How many sections are in CUET Biology Syllabus?

The CUET Biology syllabus 2024 is broken down into five sections.These units are Reproduction, Genetics and Evolution, Biology and Human Welfare,Biotechnology, and Its Applications,Ecology, and Environment

How many question asked in the CUET Biology Section?

The CUET Biology section comprises of 50 multiple choice questions (MCQs). Candidates must attempt 40 out of 50 questions.

CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 with Solutions

Table of Contents

CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 PDF is a necessary study material for all CUET UG aspirants. The CUET 2024 exam has started. we have shared the Memory Based CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 on this page, This CUET Memory Based Biology Question Paper 2024 will help you comprehend the different forms of CUET Biology questions. Our Adds247 team provides the CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 with solutions. Candidates who have exams coming up must go through the CUET Memory Based Biology Question Paper 2024 given below.

CUET Biology Question Paper 2024: Syllabus

The CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 is completely based on the CUET biology syllabus provided by NTA. The CUET Biology syllabus 2024 is broken down into five sections. These units are:

Reproduction,
Genetics and Evolution,
Biology and Human Welfare,
Biotechnology, and Its Applications,
Ecology, and Environment

CUET Biology Syllabus 2024 Pdf Download

CUET 2024 Biology Question Paper with Solutions

Watch the Video to know the CUET UG Biolgy paper analysis and answer key

CUET UG Biology Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

Here we have provided the the CUET UG 2024 Biology Question paper with solutions PDF in given below. Students can download the pdf to match their given response with the correct answers.

CUET Biology Paper with Solutions PDF
CUET UG 2024 Biology Question paper	Answer key

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CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 with Answers

The CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 along with the answer key is available here. Our Adda247 team prepares the CUET Biology Answer Key 2024 which helps students to predict their scores in the biology check check out the CUET Biology Answer Key 2024 given in the table below.

S.No	Question	Answer
1	Match List I with List II	Anteater – Numbat Bobcat – Tasmanian Tiger Cat Lemur – Spotted Cuscus Flying Squirrel – Flying Phalanger
2	Match List I with List II	Statin – Monascus Clot Buster – Streptococcus Swiss Cheese – Monascus Cyclosporin-A – Trichoderma
3	The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is	Ladybird
4	The downstream processing method involves	Purification
5	Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organisms and its respective cell enzyme?	Alage – Methylase
6	Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end.	2 – B, A, C, E, D
7	Which of the following statements are true?	Milk obtained from Rosie… Transgenic animals help us to understand…
8	Match List I with List II	1 – Antitrypsin – Treat Emphysema CryIAc – Cotton Ballworms Antisense RNA – Meloidegyne Incognitia cryIAB – Corn Borer
9	When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in	Alkaline pH of the Gut
10	Match List I with List II	Commensalism – One species is benefits and the other remains unaffected Mutualism – Both the species are benefitted Amensalism – One species is harmed and the other is unaffected Parasitism – One species is benefitted at the expense of the other
11	The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of	Inorganic nutrients from humans
12	Choose the correct statement with respect to decomposition from the following	Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it Humification follows mineralisation
13	Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of pregnancy?	MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific grounds
14	Match List I with List II	Standing State – Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time Secondary Productivity – Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers Standing Crop – Mass of living matter in a tropical at a given time Net Primary Productivity – Available Biomass for the Consumption of Heterotrophs
15	Match List I with List II	ZIFT – Transfer of fertilized eggs up to 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube ICSI -Formation of the embryo in vitro by injecting sperm directly into the ovum IUI – Transfer of semen from a healthy donor into the uterus artificially IUT – Transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube
16	Saheli – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as once a week pill was developed by	CDRI
17	Which of the following is not a characteristic of the stable biological community	All the species are equally important in a stable community and the absence of anyone leads to instability
18	In the river poppet hypothesis, the river signifies	Species
19	The scientist who proved the richness directly correlated with the stability of the community was	David Tilman
20	Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?	Fishes
21	Cells present in the mature pollen grains are	Vegetative Cell and Generative Cell
22	Match the Following	Filiform apparatus – Guides Pollen tube into the synergid Tapetum – Nourishes the Pollen Grain Exine – Made up of sporopollenin Attachment of ovule to the placenta
23	The primary endosperm nucleus is the product of	Triple fusion
24	In humans, mammary glands are divided into	15 – 20
25	Sex in human embryos is determined by	X and Y chromosomes of sperm
26	Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of occurrence	2 (B, C, D A)
27	Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?	1 (Pink and White Flowers)
28	Failure of Cromatids to segregate during the cell division cycle results in?	3 (Aneuploidy)
29	Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anaemia	1 (C and D only)
30	Match the List-I with List-II	1 (A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III)
31	Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?	3 (B and D only)
32	Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end.	3 – (B, A, D, C)
33	Nucleosome is associated with…molecules of histones	4 (Eight)
34	Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct	3 (A, C and E only)
35	Analogous structures are a result of	1 – Convergent evolution
36	Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Wember equilibrium?	3 – Gene Pool
37	Which of the following primates was more like an ape?	2 – Dryopithecus
38	Match List I with List II	1 – (A – II), (B – IV), (C – I), (D -III)
39	Identify the Incorrect Statements	3 (D only – Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella)
40	Match List I with List II	Cytokine Barriers – Interferons Physical Barriers – Mucus Coating Cellular Barriers – Phagocytosis Physiological Barriers – Tears from Eyes
41	Smack is chemically	1 – Diacetyl Morphine
42	Antibodies are secreted by	2 – B-Cells
43	In sewage treatment, flocs are	3 – The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments
44	Full Form of GEAC	Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
45	In a country at any time, the popular has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect?	3 – Stable
46	Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle by’	2
47	In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers?	4 – Sea
48	Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?	2 – Filariasis

CUET Memory Based Biology Question Paper 2024 with Solutions: Last Year

Q1. Match the following:

	List I		List II
(A)	Alexander Flemming	(i)	Propionibacterium sharmanii.
(B)	Citric acid	(ii)	Penicillin
(C)	Cyclosporin A,	(iii)	Aspergillus niger
(D)	Swiss cheese	(iv)	Trichoderma polysporum.

(a) (A) = (ii), (B) = (iii), (C) = (iv), (D) = (i)
(b) (A) = (i), (B) = (iv), (C) = (iii), (D) = (ii)
(c) (A) = (iii), (B) = (ii), (C) = (iv), (D) = (i)
(d) (A) = (i), (B) = (ii), (C) = (iii), (D) = (iv)
Ans.(a)

Q2. Which of the following is a biological control that is being developed for use in the treatment of plant diseases?

(a) Baculoviruses
(b) Trichoderma
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) All of the above
Ans.(b)

Q3. Which of the following is also called as ‘brewer’s yeast’?
(a) Clostridium butylicum
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Acetobacter aceti
(d) Aspergillus niger

Ans.(b)

Q4. Match the following:

	List I		List II
(A)	Streptokinase	(i)	blood-cholesterol lowering agents
(B)	Statins	(ii)	used in detergent formulations
(C)	Lipases	(iii)	Used in clarification of bottles fruit juices
(D)	Pectinases	(iv)	used as a ‘clot buster’ for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial infarction

(a) (A) = iii, (B) = ii, (C) = iv, (D) = i
(b) (A) = ii, (B) = iii, (C) = i, (D) = iv
(c) (A) = iv, (B) = i, (C) = ii, (D) = iii…
(d) (A) = iii, (B) = ii, (C) = i, (D) = iv
Ans.(c)

Q5. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria are known to have descendants of a particular disease. The disease was.
(a) Colour-blindness
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Sickle cell anaemia
(d) Thalassemia

Ans.(b)
Q6. Identify the correct complementary base pairing among the following?
(a) Adenine + Guanine, Cytosine + Thymine
(b) Thymine + Guanine, Adenine + Cytosine
(c) Adenine + Thymine, Cytosine + Guanine
(d) Adenine + Adenine, Cytosine + Thymine
Ans.(c)
Q7. What will happen if we add Azotobacter to a wheat crop?
(a) Soil will become rich in nitrogen content
(b) Soil will lose its water holding capacity
(c) The roots of the plants will die
(d) The roots of the plant will grow rapidly
Ans.(a)

Q8. Which of the following RNA provides the template during bacterial translation?
(a) t-RNA
(b) m-RNA
(c) r-RNA
(d) hn-RNA
Ans.(b)

Q9. Match the following

	List I		List II
(A)	RNA polymerase I	(i)	methyl guanosine triphosphate D
(B)	Tailing	(ii)	Small nuclear RNA C
(C)	RNA polymerase III	(iii)	Adenylate residues B
(D)	Capping	(iv)	rRNAs A

(a) (A) = iv, (B) = iii, (C) = ii, (D) = i
(b) (A) = ii, (B) = iv, (C) = i, (D) = iii
(c) (A) = iii, (B) = i, (C) = iv, (D) = iii
(d) (A) = i, (B) = ii (C) = iii, (D) = iv
Ans.(a)
Q10. Where does the process of microsporogenesis takes place?
(a) Ovule
(b) Placenta
(c) Anther
(d) Locule
Ans.(c)

Q11. What is the chromosome number in the meiocytes of maize?
(a) 46
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 34
Ans.(c)
Q12. Which of the following is correct about oral pills?
(a) They contain estrogen
(b) They contain relaxin
(c) They contain progestogen and estrogen
(d) They contain testosterone
Ans.(c)
Q13. In food chain, if there is 5000 joules of energy available to the producer then how much energy will be available to the secondary consumer?
(a) 500 J
(b) 50 J
(c) 5 J
(d) 0.5 J
Ans.(b)
Q14. The process of conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa is called.
(a) Spermiation
(b) Spermiogenesis
(c) Spermatogenesis
(d) Sporogeneses

Ans.(b)
Q15. The Leydig cells produce.
(a) Seminal plasma
(b) Progesterone
(c) Androgens
(d) All of the above
Ans.(c)
Q16. The process of aeration is done at which of the following step of sewage treatment?
(a) Primary treatment
(b) Secondary treatment
(c) Biological treatment
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans.(d)
Q17. Secondary succession takes place at.
(a) Newly cooled lava
(b) Burned forests
(c) Bare rock
(d) All of the above
Ans.(b)
Q18. External fertilisation takes place in which of the following?
(a) Fishes
(b)Amphibians
(c) Majority of algae
(d) All of the above

Ans.(d)
Q19. Which of the following step is irrelevant with respect to gel electrophoresis?
(a) DNA moves under the influence of electric feild
(b) Denaturation of DNA takes place
(c) DNA moves towards anode
(d) The matrix used is agarose
Ans.(b)
Q20. Which of the following activity may spoil our health?
(a) Eating junk food
(b) Maintenance of food and water hygiene
(c) Practising yoga
(d) Regular exercise

Ans; Ans.(a)
Q21. What was the reason for the extinction of the passenger pigeon and Steller’s cow?
(a) Alen species invasion
(b) Over-exploitation by humans
(c) Co-extinctions
(d) Habitat loss
Ans. (b)

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