CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer key 2024 Out For Set 1,2,3

Geography Answer key 2024

The Central Board of Secondary Education successfully conducted the Class 12 Geography Paper on February 29, 2024, during the Morning Shift from 10:30 a.m. to 1:30 p.m. The majority of the questions on the Geography paper ranged from easy to moderate. Candidates who appeared in the exam are now looking for CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024, which helps them to cross-check their answers and estimate their scores. Bookmark this page to get the CBSE Geography Answer key 2024 Class 12 for all sets at the earliest.

Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024

CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 lets you compare your answers and determine how many were correct and incorrect. The Class 12 Geography Paper is completed at 1:30 p.m.
Following the exam, we post the unofficial CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 for Sets 1–3 on this page. The CBSE Geography Answer key is the most exact and error-free, created by Adda247’s experienced educators.

CBSE Class 12 Geography Marking Scheme

It is critical to understand the marking structure when examining the Class 12 Geography Answer Key. The paper format would be similar to the CBSE Class 12 Geography Sample paper supplied by the board. The CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 has both subject and objective types of questions. The Class 12 Geography question paper is divided into five sections: A, B, C, D, and E. The Section-wise marking structure for the Class 12 Geography Paper 2024 is provided below.

Class 12th Geography Answer Key 2024 CBSE Board

The CBSE Class 12th Geography Answer Key 2024 covers the Section A objective questions asked in the test. Section A has 17 multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each, the answers to which are supplied below.

Class 12 Geography Answer Key and Question Paper Solution 2024

If you took the Class 12 Geography test and are seeking the Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024, you are in the right spot. Adda247 subject matter experts are continually evaluating the answers to the CBSE class 12 Geography test. In this section, we provide the Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 for all sets. Stay tuned to us.

Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 Set 1

SECTION-A
(Q. Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Questions.) (17×1=17)

1. ‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka

Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh

2. Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’?
(A) Writing letters to the people.
(B) Telephonic conversation
(C) Through T.V. and Print Media
(D) Personal contact with people

Answer:(C) Through T.V. and Print Media

3. Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’?
(A) Per capita water availability assurance
(B) Rain-water harvesting
(C) Conservation of water resources
(D) Providing sufficient water for agriculture

Answer: (C) Conservation of water resources

4. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) : “Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.”
Reason (R): Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

5. Which of the following fact, about jute cultivation in India, is true?
(A) West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.
(B) Jute is cash crop for Punjab and Haryana.
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other leading jute producing states.
(D) India produces about 30% of the jute production of the world.

Answer: (A) West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.

6. Read the following information carefully and identify the correct option for the crop :

Grown in Kharif season.
Mainly grown in semi-arid area in India.
Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producer states.

Option:
(A) Cotton
(C) Jute
(B) Tea

Answer: (A) Cotton

7. Which one of the following states in India is the leading producer of manganese?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar

Answer: (C) Odisha

8. Which one of the following is the largest coalfields in India?
(A) Jharia
(B) Raniganj
(C) Neyveli
(D) Bokaro

Answer: (A) Jharia

9. Which of the following waterways and their stretches are correctly matched ?

Answer:(D)

10. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

Options:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (ii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Answer: (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

11. Which of the following metro-cities is not linked with the ‘Golden Quadrilateral’?
(A) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(D) Delhi

Answer: (C) Hyderabad

12 Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “The gateways of the International trade are the porta and harbours.”
Reason (R): Only heavy cargos are transported through ports and harbours in the world.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer. (A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

13. Which one of the following is an example of oil port?
(A) Abadan
(B) Manchester
(C) Kochchi
(D) Dever
Answer. (A) Abadan

14. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “Waterway is an important mode of transport both for passengers and cargo traffic in
India.”
Reason (R): “It is fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.”

Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (RO) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
Answer. (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

Read the given passage and answer the Question Nos. 15 to 17:

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others.
Many of these countries has been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialised western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

15. Which one of the following is an important priority of ‘high human development index’ countries ? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Education and healthcare
(B) Healthcare and territorial security
(C) Education and industrial development.
(D) Economic development and per capita income

Answer.(A) Education and healthcare

16. Which one of the followings differentiates the higher human development countries from others? Choose the most appropriate option.
(A) Higher gross domestic production
(B) Higher investment in social sector
(C) Higher industrialization
(D) Higher per capita income

Answer.(B) Higher investment in social sector

17. How many countries are under ‘high human development index’ category? Choose the correct option.
(A) 51
(B) 52
(C) 53
(D) 54

Answer: (C) 53

Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2024 Set 3

SECTION-A
(Q. Nos. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Questions.)
(17 x 1 = 17)

1. Which of the following is a means of mass awareness regarding ‘water conservation’?
(A) Writing letters to the people. (B) Telephonic conversation
(C) Through T.V. and Print Media (D) Personal contact with people

2. Which one of the following is the main objective of ‘Jal Kranti Abhiyan’?
(A) Per capita water availability assurance
(B) Rain-water harvesting
(C) Conservation of water resources
(D) Providing sufficient water for agriculture

3. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read them carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): “Free international trade can prove to be detrimental to the under-developed countries.”
Reason (R): Under-developed countries are not at par to compete with developed countries.
Options:
(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

4. ‘Neeru-Meeru’ watershed management programme is associated with which of the following states?
(A) Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(D) Karnataka

5. The Central Government sponsored ‘Haryali’ Watershed Development Project was executed by which one of the followings?
(A) District Magistrates with the help of other officers.
(B) Block Development officers with reputed people’s participation.
(C) Circle Officers with guidance of school principals.
(D) Gram Panchayats with people’s participation

6. Read the following information carefully and identify the correct optuon for the crop :
Grown in Kharif season.
Mainly grown in semi-arid area in India.
Gujarat and Maharashtra are the leading producer states.

Option:
(A) Cotton
(C) Jute
(B) Tea
(D) Sugarcane

8. In which one of the following states Badampahar iron-ore mines located? are
(A) Telangana
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Odisha
(D) Chhattisgarh

9. Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

10. ‘Atal Tunnel’ was built by which one of the following?
(A) National Highway Authority of India
(B) Border Road Organisation
(C) Himachal Pradesh Highway Authority
(D) Punjab Highway Authority

11. Which of the following metro-cities is not linked with the ‘Golden Quadrilateral’?
(A) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(D) Delhi

Note: Answers to the remaining questions will be shared soon.

CBSE Class 12 Geography Paper Analysis

After finishing the CBSE Geography Test, We provide the whole CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Analysis 2024 below. We discuss the difficulty level of the test, out-of-syllabus questions, and faults in the question paper in CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Analysis 2024. The Section-wise difficulty level of the Class 12 Geography Exam is shared in the table below.

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Analysis 2024: Students Reviews

The CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam is over. We spoke with the students to learn about the geography paper, its difficulty level, and so on. Check out the students’ reaction to the CBSE Class 12 geography exam.

• According to the students, the difficulty of the geography question paper ranged from easy to moderate.
• Students regarded the geography paper to be lengthy but manageable.
• Everything was based on the prescribed syllabus and the NCERT.
• The multiple-choice question segment was simple and effective.
• Map-based questions were relatively difficult.
• The language used in the questions was straightforward, making it easier for students to understand the needs of the questions.

Class 12th Geography Paper Analysis 2024: Expert Review

Subject experts examined the CBSE Class 12 geography paper and determined that it was easy to moderately difficult. A full expert analysis can be seen below:

• Subject teachers said the paper was well-balanced and of moderate difficulty.
• There were no questions asked outside of the authorized syllabus.
• The paper pattern follows the one described in CBSE’s official sample paper.
• Students who have thoroughly covered the course will be able to perform well in the exam.
• Long-answer questions were easy yet lengthy.

CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

here we provide you the CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2024 PDF. Candidates may download Class 12 Geography Question Papers and analyze the Class 12 Chemistry Answer key to calculate their expected scores. These CBSE 12 Geography Papers help the students who are going to appear in the board exam next year.

CBSE Class 12 geography exam pattern

The CBSE 12th geography paper will contain 30 questions divided into five sections. All of these questions are mandatory. Below is the allocation of questions based on the CBSE sample paper:

• Section A – Questions number 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice type questions carrying 1 mark
  each.
• Section B- Questions number 18 and 19 are Source-based questions carrying 3 marks each.
• Section C- Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer type questions carrying 3 marks
  each. Answers to these questions shall be written in 80 to 100 words.
• Section D- Questions number 24 to 28 are long answer-type questions carrying 5 marks
  each. Answers to these questions shall be written in 120 to 150 words.
• Section E- Questions number 29 and 30 are map-based questions.

Class 12 Geography Answer Key Set 3

Q1. Which among the following is an economic factor responsible for the uneven distribution of population?

a) Urbanisation
b) Soils
c) Climate
d) Political unrest

Answer- a) Urbanisation

Q2. Which one of the following is a thickly populated region?

a) The Himalayan region
b) Osaka-Kobe region of Japan
c) Siberian region of Russia
d) Central Chile

Answer- b) Osaka-Kobe region of Japan 

Q3. Which one of the following is the push factor responsible for migration?

a) Better job opportunities
b) Unpleasant climate
c) Peace and stability
d) Security to life and property

Answer- b) Unpleasant climate 

Q4. Which one of the following is an important region for subsistence gathering?

a) South Africa
b) Amazon Rasin
c) Indonesia
d) Mexico

Answer- c) Indonesia

Q5. Read the following feature of cottage manufacturing and choose the correct option-

I. Place of manufacturing outside the home
II. It is the smallest unit of manufacturing
III. Use local raw materials
IV. Sample tools are used
Options-
a) Only I, II, and III are correct
b) Only II, III, and IV are correct
c) Only I, II, and IV are correct
d) Only I, III, and IV are correct

Answer- b) Only II, III, and IV are correct

Q6. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Options-

a) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv- 1
b) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv- 4
c) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv- 1
d) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv- 3

Answer- c) i-3, ii-3, iii-2, iv- 1

Q7. Which one of the following features is correct regarding nomadic herding?

a) Nomadism is a modern commercial activity
b) It is practiced in permanent pastures
c) A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions
d) Nomadism is associated with modern technology

Answer- c) A wide variety of cattle are reared in different regions

Q10. Which one of the following is the easternmost station of the East-West corridor?

a) Guwahati
b) Bhopal
c) Kolkata
d) Silchar

Answer- d) Silchar 

Q11. Which of the following is not a feature of dryland farming?

a) It is practised where the annual amount of rainfall is less than 75 cm.
b) Practised in black soil areas
c) Drought resistant crops are grown
d) Measures are taken to preserve soil moisture

Answer- d) Measures are taken to preserve soil moisture

Q12. Which of the following is the smallest linguistic group in India?

a) Austric
b) Dravidian
c) Indo-European
d) Sino-Tibetan

Answer- d) Sino-Tibetan

Q13. Which one of the following is the feature of clustered settlement?

a) They are fragmented
b) They are isolated
c) Closely built-up areas of houses
d) Units are known as panna, para, palli etc.

Answer- c) Closely built-up areas of houses

Q14. Which one of the following states has the highest population?

a) Bihar
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Maharashtra
d) Bihar

Answer- b) Uttar Pradesh

Geography Class 12 Answer Key Set- 1

Section – A

• In a developed economy, the majority of workers get employment in which of the following sectors of economy?
(A) Primary sector
(B) Secondary sector
(C) Tertiary sector
(D) Quaternary sector
Answer: (B) Secondary sector

•Which of the following is NOT a key area in human development?
(A) Access to resources
(B) Long and healthy life
(C) Education
(D) Economic disadvantage
Answer: (D) Economic disadvantage

• Which one of the following activities is related to quaternary activities?
(A) Production of information
(B) Fishing
(C) Tourism
(D) Trading
Answer: (A) Production of information

•Which one of the following approaches was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO)?
(A) Income Approach
(B) Welfare Approach
(C) Basic Needs Approach
(D) Capability Approach
Answer: (C) Basic Needs Approach

• Who, among the following economists created the Human Development Index in the year 1990?
(A) Prof. Amartya Sen
(B) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(C) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq
(D) Ellen C. Semple
Answer: (C) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq

• Modern manufacturing is NOT characterised by which one of the following?
(A) A complex machine technology
(B) Vast capital
(C) Small organisation
(D) Executive bureaucracy

Answer: (C) Small organisation

• Identify the feature of mixed farming from the following:
(A) It is most advanced and efficient type of rearing milch animals
(B) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry
(C) It was introduced by the Europeans in colonies
(D) The regions where farmers specialised in vegetables only

Answer: (B) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry

• Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of retail trading?
(A) It is concerned with sale of goods directly to the consumers.
(B) Most of the retail trading takes place in fixed establishments
(C) Most of the retail stores procure their supplies from intermediate stores.
(D) Retail trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.

Answer: (D) Retail trading constitutes bulk business through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.

• Which of the following commission replaced ‘Planning Commission’? 
(A) Election Commission
(B) NITI Aayog
(C) Law Commission
(D) Education Commission

Answer: (B) NITI Aayog

• Which of the following is an example of ancient town?
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Chennai
(C) Prayag
(D) Lucknow

Answer: (A) Hyderabad

• Choose the correct pair from the following:
(A) Industrial town – Vishakhapatnam
(B) Transport town – Satna
(C) Commercial town – Bhilai
(D) Administrative town – Bhopal

Answer: (D) Administrative town – Bhopal

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