, D, and E.
- In Section A, Questions 1 to 18 consist of multiple-choice questions (MCQs), while Questions 19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason questions worth 1 mark each.
- In Section B, Questions 21 to 25 are categorized as Very Short Answer (VSA) questions, each worth 2 marks.
- In Section C, Questions 26 through 31 are Short Answer (SA) questions, each worth 3 marks.
- In Section D, Questions 32 to 35 consist of Long Answer (LA) questions, each worth 5 marks.
- In Section E, Questions 36 to 38 are based on a case study and are worth 4 marks each.
- There is no general option. Nonetheless, an internal option has been included in 2 questions in Section B, 3 questions in Section C, 2 questions in Section D, and one subpart each in 2 questions of Section E.
- Calculators are not permitted for use.