CUET English Question Paper 2024 with Solutions, Download PDF

The NTA successfully concluded the CUET exam papers in May 2024 for all subjects including the English language subject. Now the CUET English Question Paper 2024 with solutions in a detailed manner is being provided here by the expert faculty of Adda247. The CUET UG English Question Paper is very beneficial for candidates whose exam is scheduled in the upcoming days. This CUET English Question Paper will help you to understand the types of questions asked

CUET English Question Paper 2024

The CUET English Question Paper 2024 with solutions for each day shift wise has been provided here. Our Adda247 Team has prepared this based on a review of the applicants who took the English. Using this paper & Solutions Students can predict their expected scores in their exam before the result announcement. This CUET English paper indicates the difficulty level and types of questions that help students whose exams are scheduled in upcoming shifts.

CUET UG English Question Paper Important Topics

After analysis of the last 3 years English papers, our expert team complies with a list of the most important topics that have a good weightage in the exam paper. Students may be advised to go through the topics briefly before going to the exam hall. Check the Important Topics for where the question are frequently asked in the CUET English Question paper.

• Reading Comprehension
• Jumbled Sentence
• Phrase Replacement
• Sentence Improvement
• Cloze Test
• Fill in the Blanks
• Wrong Spelt
• Infinitive, Gerund, Participle
• Identify the sentence pattern
• Find out the Error
• Verb
• Noun
• Articles
• Voices
• Adverbs
• Direct & Indirect Speech
• Subject-Verb Agreement
• Conjunctions
• Tenses
• Phrasal Verbs
• Idioms and phrases
• Synonyms & antonyms
• One-word substitution
• Onomatopoeia
• Anaphora
• Ellipsis
• Select the correct Voice
• Error Spotting
• Repetition
• Apostrophe
• British English – American English

Most CUET English Question Paper 2024 15 May

Check the Most expected cuet english question paper 2024 for last minute revision.

CUET English Question Paper 2024 with Answers

On 15 May the English paper was held at Shift 2A. After the the exam students can find the the CUET English 15 May Question paper with solutions for all shifts here, stay tuned with us.

Questions	Answers
1. Complete the sentences given in List-I with the appropriate adverbs given in List-II: List-I (Sentences) (A) I thought the restaurant would be expensive but it was affordable. (B) It was a serious accident. But the car was damaged. (C) The meeting was a disaster as it was very organized. (D) Mira is gifted, she has the ability to learn any language . List-II (Adverbs) (I) badly (II) reasonably (III) quickly (IV) hardly Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(1) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
2. Choose the appropriate word pair to complete the sentence: I didn’t know Rahul was in the hospital. If I , I would him.	(2) had known, have visited
3. Complete the sentences given in List-I with the appropriate phrasal verbs given in List- II: List-I (Sentences) (A) She was very with him for his offensive remarks on women in politics. (B) I have plenty of interesting books to to book lovers. (C) Strange that people easily temptation and ruin their reputation! (D) Rahul is trying to on his smoking. List-II (Phrasal verbs) (I) give away (II) cut down (III) cut up (IV) give in	(4) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
4. Identify the option closest in meaning to the underlined word: The movie star’s biography is a glossy, sycophantic portrayal.	(3) flattering
5. Choose the correct ANTONYM of the underlined word: The Minister unleashed a compliment against the newspaper for its biased editorial on illiteracy among women in his constituency.	(1) denunciation
6. Choose the correct SYNONYM for redoubtable from the options given below.	(3) formidable
7. Choose the correct ANTONYM for sullen from the options given below.	(4) genial
8. Rearrange the following parts in the correct sequence to make a meaningful sentence: (A) are inborn but our (B) constituents of flavour, are learned (C) our responses to basic tastes (D) perceptions of smells, the main Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
9. Match the words in List-I with their definitions in List-II: List-I (Words) (A) Theocracy (B) Megalomania (C) Apothecary (D) Antiquarian List-II (Definition) (I) One who kepps drugs for sale and puts up prescriptions (II) One who collects and studies objects or artistic works from the distant past (III) A government by divine guidance or religious leaders (IV) A morbid delusion or one’s power, importance or godliness Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(1) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
10. Fill in the blank with the correct option. A small between two children ended up as a group fight.	(1) altercation
11. Re-arrange the following phrases in the right sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (A) for seven hours but was hardly (B) because of the absence of any motivation (C) able to decide who the murderer was (D) she worked on the case Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (D), (A), (C), (B)
12. Fill in the blank with the correct option. The candidate assured the interviewers that the dip in her grades during her second semester as an since she had always been a top scorer in the first semester.	(1) anomaly
13. Replace the underlined word with the most appropriate SYNONYM. For sometime now, we’ve been toying with the idea of transferring all our business from physical to online sales only.	(3) considering
14. Select the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word. At first the workers were agreeable to the proposals of their Manager, but later they were reconciled to the new proposals.	(2) estangered
15. Complete the sentences given in List-I with the appropriate words given in List-II: List-I (Sentences) (A) She was able to give a explanation in the court for her presence near the crime scene. (B) The Rockland Hospital with AIIMS to conduct a free cancer screening camp. (C) Though she has shown only 4% improvement in achieving her target yet her efforts . (D) The doctors give the prognosis by their diagnosis with several tests. List-II (Words) (I) collaborate/d (II) corroborate/ing (III) credible (IV) creditable Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
16. Fill in the blank with the correct option. Most of the guests arrived for the concert bus.	(1) by
17. Choose the word closest in meaning to the underlined word. Why did you make that flippant remark about her choice of clothes?	(2) disrespectful
18. Select the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word. The thief showed his disbelief when informed that his partner had been arrested	(2) concealed
19. Fill in the blank with the correct option. The President finally had to the demands of the public for his resignation.	(3) acede to
20. Re-arrange the following parts of a sentence in their correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (A) for organizations which provide (B) services to customers on a face-to-face basis. (C) employees with whom they deal is very important (D) the quality of the relationship between customers and Choose the correct answer from the options given below :	(4) (D), (A), (C), (B)
21. Re-arrange the following parts of a sentence in their correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (A) as a concept fundamental to (B) especially with the injunction to treat equals equally (C) justice is associated with the notion of equity and equality, (D) ethical theory and political philosophy, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(4) (A), (D), (C), (B)
22. Match the idioms in List-I with their meanings in List-II: List-1 (Idioms) (A) blow the gall (B) at the end of your tether (C) be full of beans (D) want to curl up and die List-II (Meanings) (I) feel unable to deal with something (II) feel terribly ashamed and embarrassed (III) divulge a secret (IV) be full of energy	(1) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
23. Match the blanks in List-I with the Prepostions in List-II: List-I (Sentences) (A) The edited version of her article is indistinguishable her first version. (B) I just don’t feel any affinity prose style. It’s too caustic. his (C) Her ideas are not all that dissimilar mine. (D) It would be wrong to mistake his diffidence his arrogance or coldness. List-II (Prepositions) (I) with (II) to (III) for (IV) from	(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
24. Re-arrange the parts in their correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence: (A) students with tools for critical thinking (B) cooperative learning is an (C) that enhances creativity and provides (D) eclectic and unique teaching method Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (B), (D), (C), (A)
Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow. When I was in my late teens and still undecided about which language I should write in…
25. The author grew up with the expectation that she would take up . Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.	(3) creative writing.
26. When her father said, “She will go far,” he meant that . Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.	(1) she will travel widely.
27. Choose a Statement which is not true with respect to the passage:	(2) She felt obligated to carry on the legacy of Premchand.
28. Premchand became too large for her to understand mainly because of (A) his ability to connect with people from a walks of life. (B) the fact that she feared him. (C) the kind of love and reverence that he inspired in people. (D) her constant anxiety of failing him. Choose the correct answer from the options Riven below	(2) (A) and (C) only.
29. ‘Inhaled his writing’ refers to: Choose the correct option from the following.	(1) imbibing his style subconsciously.
30. Choose the correct meaning of the word “Ubiquity” as it appears in the passage:	(1) Occassional
Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow. Free will is the ability to decide and act free from any influence of past events…
31. The author argues that humans don’t have “will” because . Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.	(1) our decisions are shaped by past events and environmental influences.
32. “Karmic imprint” referred to in the passage implies . Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.	(2) our genetic code, upbringing and environment.
33. “Free will” can be experienced if . Fill in the blank with the correct option to complete the sentence.	(3) we let go of our ego, attachments and fixed beliefs.
34. The author proves that the idea of “free will” a myth by suggesting that . Fill in the blank with the correct option to couplete the sentence.	(1) our ability to make a choice is restricted by our predispositions.
35. What does the author propose as a means to expand the scope of one’s agency? Choose the correct option.	(2) Engaging in sustained inner work and self- awareness.
36. What do you think could be a suitable title for this passage? Choose the most appropriate option.	(1) Definition of “Free Will”.
Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow.
On a chilly winter evening, nothing warms you up better than a cup of hot cocoa…
37. Cocon was first introduced by the	(2) Omlee people.
38. The Aztec people made their cocoa palatable by	(4) drinking it as a medicine.
39. Why did hot chocolate become “the beverage of the aristocracy” in Europe?	(3) Only wealthy Europeans could buy it
40. The Chocolate Houses didn’t survive past the 18th century as	(3) chocolate was costlier than tea or coffee
41. Choose the correct statement from the following:	(3) Colombians serve hot chocolate topped with a dollop of cheese.
42. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined expression in the following sentence: Soon enough, though, hot chocolate caught on with the masses.	(2) became popular among the commoners.
Read the given passage and answer the six questions that follow. Coffee’s genetic make-up is no trivial concern; 10 million tonnes of the crop were grown and…
43. Which of the following varieties of coffee is the most sold in the world?	(2) Coffea Arabica
44. Which of the following species of coffee has more than two copies of each chromosome?	(1) Arabica
45. Which of the following statements is true about Coffa Arabica?	(1) Hybridization is the main source of its genetic variation.
46. Which of the following species of coffee developed only in the last 50,000 years?	(3) Arabica
47. Which of the following types of variability is not very high for Coffea Arabica ?	(4) Variability at the DNA level
48. Choose the statement that is factually incorrect from the options given below.	(3) Due to its genetic make-up, novel mutations do not occur in the species Coffea Arabica.
49. Re-arrange the following phrases in correct sequence to form a meaningful sentence. (A) created by human (B) collective cultural heritage (C) all languages (D) communities are our Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
50. Fill in the blank with the correct option, to form a meaningful sentence. The Principal addressed us in the assembly and the rumours of an early summer break.	(2) quashed

CUET UG English Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

Here we have provided the the CUET UG 2024 English Question paper with solutions PDF in given below. Students can download the pdf to match their given response with the correct answers.

CUET English Paper with Solutions PDF
CUET English Paper 2024 PDF	Answer key
CUET  English Question paper with Solutions PDF

CUET English PYQs PDF Download

Students can also check the CUET UG English PYQs which are a great and useful resource for practice. It must be noted that last year the paper was held in online or CBT Mode. Download the CUET UG English Question paper PDF from the table below,

CUET English Sample Paper PDF Download

CUET UG English Question Paper Set 1

CUET Memory-Based English Question Paper Set 2

CUET English Question Paper 2024 with Solutions

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CUET English Question Paper 2023 with Solutions

Q1. Choose the correct synonym of Intricate

(a) Complex
(b) Easy
(c) Rough
(d) Simple

Q2. Choose the correct synonym of Incredible

(a) Believable
(b) Unrealistic
(c) Unbelievable
(d) Simple

Q3. Choose the correct synonym of Exile

(a) Expel
(b) Rooted
(c) Stay
(d) Keep

Q4. She is the apple of my eye.

(a) A person of whom one is extremely proud of
(b) An idiot person
(c) A lovely person
(d) An intelligent person

Q5. He is a man of honour.
(a) A person of whom one is extremely proud of
(b) An idiot person
(c) A Respectable person
(d) An intelligent person

Q6. Race against time
(a) a situation in which something must be done before a particular point in time.
(b) No time
(c) An event
(d) A small duration

Q7.
(a) Curiosity
(b) Quriocity
(c) Curioucity
(d) Curiousity

Q8.Choose the correct spelt word

(a) Embarased
(b) Embarassed
(c) Embarrassed
(d) Embarrased

Q9. Choose the correct spelt word

(a) Honourable
(b) Honorable
(c) Hounorable
(d) Hounrable

Q10. 1. It is surprising to note that AIDS and SARS may hog news headlines

1. that kill the most
2. but it is heart attacks
3. people in India every year.
4. This is something to be noted.

(a) RQSP
(b) RPSQ
(c) PRQS
(d) SQPR

Q11. Choose the correct spelt word

(a) Enormous
(b) Inormous
(c) Anornous
(d) Enourmous

Q12.

(a) Prestige
(b) Precipitate
(c) Prerequisite
(d) Premases

Q13. Always ready to attack or quarrel

(a) Creative
(b) Impatient
(c) Aggressive
(d) Malicious

Q14. Monotony
(a) Dull
(b) Boring
(c) easy
(d) witty

Q15. The plants and vegetation of a region is called

(a) Flora
(b) Landscape
(c) Ornamental
(d) Fauna

 

Q16.
(a) Indeganeous
(b) Indigenous
(c) Indegenous
(d) Indigenus

Q17.
(A) to understand
(B) to many people
(C) threatening and even impossible
(D) grammar appears

(a) CABD
(b) BDCA
(c) DACB
(d) ADBC

Q18.
(A) Half its beauty and usefulness
(B) knowledge would lose
(C) without hard toil
(D) if we could acquire it

(a) BADC
(b) DCAB
(c) CBDA
(d) CDBA

Q19.
(a) Satelite
(b) Satelitte
(c) Satallite
(d) Satellite

Q20. Brutal
(a) Humane
(b) Savage
(c) Sympathetic
(d) Compassionate

Q21. When she retired, handed __________ the charge to the Vice- President.
(a) out
(b) across
(c) off
(d) over

Q22. This man was an accomplice __________ the thief.
(a) of
(b) in
(c) With
(d) from

Q23. The sun is shining brightly, please __________ the light.
(a) take off
(b) put on
(c) put off
(d) put out

Q24. The plan is worth considering, think it __________ carefully.
(a) of
(b) on
(c) Off
(d) over

Hence, the correct option is (d).

Q25. Due to heavy rains, water had __________ in the low-lying areas.
(a) gathered
(b) stagnated
(c) assembled
(d) entered

Q26. Throw a stone __________ the fierce dog
(a) at
(b) upon
(c) on
(d) above

 

Q27. Many people who __________ practicing photography as a hobby turn it eventually into a livelihood.
(a) resume
(b) prefer
(c) imply
(d) start

Q28. I think I am __________ young to get married.
(a) Much
(b) too
(c) more
(d) very

Q29. Communism and Socialism have always __________ the sermons of economic equality.
(a) said
(b) instructed
(c) preached
(d) obeyed

Q30. (a) Sheeps are economically useful/ (b) and so they are reared/ (c) for wool and meat./ (d) No error.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q31. (a) I shall not go to party tonight/ (b) since I have many works to complete/ (c) before I give presentation tomorrow./ (d) No error.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q32. (a) Even after the enactment of several Acts and Provisions /(b) we can see five years old boys/ (c) working in hazardous factories./ (d) No error.
(a) a
(b) b
(c)
(d) d

Q33. (a) She wears spectacle/ (b) and so she was unable to see the gansgter/ (c) that attacked her last night./ (d) No error.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q34. (a) All the furnitures have been/ (b) sold for a song/ (c) as we were in a hurry to leave the town./ (d) No error.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q35. (a) The ticket window/ (b) remained closed / (c)throughout the day./ (d) No error.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
Q36. (a) I think this/ (b) is not your book. / (c) It is some body’s else./ (d) No error.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
Q37. (a) Towns after towns were/ (b) conquered / (c) by him but he found no peace./ (d) No error.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d
Q38. (a) When we reached the fair/ (b) we found that there / (c) was no place to stand./ (d) No error.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q39. (a) My cousin brother is a cheater/ (b) and he / (c) cheats his family members and friends too./ (d) No error.

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q40. A process involving too much official formality is called
(a) Nepotism
(b) Diplomacy
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Red-tapism

Q41. A thing which is not suitable for Eating is called
(a) Spicy
(b) Tasteless
(c) Uneatable
(d) Inedible

Q42. A person who deliberately sets fire to a building is

(a) Arsonist
(b) Extortionist
(c) Hijacker
(d) Assassin

Q43. A recurrent compulsive urge to steal.

(a) Kleptomania
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Insomnia
(d) Nymphomania

Q44. That which cannot be avoided is Called
(a) Inevitable
(b) Unrestrained
(c) Unvarying
(d) Integral

Directions: The questions below consist of a set of labeled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

Q45. (P) By way of indulgence, by the order dated October 23, 2018.
(Q) To the extended time limit of 60 days plus, as was given.
(R) No intention, at the very least, of adhering to the time limit of 120 days or
(S) It is clear that the three Reliance companies had.

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q46. (P) By way of indulgence, by the order dated October 23, 2018.
(Q) To the extended time limit of 60 days plus, as was given.
(R) No intention, at the very least, of adhering to the time limit of 120 days or
(S) It is clear that the three Reliance companies had
(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q47. (P) Also excluded are people whose families
(Q) A gross annual income of ₹8 lakh or more will be excluded from the quota
(R) Own five acre or more of agriculture land
(S) Families in the general category earning
(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q48. (P) The question was vital to the Ayodhya case and.
(Q) The three-judge Bench, holding that.
(R) Should be answered by a Constitution Bench.
(S) Justice Nazeer had delivered the dissenting opinion on.

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q49. One who takes care of a building is called

(a) Janitor
(b) Manager
(c) Warden
(d) Beadle

Q50. An assembly of worshippers

(a) Configuration
(b) Confrontation
(c) Congregation
(d) Conflagration

Q51. (a) Neither of them/ (b) sent their papers/ (c) in time for the last seminar/ (d) No error

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q52. (a) He is one of those few post-colonial writer who believes/ (b) that this talk about colonialism has gone too far/ (c) and has turned into a cliche./ (d) No error

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q53. (a) Neither of them/ (b) are going to attend/ (c) the party on 10th October/ (d) No error

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q54. (a) If Mahatma Gandhi/ (b) was alive, he would feel sorry for the poor and downtrodden who/(c) still struggle everyday to make both ends meet. / (d) No Error

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Q55. My Nigerian friend, Fela, is having trouble finding work here in London, but he says if push comes to shove he can always __________

(a) go to jail
(b) win the lottery
(c) end of the journey that is life
(d) go back to Nigeria

Q56. The sound effects __________ by the recording director.
(a) are provided
(b) being provide
(c) been provided
(d) provided

Q57. The hunter killed two __________ for dinner.

(a) flour
(b) fowl
(c) foul
(d) fool

Q58. China is a big country, in area it is bigger than any other country __________ Russia.

(a) accept
(b) except
(c) expect
(d) access

Q59. Saibal has got an extensive to finish writing his thesis.
(a) an extended
(b) an extention
(c) an extension
(d) No improvement

Q60. “I would like to tell you about this my friend,” said John.

(a) this friend of mine
(b) the friend of mine
(c) this friend
(d) No improvement

Q61. The two thieves distributed the loot between themselves.
(a) with themselves
(b) amongst themselve
(c) among themselves
(d) No improvement

 

Directions The questions below consist of a set of labeled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

 

Q62. (P) By way of indulgence, by the order dated October 23, 2018.
(Q) To the extended time limit of 60 days plus, as was given.
(R) No intention, at the very least, of adhering to the time limit of 120 days or
(S) It is clear that the three Reliance companies had.

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q63. (P) By way of indulgence, by the order dated October 23, 2018.
(Q) To the extended time limit of 60 days plus, as was given.
(R) No intention, at the very least, of adhering to the time limit of 120 days or
(S) It is clear that the three Reliance companies had
(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

 

Q64. (P) Also excluded are people whose families
(Q) A gross annual income of ₹8 lakh or more will be excluded from the quota
(R) Own five acre or more of agriculture land
(S) Families in the general category earning

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q65. (P) Also excluded are people whose families.
(Q) A gross annual income of ₹8 lakh or more will be excluded from the quota.
(R) Own five acre or more of agriculture land.
(S) Families in the general category earning.

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

 

Q66. (P) The question was vital to the Ayodhya case and.
(Q) The three-judge Bench, holding that.
(R) Should be answered by a Constitution Bench.
(S) Justice Nazeer had delivered the dissenting opinion on.

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q67. (P) The question was vital to the Ayodhya case and.

(Q) The three-judge Bench, holding that.

(R) Should be answered by a Constitution Bench.

(S) Justice Nazeer had delivered the dissenting opinion on.

(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) SRQP
(d) SQPR

Q68. One who takes care of a building is called

(a) Janitor
(b) Manager
(c) Warden
(d) Beadle

Q69. An assembly of worshippers

(a) Configuration
(b) Confrontation
(c) Congregation
(d) Conflagration

Q70. One who possesses many talents is Called

(a) Versatile
(b) Unique
(c) Dexterous
(d) Attractive

Q71. Incapable of being approached is Called

(a) Inaccessible
(b) Inadmissible
(c) Irresistible
(d) Illegal

Q72. One who lives/survives on others/other lives is called

(a) Expatriate
(b) Pesticide
(c) Parasite
(d) Refugee

Q73. A proficient public speaker is called

(a) Curator
(b) Orator
(c) Narrator
(d) Arbitrator

Q74. Unfair advantages for members of one’s own family is called

(a) Optimism
(b) Plagiarism
(c) Nepotism
(d) Regionalism

Q75. Always ready to attack or quarrel

(a) Creative
(b) Impatient
(c) Aggressive
(d) Malicious

Hence, the correct option is (c).

Q76. Fluent and clear in speech

(a) Emotional
(b) Enthusiastic
(c) Articulate
(d) Confident

Q77. One who eats both vegetables and Meat

(a) Omnivorous
(b) Vegevorous
(c) Herbivorous
(d) Carnivorous

Q78. Did the child __________ from the chair?

(a) fell
(b) fallen
(c) falling
(d) fall

Q79. I asked him if I __________ borrow his car for a day.

(a) will
(b) could
(c) can
(d) should

Q80. I want __________ me the truth.

(a) to tell
(b) you at once tell
(c) that you tell
(d) you to tell.

Q81. My younger brother is good __________ Mathematics

(a) at
(b) into
(c) on
(d) with

Q82. He __________ his living by hard work.

(a) earns
(b) wins
(c) Creates
(d) ables

Q83. Do you __________ to see my collections?

(a) cared
(b) like
(c) want
(d) got
Hence, the correct option is (c).

Q84. Regular exercise is conducive __________ health.

(a) In
(b) to
(c) for
(d) of

Q85. The government must __________ all resources of energy.

(a) collect
(b) gather
(c) muster
(d) harness

Q86. Poets have compared this world __________ a stage.

(a) with
(b) to
(c) by
(d) on

Q87. The telephone kept __________ ringing, but no one attended.

(a) off
(b) on
(c) up
(d) up with

Q88. You should not confide __________ stranger.

(a) in
(b) to
(c) with
(d) by

Q89. Children below the age of fourteen should be __________ sent to school.

(a) compel
(b) compulsory
(c) compulsively
(d) compulsorily

 

Q90. The headmaster congratulated Rajan __________ getting the merit scholarship.

(a) for
(b) about
(c) with
(d) on

Q91. The headmaster congratulated Rajan __________ getting the merit scholarship.

(a) for
(b) about
(c) with
(d) on

 

Q92. The police offered a __________ for information about the stolen money.

(a) reward
(b) award
(c) profit
(d) prize

 

 

Q93. I __________ hard to establish the validity of the theory since morning.

(a) have been trying
(b) had tried
(c) tried
(d) am trying

Q94. Sachin was standing ________ me.

(a) aside (b) next

(c) beside (d) besides

Q95. __________ of defense personnel would be given transfers to their place of choice.

(a) Friends
(b) Wives
(c) Husbands
(d) Spouses

Q96. It is our duty to get __________ the truth.

(a) to
(b) over
(c) Into
(d) at

Q97. A thorough search of the aircraft was carried __________ in the airport.

(a) out
(b) off
(c) on
(d) along

Q98. Discrimination __________ any form should be avoided.

(a) of
(b) by
(c) From
(d) in

Q99. I wish I __________ her to clean the room.

(a) have asking
(b) have asked
(c) asked
(d) had asked

Q100. He drained what was left __________ his drink.

(a) from
(b) in
(c) of
(d) off

Q101. Vinay does not play cricket and __________ does Yeshwant.

(a) So
(b) also
(c) Either
(d) neither

Q102. My windows look __________ the garden.

(a) up on
(b) out on
(c) In
(d) at

Q103. The police pushed the people back to make __________ for Prime Minister’s car to pass.

(a) passage
(b) way
(c) place
(d) area.

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