The National Testing Agency is all set to conduct the CUET (Common University Entrance Test) from May 08 to June 01, 2025 for all the Science and other stream students. The exams are being held in 3 different shifts for a total duration of 90 minutes. As the final revision continues, students are focusing on their CUET UG Previous Year Question Paper, along with the sample papers for their end-time preparation. 

These papers will provide an idea of the paper pattern and the type of questions asked. After the successful completion of the CUET UG Science stream exams, the direct links to download the set-wise CUET Science Question Paper with Answer Key 2025. 

CUET UG Science Question Paper 2025

The CUET UG Science stream exam tests students in subjects like Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Mathematics. The Science Question Paper includes 50 multiple choice questions, out of which students need to attempt only 40 questions. 

The exam is designed to check a student’s understanding of basic concepts, problem-solving skills, and the ability to apply knowledge. Each correct answer earns 5 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer. The Question Paper helps students secure admission to science-related courses in top universities across India. 

Expected CUET UG Science Questions with Answers

Below we have discussed a few expected questions that may be asked in the upcoming CUET UG Science Exam for Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Mathematics. Practice all these questions and kick start your preparations. 

Physics

1. The transfer of integral number of ____________ is one of the evidence of quantization of electric charge. Fill in the blank with the correct answer from the options given below. 

(1) photons 

(2) nuclei

(3) electrons

(4) neutrons

2. When a slab of insulating material 4 mm thick is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of separation 4 mm, it is found that the distance between the plates has to be increased by 3.2 mm to restore the capacity to its original value. The dielectric constant of the material is _____________. Fill in the blank with the correct answer from the options given below. 

(1) 2 

(2) 5 

(3) 3 

(4) 7

3. A copper ball of density 8.0 g/cc and 1 cm in diameter is immersed in oil of density 0.8 g/cc. The charge on the ball if it remains just suspended in oil in an electric field of intensity 600 V/m acting in the upward direction is _______________ . Fill in the blank with the correct answer from the options given below. (Take g = 10 m/s2 ) 

(1) 2  10–6C

(2) 2  10–5C 

(3) 1  10–5C

(4) 1  10–6 C 

4. A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the temperature of the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it ______________. Fill in the blank with the correct answer from the options given below. 

(1) increases, thermal velocity of the electrons decreases 

(2) decreases, thermal velocity of the electrons decreases 

(3) increases, thermal velocity of the electrons increases 

(4) decreases, thermal velocity of the electrons increases

5. A cell of emf 1.1 V and internal resistance 0.5  is connected to a wire of resistance 0.5 . Another cell of the same emf is now connected in series with the intention of increasing the current but the current in the wire remains the same. The internal resistance of the second cell is ___________. Fill in the blank with the correct answer from the options given below. 

(1) 1  

(2) 2.5  

(3) 1.5  

(4) 2 

Chemistry

1. Camphor in nitrogen gas is a type of solution 

(1) Gas – Gas 

(2) Solid – Gas 

(3) Liquid – Gas 

(4) Solid – Liquid

2. Consider the following statements regarding osmotic pressure : 

(A) Molar mass of a protein can be determined using the osmotic pressure method. 

(B) The osmotic pressure is proportional to the molarity. 

(C) Reverse osmosis occurs when a pressure larger than osmotic pressure is applied to the concentrated solution side. 

(D) Edema occurs due to retention of water in tissue cells as a result of osmosis. 

Choose the correct statements with reference to osmotic pressure : 

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only 

(2) (A), (B) and (C) only

(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D) 

(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

3. Vapour pressures of pure liquids ‘A’ and ‘D’ at 50oC are 500 mm Hg and 800 mm Hg respectively. The binary solution of ‘A’ and ‘D’ boils at 50oC and 700 mm Hg pressure. The mole percentage of ‘D’ in the solution is : 

(1) 33.33 mole percent 

(2) 66.67 mole percent 

(3) 25.75 mole percent 

(4) 75.25 mole percent

4. In the electrolysis of alumina to obtain Aluminium metal, the cryolite is added mainly to 

(1) lower the melting point of alumina. 

(2) dissolve the alumina in the molten cryolite. 

(3) remove the impurities of alumina. 

(4) increase the electrical conductivity

5. For a complex reaction, the order of reaction is equal to 

(1) Sum of stoichiometric coefficients in balanced chemical reaction 

(2) The molecularity ofoverall reaction 

(3) Order of fastest step of the reaction 

(4) The molecularity of slowest step of reaction

Biology

1. Analogous structures are a result of : 

(1) Convergent evolution 

(2) Divergent evolution 

(3) Parallel evolution 

(4) Retrogressive evolution

2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 

(1) Natural selection 

(2) Genetic drift 

(3) Gene pool 

(4) Gene migration 

3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape? 

(1) Homo erectus 

(2) Dryopithecus 

(3) Australopithecines 

(4) Ramapithecus 

4. Nucleosome is associated with _______ molecules of histones.

(1) Four 

(2) Nine 

(3) Two 

(4) Eight 

5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct. 

(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. 

(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. 

(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. 

(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. 

(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only 

(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 

(3) (A), (C) and (E) only 

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Mathematics

1. If A and B are symmetric matrices of the same order, then AB – BA is a : 

(1) symmetric matrix 

(2) zero matrix 

(3) skew symmetric matrix 

(4) identity matrix

2. If A is a square matrix of order 4 and |A|= 4, then |2A| will be : 

(1) 8 

(2) 64 

(3) 16 

(4) 4

3. An objective function Z = ax + by is maximum at points (8, 2) and (4, 6). If a  0 and b  0 and ab = 25, then the maximum value of the function is equal to : 

(1) 60 

(2) 50 

(3) 40 

(4) 80 

4. The area of the region bounded by the lines x + 2y =12, x = 2, x = 6 and x-axis is : 

(1) 34 sq units 

(2) 20 sq units 

(3) 24 sq units 

(4) 16 sq units

5. A die is rolled thrice. What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4 in the first and the second throw of dice and a number less than 4 in the third throw? 

(1) 1/3 

(2) 1/6 

(3) 1/9 

(4) 1/18

CUET UG Science Question Paper 2025 PDF Download

The official window to check and download the CUET UG Science Stream Question Paper 2025 PDF for subjects like Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Mathematics has been activated at the official website of the National Testing Agency. After the completion of the exam, the direct link to download the CUET UG Science Question Paper with Answers will be made available in the table shared below:

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