JEE Mains 2025 Question Paper Solutions, Download All Shift 1 & 2 Papers Free PDF

JEE Mains 2025 Question Paper Solutions: The National Testing Agency has successfully conducted Session 1 of the Joint entrance examination JEE Mains 2025 in which more than 10 lakh students are appeared. On this page, we have shared JEE Mains Memory based Question Paper 2025 along with solutions for both Shift 1 and Shift 2 in a downloadable Free pdf.

Paper 1 (BE/BTech) for JEE Main 2025 session 1 was held on January 22, 23, 24, 28, and 29. Paper 1 was administered in two shifts, from 9 a.m. to 12 p.m. and 3 p.m. to 6 p.m. whereas the 2nd paper (BArch/BPlanning) was held in a single shift on January 30. These JEE Mains Question Paper 2025 for the January Session are super beneficial for the students who are going to appear in the April session.

JEE Mains 2025 Question Paper Solutions

The NTA will release the JEE Mains 2025 Question Paper with the answer key on its official website soon. The JEE Mains Question Paper Solutions of January 2025 Session will help those candidates who have their exams in the coming days or sessions. The question paper from the earlier shift gives students an idea about the question trends and is known to be the best preparation material. To help candidates,the  Adda247 Team provided the JEE memory-based questions paper for all shifts along with their solutions here. Download JEE Mains Question paper 2025 for January 22, 23, 24, 28, and 29 all shifts with answer key Free PDFs

JEE Mains Memory based Question Paper 2025 PDF Free Download

Candidates can download the JEE Main exam question paper 2025 PDF with solutions for all exam dates and shifts from the table below.

JEE Mains 2025 Question Paper PDF Free Download
Exam Date	Shift 1	Shift 2
January 22, 2025	Click Here	Click Here
January 23, 2025	Click Here	Click Here
January 24, 2025	Click Here	Click Here
January 28, 2025	Click Here	Click Here
January 29, 2025	Click Here	Click Here
January 30, 2025	Paper 2 (B.Arch/B.Planning) Question Paper with Solutions

JEE Mains Exam Question Paper 2025 Structure

The examination pattern and structure for all the shifts and exam dates of Paper 1 will remain the same. The latest exam pattern is shared below for students’ convenience.

Particulars	Details
Total Duration of the exam	3 hours (180 minutes)
Total Questions	75 questions
Maximum Marks	300 marks
Medium of Exam	Available in 13 languages
Mode of Exam	Computer Based Test (CBT)
Question Type	MCQs and Numerical Value Based
Marks for every correct answer	+4
Negative Marking for every incorrect answer	-1

JEE Main Question Paper with Answer Key – How to Calculate Marks?

Candidates can estimate their likely marks by utilizing the JEE Mains answer key. To compute, it is essential to understand the marking scheme for the JEE Main 2025 paper 1 exam, detailed as follows:

• Each correct response receives +4 marks.
• One mark is subtracted for each wrong answer.
• No marks are taken off for questions not attempted.
• Total Marks for Each Section in JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 is 100, totaling to 300 overall

JEE Mains Jan 29 Question Paper 2025 Shift 1

Check the JEE Main 2025 29 January shift 2 questions and answers below.

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 2 Paper Analysis

Candidates can check the section-wise exam paper analysis for JEE Mains question paper 2025 January 29 shift 2 below.

• The physics section ranged from moderate to difficult, with some questions being particularly challenging. In general, the paper featured both theoretical and application-oriented questions.
• The chemistry section was well-rounded, incorporating elements of inorganic, organic, and physical chemistry. It was considered moderately difficult, with students finding it easier than physics but more difficult than mathematics.
• The mathematics section covered a range of topics, including Algebra, Calculus, Coordinate Geometry, and Trigonometry. Although the overall difficulty was moderate, some problems were time-consuming for students.

JEE Mains Question Paper 2025 January 29 Shift 1

Candidates can check the JEE Mains 2025 question paper based on the account of first-hand test takers below.

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JEE Main 2025 Question Paper Jan 29 Shift 1 Paper Analysis

Check the section-wise detailed analysis based on students’ reaction and expert analysis below.

Physics – Many students found the Physics section to be easy, with a significant number of theoretical questions. The topics were well-balanced, featuring nearly equal representation from Class 11 and Class 12. Important areas such as Mechanics, Waves, and Thermodynamics were sufficiently covered, while Electrostatics, Optics, and Mechanics were more prominent. Conversely, Modern Physics and Magnetism had fewer questions.

Chemistry – The Chemistry section was considered easy to moderate and helped save time. Nearly all chapters were included, with a focus on Inorganic and Organic Chemistry, while Physical Chemistry had fewer questions. Most theoretical questions were directly sourced from NCERT, making this section straightforward and quick to finish, enabling students to spend more time on other areas.

Mathematics – The Mathematics section varied from moderate to difficult. Questions were evenly spread across most chapters, with significant emphasis on topics like 3D, Vectors, Binomial, Conic Sections, Matrices, and Determinants. However, there were fewer questions on Calculus. Although the overall difficulty was not excessively high, the lengthy and time-consuming nature of many questions made Mathematics the most challenging section for numerous students.

JEE Mains Question Paper 2025 January 28 Shift 2

Check the JEE Main 2025 shift 2 memory-based questions from January 28 exam date below.

Q) Statement 1: Fructose can give tollens test even though it does not have aldehyde group.
Statement 2: When reacted with base fructose can undergo rearrangement to produce aldehyde group.
Choose the correct option.
a) If both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct explanation of the assertion
b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion
c) If Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

Ans: b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Q) Which of the following element doesn’t lie on same period.
a) Osmium
b) Iridium
c) Palladium
d) Platinum

Ans: c) Palladium

Q) Self Inductance depends on.
a) Only on geometry
b) Only on medium property
c) Geometry and medium property
d) Value of current through inductor

Ans: c) Geometry and medium property

Q) The key shown in the circuit is closed at t=0. Choose the incorrect option regarding the conditions at t=0.
a) Current in the circuit is zero
b) Voltage across the capacitor is minimum
c) Current in the circuit is maximum
d) Voltage across resistance is maximum

Ans: a) Current in the circuit is zero

Q) The atomic number of the element with least melting point in group 14.
a) 6
b) 14
c) 50
d) 82

Ans: c) 50

Q) alpha helix and beta sheeted protein structure belongs to which category of structure.
a) Primary Structure
b) Secondary Structure
c) Tertiary Structure
d) Quaternary Structure

Ans: b) Secondary Structure

Q) Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
a) Saccharin acid
b) Aspartic acid
c) Adipic acid
d) Ascorbic acid

Ans: d) Ascorbic acid

Q) pH of water is 7 at 25 degree Celsius, then pH of water at 180 degree Celsius will.
a) increase
b) decreases
c) H+ increases, OH- decreases
d) remains constant

b) decreases

Q) Number of terms in an arithmetic progression is 2n. Sum of terms occurring at even places is 40 and sum of terms occurring at odd places is 55. If the first term exceeds the last term by 27, then n equals to
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 4

Ans: b) 5

Q) Identify the extensive and intensive property?
a) Mass, Volume, Conductivity – Intensive Property
b) Mass, Temperature, Heat, Volume – Extensive Property
c) Mass, Volume, Internal Energy – Extensive Property
d) Density, Temperature, Moles, Internal Energy – Intensive Property

Ans: c) Mass, Volume, Internal Energy – Extensive Property

Q) Statement 1: Fringe width of red light is more than fringe width of violet light.
Statement 2: Fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light used.
Choose the correct option.
a) statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
c) statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

Ans: b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

Q) 200 mL of 0.2 M solution of NaoH is mixed with 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. Molarity of mixture is
a) 0.4 M
b) 0.6 M
c) 4 M
d) 0.8 M

Ans: a) 0.4 M

Q) Which one has two secondary hydrogen atoms?
a) 2,24,4-tetramethylheptane
b) 2,2,3,4-tetramethylheptane
c) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyloctane
d) 3-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane

Ans: b) 2,2,3,4-tetramethylheptane

Q) In a series LCR circuit the maximum amplitude of current is Io when the resistance is R. What is the maximum amplitude of current if the resistor is replaced by a resistor of resistance R/2.
a) Io
b) 2Io
c) Io/2
d) 2Io/3

Ans: b) 2Io

Q) 4 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row such that all girls seat together and two particular B1 and B2 are not adjacent to each other. Then the number of ways in which this arrangement done.
a) 432
b) 430
c) 516
d) 1002

Ans: a) 432

Q) Statement 1 Lassaigne test is used for detection of Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Sulphur, and Halogens.
Statement 2: Lassaigne extract is made with magnesium metal.
Choose the correct option.
a) statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct
c) statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

Ans: a) statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect

Q) Identify the incorrect statement.
a) MP of Cis 2 butene is greater than tran-2-butene
b) 2-methyl 2-butene can have two geometrical isomer
c) DP moment of cis 2 butene is greater than trans 2 butene
d) In trans isomer identical groups are opposite direction

Ans: a) MP of Cis 2 butene is greater than tran-2-butene

Q) For [NiCL4]2- what is the charge on metal and shape of complex respectively?
a) +2, Tetrahedral
b) +2, square planar
c) +4, Tetrahedral
d) +4, square planar

Ans: b) +2, square planar

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JEE Main Question Paper 2025 January 28 Shift 1 with Solutions

The questions and solutions from the JEE Main 2025 January 28 shift 1 exam has been provided below.

Q) The difference in melting point and boiling point of oxygen and sulphur can be explained by.
a) Electronegativity
b) Electron Gain Enthalpy
c) Atomicity
d) Ionisation Energy

Ans: c) Atomicity

Q) Which of the following strong oxidising agent.
a) Eu2+
b) Ce2+
c) Ce4+
d) Eu4+

Ans: b) Ce4+

Q) Assertion: The fringe width in the YDSE (Young’s Double Slit Experiment) decreases if the setup is put into a denser medium.
Reason: The velocity of light decreases in the denser medium but frequency remains constant
a) Only the assertion is correct.
b) Only the reason is correct.
c) Both the assertion and reason correct.
d) None of the above.

c) Both the assertion and reason are correct.

Q) The energy radiated by a sphere of radius 0.2 m and surface temperature 800 K is E. Then the energy radiated by the sphere of radius 0.8 m and surface temperature 400 K is:
a) E
b) 2E
c) E/2
d) 4E

Ans: a) E

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Answer: (B) 

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Answer: (B)

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Answer: (D)

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Answer: (C)

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Answer: (A)

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Answer: (A)

JEE Main Question Paper 2025 January 24 Shift 2

Students who took the JEE Main 2025 shift 2 exam have shared the questions that were asked in that shift’s question paper with us. Students can check the memory-based questions with their answers below to analyze their performance and what to expect in next shifts.

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Candidates can check the section-wise questions asked in 24 January shift 2 exam below of JEE Main 2025 below.

Mathematics Questions

• The point P (11/2, α) lies on or inside the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 11, x + 2y = 16, and 2x + 3y = 29, then minimum value of 10α is equal to _______________.
• A and B are binomial coefficients of 30th and 12th term of the binomial expansion. If 2A=5B, then the value of n is _________.
• Let Sn denotes the sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic progression. If S40=1030 and S12 = 57, then S30-S10 is _____?
• If the system of equations, x+2y-3z=2, 2x+λy+5z=5, 4x+3y+µz=33, has infinite solutions then, λ+µ is equal to __________.
• If 7 = 5 + (1/7) (5 + a) + (1/7 ² ) (5 + 2a) + …. ∞, then find the value of a.
•  The equation of chord of the ellipse (x 2 )/25 + (y 2 )/16 = 1 with (3, 1) as mid-point is ___________.
• Consider an event E such that a matrix of order 2 x 2 is invertible with entries 0 or 1. Then P(E) is _______ (where P(X) denotes the probability of the event X).
• The number of real roots of the equation x ² + 3x + 2 =  min ( |x + 2|, |x – 3| ) is __________________.
• The area of region enclosed by the curves y = e ^x , y = | e ^x – 1 | and y-axis is __________ square units.
• Let a = 3î + 2j – k, b = a × (î – 2j)) and d = b × k, then projection of c – 2j on a is equal to ___________________.
• A function f: R → (-1, 1) such that f(x) = ( 2 ^x – 2 ^-x )/(2 ^x + 2 ^-x ). The function f is _________________.

Physics Questions

• There is a conical pendulum of mass m and length l making 60 degree with vertical. Then tension in thread is ______________.
• A solid sphere and a hollow sphere rolls down purely equal distances on same inclined plane (starting from rest) in time t1 and t2, then ________.
• For which of the following input, output of the circuit is zero.
  (A) x=0 y=0
  (B) x=0 y=1
  (C) x=1 y=0
  (D) x=1 y=1
• A solid sphere rolls without slipping on a horizontal plane. What is ratio of translation kinetic energy to the rotational kinetic energy of the sphere?
• Temperature of a body reduces from 40 degree to 24 degree in 4 minutes in surrounding of 14 degree celsius. What is the temperature of body after further 4 minutes?
• A particle oscillates along x axis according to law x= x ₀ sin ² (t/2) where x ₀ =1. Variations of kinetic energy (k) with position (x) is given by graph.
• The position of a particle varies with time as r= (5t ² t – 5tj) m. The magnitude and direction of velocity at t= 1/2 S is _________.
• Which of the following graph correctly represents the relation between Celcius and Fahrenheit?
• If E, p, m, and c denotes energy, linear momentum, mass, and speed of light, then the equation representing the correct relation would be ______________.
• There are two identical conducting spheres placed at certain distance I. On of them is carrying charge of 4x 10 ^-8 C and other is neutral. Now both are connected using a conducting wire and force between them is found to be 9 x 10 ^-3 N, then distance is ___________.
• In given thermodynamics process, find magnitude of work done by the gas in cycle ABCA
• If the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is g, then acceleration due to gravity on a planet whose diameter is 1/3 of that of earth and same mass as that of earth is g=ng where n is ___________.
• Arrange the following in order of decreasing wavelength: Microwave, Ultraviolet, Infrared, X-rays.

Chemistry Questions

• Consider the following statements :
  Statement-l: Oxygen-oxygen bond in O ₃ is greater than O ₂ .
  Statement-II: O-O bond order in O ₃ is 1.5 and O-O bond order in O ₂ is 2.
• The conditions and consequences that favour the t ³ _2g e ¹ _g configuration in a metal complex are __________.
• Consider the following gaseous reaction: H ₂ (g) + I ₂ (g)→2HI. The above reaction is started with ‘a’ moles of H ₂ and ‘b’ moles of I ₂ in a closed container at a certain temperature T(K) till the equilibrium is established. Which one of the following plots correctly describes the progress of reaction?
• In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 0.16 g of AgBr. What is the percentage of bromine in the compound? (Given molar mass of Ag = 108, Br = 80)
• Statement 1: The first ionisation energy of Pb is greater than that of Sn.
• How many stereoisomers are possible for 5-Phenylpent-4-en-2-ol?
  Statement 2: The first ionisation energy of Ge is greater than that of Si.
• A hydrocarbon X which has molar mass 80g contains 90% carbon. Find degree of unsaturation in X.
• Consider the following reaction:
  S(s) + 3/2O ₂ (g) → SO ₃ (g) + 2x KJ    and    SO ₂ (g) + 1/2O ₂ (g) →SO ₃ (g) + y KJ
  Then, calculate ΔH _r for the following reaction (KJ) S(s) + O ₂ → SO ₂ (g)
• When ethane-1, 2-diammine is progressively added to aqueous solution of Nickel (II) chloride the sequence of colour change observed will be _______.
• In the given compound no. of Sp and Sp ² hybridised carbon are ____________.
• In a compound contains 54.2% carbon, 9.2% of hydrogen and the rest are oxygen. What is molecular formula of compound, if molecular mass is 132 g/mol?
• Match the column:

List I	List II
SC 3+ –	2.84
Ti 2+ –	0
V 2+ –	5.92
Mn 2+ –	3.87

JEE Main Exam Analysis 2025 January 24 Shift 2

The initial feedback from candidates regarding the JEE Main Shift 2 Paper Analysis for January 24, 2025, is summarized below.

• The Shift 2 exam on January 24 was considered easier compared to all earlier shifts of JEE Main 2025.
• Many of the questions resembled those from the previous exams.
• In Physics, around 10-12 questions were based on formulas, while some questions were somewhat tricky.
• The exam included 3-4 questions on Organic Chemistry, 2-3 on Modern Physics, and 1 on Current Electricity.
• Additionally, 2-4 questions in the Physics section were related to graphs, and the questions were primarily application-based.

Section-wise Difficulty Level

After the detailed analysis of the question paper from Jan 24 shift 2, the experts have shared their section-wise difficulty analysis below.

Particulars	Details
Physics Difficulty Level	Moderate
Chemistry Difficulty Level	Easy to Moderate
Maths Difficulty Level	Moderate to Challenging and lengthy
Overall Difficulty Level	Moderate
High Weightage topics from Math	Vector 3D, Matrices, Determinants, Sequence and Series, Differential Equation, Area, Permutations and Combinations, Probability
Mostly asked topics from Chemistry	Name Reaction, Mole Concept, Salt Analysis, GOC, Biomolecules, Amino Acids, Coordination Compounds
Most asked topics from Physics	Current Electricity, Electrostatics, Modern Physics, Magnetism, Wave Optics
Expected Good Attempts	52-55

JEE Mains 2025 Question Paper January 24 Shift 1 with Solutions

Candidates looking for the JEE Mains exam can view the JEE Mains 2025 January 24 shift 1 question paper along with its solutions on this page. These questions are real exam paper questions and has been provided by the test takers themselves.

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Ans: Option 2

Ans: Option 3

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Ans: (C) Ce⁴⁺

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Ans: (C) Atomicity

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Ans: 2 Ω

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Candidates can check the section-wise JEE Main memory-based questions from January 24 shift 1 exam below.

Physics Questions

Q) If I = I_ASinωt + I_BCosωt, then find rms value of current.

Q) Body projected with initial velocity V₀ at 45° angle in X-Y plane. Angular momentum at highest point is?

Q) A wire of resistance 9 ohm is bent into a form of equilateral triangle the equivalent resistance between any two points of its vertex will be?

Q) Radius of curvature plano convex lens is 2cm and refractive index is 1.5 has focal length of f₁ in air and f₂ in a medium of refractive index 1.2. Calculate f₁/f_2.

Q) Solid cylinder rolling on inclined plane at angle θ. What is the linear acceleration?

Q) What is the relative shift of a focal length of a lens when optical power is increased from 0.1D to 2.5 D? (a) 24/25 (b) 13/10 (c.) 21/25 (d) 11/10.

Chemistry Questions

Q) Which of the following is the strong oxidising agent? (a) Eu²⁺ (b) Ce²⁺ (c) Ce⁴⁺ (d) Eu⁴⁺.

Q) If the K_sp of Cr(OH)₃ is 1.6 x 10^-30 M⁴. The molar solublity of salt in water is 1.56 x 10^-x, then value of X will be?

Q) Difference of melting point and boiling point between Oxygen and Sulphur can be explained by ? (a) En (b) ΔHeg (c) Atomocity (d) IE

Mathematics Questions

Q) If 5^th 6^th and 7^th term of the binomial expansion of (1+X²)ⁿ⁺⁴ are in A.P. Then the greatest binomial coefficient in the expansion of (1+X2)ⁿ⁺⁴ is?

Q) If A is a 3 x 3 Matrix such that det (A) = 2. Then det(adj(adj(adj(adjA))))? (a) 2³² (b) 2¹⁶ (c) 2⁸ (d) 2¹²

JEE Main Exam Analysis 2025 January 24 Shift 1

The initial question paper analysis of JEE Main 2025 January 24 shift 1 exam suggests that the overall difficulty level was moderate, resembling the previous shifts. Candidates can check students’ reaction and section-wise difficulty level with topics which were more asked below.

JEE Main Paper Analysis Jan 24 Shift 1: Students Reaction

• According to the students’ feedback on the JEE Main January 24 Shift 1 paper, the Maths section was lengthy but not as challenging as previous papers. The Physics section ranged from easy to moderate.
• The importance of organic chemistry was greater when compared to inorganic chemistry.
• Key topics featured in the exam include fluid dynamics, ray optics, rotational motion, work-energy principles, conic sections, 3D vectors, among others.
• According to another student, the overall JEE Main paper on January 24 was of moderate difficulty. The Maths part was somewhat challenging. The Physics and Chemistry part was of easy to moderate difficulty. Sequence series, continuity, and vectors are key subjects featured in the JEE Main exam for the January 24 shift 1.
• A number of students encountered difficulties in the JEE Main 2025 question related to the Periodic table subject. The inquiry posed was ‘Which of the following questions is incorrect?’. However, following the statements, there was an additional query asking to select the right statement from the provided choices.

Section-wise Difficulty Level

Physics: Students considered the Physics part of the JEE Main 2025 January 24 Shift 1 exam to be simple. There were additional questions based on formulas. The key subjects included Vectors, Ray and Optics, Modern Physics, Semiconductors, and Electric Current. 2 questions were directly asked from previous years’ papers

Chemistry: Easy with a few tough questions. More questions from organic chemistry. questions also included from Chemical Bonding, Mole Concept, Electrochemistry, and Determinants and physical chemistry

Mathematics: Lengthy and Tough. More questions were asked from Vectors and 3D, Area.

Expected Number of Good Attempts: 52 to 55 questions

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper January 23 Shift 2

Candidates can check the memory-based JEE Mains 2025 question paper and solutions for Jan 23 shift 2 exam below.

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Ans: Option 2

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Ans: Option 2

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Ans: Option 1

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Ans: Option 2

Candidates can check the JEE main 2025 memory based questions from Jan 23 shift 2 exam for all three sections below.

JEE Main Exam Question Paper 2025 Physics

Q) A satellite is nine times closer to earth compared to moon. Time period of moon is 27 days then period of satellite is ______.

Q) Statement 1: Graph of frequency f of X ray and atomic number Z of heavy nucleus is straight line, in X ray emission.
Statement 2: Graph of square root of frequency √f of X ray and atomic number Z of heavy nucleus is straight line, in X ray emission.

Q) In a series LCR circuit, L=100mH and C=10nF. The angular frequency of the source when current has maximum number amplitude in the circuit is __________.

Q) Two ideal diodes are connected in circuit as shown. Find current through battery.

Q) Two charges +7C and -4C are located at (-7, 0, 0) and (7, 0, 0) find electrostatic potential energy of the system.

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper with Solutions Chemistry

Q) What will be effect on pH of water when it is heated?

Q) The correct order of the melting point of 14 group elements is ________.

Q) Which one of the following plots represents zero order reactions?

Q) alpha-helx protein and beta-pleated sheet protein belong from which of the following structure?

Q) By using relation ΔG= ΔH-T ΔS, which of the following is incorrect for spontaneous reaction at a given temperature?

Q) The total number of isomers possible (aldehyde & ketones) for C ₄ H ₈ O are

Q) Match the following List I with List II

List I	List II
Bronze	Fe, Cr, and Ni
Stainless Steel	Cu and Sn
UK Gold Coin	Cu and Zn
Brass	Ag, Cu, Zn and Ni

Q) Statement 1: For a particular shell, maximum number of orbitals is n².

Statement 2: For d-subshell, number of orientation lies between -I to +I including zero.

JEE Main January 23 Shift 2 Mathematics Questions 2025

Q) A square is divided in 4×4 squares. If two squares are chosen randomly then the probability that the squares dont share common sides is _________.

Q) Consider the terms: 8, 21, 34, 47,….., 320. The variance of the given data set is ____________.

Q) There are 5 boys and 4 girls. The sum of the number of ways to sit them such that all the boys sit together and number of ways such that no boys sit together is equal to _______.

JEE Mains 2025 23 January Paper with Solutions Shift 1

The JEE Mains 2025 January 23 Session 1 Paper 1 exam for BTech was held from 9 AM to 12 PM. candidates can check the memory-based questions asked in that JEE Mains Question Paper with solutions below.

Q) Which of the following element doesn’t lie on same period.
a) Osmium
b) Iridium
c) Palladium
d) Platinum

Sol: c) Palladium

Q) Statement 1: Fructose can give tollens test even though it does not have aldehyde group.
Statement 2: When reacted with base fructose can undergo rearrangement to produce aldehyde group.
Choose the correct option.
a) If both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and the statement 2 is the correct explanation of the assertion
b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion
c) If Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

Sol: b) both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Q) Incorrect statement among the followign is : (a) SO₂ act as oxidising agent but not reducing agent (b) NO₂ exists as dimer (c) PF₅ exists but NF₅ doesnot (d) PH₃ has lower proton affinity than NH₃

Q) In an estimation of sulphur by Carius method, 160gm of organic compound gives 466 gm of Barium Sulphate. % of sulphur in the organic compund is?

Q) The displacement of a particle as function of time is x(t)=Asin(t)+Bcos²(t) +Ct²+D. Find dimension of [ABC/D]. (a) L² (b)L²T^-2 (C)LT^-2 (D)L³T

Q) A solid sphere of mass m and radius r rolls down an inclined plane with angle 30° from horizontal. The velocity with which it reaches the ground is V1. Given the length of ncline is L and its value remains same. If the angle of inclination changes to 45° the ball reaches the velocity V2. Find (V₂/V₁)².

Q) Select the correct options: (a) Total resistance of circuit is 6 ohm (b) Total resistance of circuit is 8 ohm (c) Potential difference acress CD is 4 volt (d) Potential difference acress BC is 4 volt (e) Reading of ammeter is 1AMP.

Q) Which of the folowing complex shows facial meridonia isomerism ?

Q) Which of the following reacts with Heinsberg Reagent? (i) Aniline (ii) N, N-Dimethyl Aniline, (iii)Methyl Amine (iv) C₆H₅NHC₆H₅

Q) Which of the following pair of ions are same coloured? (a) Ti⁴⁺, V³⁺ (b) Cr²⁺, Cu²⁺ (C) Cr³⁺, Ni²⁺ (D) Mn³⁺, Fe²⁺

Q) If 2 gm of Phenol is allowed to react with Br₂/H₂O. How much Br₂ will be required to produce 2, 4, 6 tribromophenol (Rounded off to nearest integer)?

Q) If 10²¹ molecules are removed from X mg of Co₂ (g). Then 2.4 x 10^-3 moles are left. Calculate the value of X.

Q) A spherical surface of radius of curvature R separates air (refractice index 1.0) from glass (refractive index 1.5). The center of curvature is in the glass. A point object P placed in air is found to have a real image Q in the glass. The line PQ cuts the surface at a point O, and PO=OQ. The distance PO is equal to? (a) 5R (b) 3R (c) 2R (d) 1.5R

Q) Two biased dice are tossed. Dice 1 has 1 on two faces 2 faces, 3 and 4 on other faces, while dice 2 has 2 on 2 faces, 4 on two faces and 1 and 3 on other faces. Then the probability that when throwing these dice we get sum 4 or 5. (a) 3/7 (b) 2/7 (c.) 4/9 (d) 8/9.

Q) If for an arithmetic progression the first term is 3 and sum of first 4 term is equal to ⅕ of the sum of next four terms, then sum of first 20 terms is? (a)1080 (b) 364 (c.) -1080 (d) -364

Q) Area of larger region bounded by curves y=|x-1| and X² + Y² = 25 is.

Q) In the expansion of (1+2^1/3+3^1/2)⁶, find the number of rational terms.

Q) If |Z/Z+1|=2 represents a circle with centre P the distance of P from D is (where D:(1,5)).

Q) (7 + e^2x)dy – (1+2e^2x) (y+3)dx + 0, y(0)=5, then y(n₂) is.

Q) Find domain of fog (x). f(x)=log_ex and g(x)= x⁴ – 2x³+3x²-2x+2 / 2x²-2x +1.

Q) The range of value of a for which 5X³-15X-a=0 has 3 distinct solutions is (α,β) then β-2α is?

Q:

JEE Mains Jan 22 Question Paper Solutions Shift 2

Candidates can check the section-wise questions present in the JEE Main 2025 January 22 shift 2 exam. These questions and solutions have been presented by the students who took the exam in shift 2 and is memory-based.

Jan 22 Shift 2 Physics Memory-Based Questions

Q) Radius of a tube decreases from 2R to R in which ideal liquid is flowing at the same level. Speed at one end is 2m/s as shown, find speed v at other end.

Q) An equiconvex lens of focal length f, is cut into four parts as shown in the diagram. The focal length of each part is ____. [Answer: 2f]

Ans: 2f

Q) A proton is moving with uniform velocity of 2 x 10^8 m/s in uniform magnetic and electric fields which are perpendicular to each other. If electric field is switched off then proton moves in circular path of radius 1.6 x 10^-5 m. Then the magnetic field B is ______.

Q) A conducting circular ring is moving with a constant velocity in a uniform magnetic field as shown. Identify the correct graph between induced emf vs time.

Q) The displacement of a particle moving under the action of a force F= 2i + bj + k is d = i + j + k. Find the value of b if the work is done by the force is zero.

Q) Let a and b be two unit vectors such that angle between a and b is π/3. If x and y are perpendicular to each other , then the product of all possible values is α is _________.

Q) A projectile is fired with the speed of  20m/s at angle of 60° with horizontal. The speed at highest point of trajectory is x m/s then x is ______.

Chemistry Questions for Jan 22 Shift 2

Q) Arrange according to CFSE: [Co(NH₃)₄]²⁺,[Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺,[Co(NH₃)₆]²⁺, [Co(NH₃)₃]³⁺

Q) Density of 3 M NaOH is 1.25g/ml. Molality of the solution is ___.

Q) Compare dipole moment of NF3, CHCl3, H2S, HBr.

Q) Which one has two secondary Hydrogen atoms?

Q) Calculate the radius of first excited state of He⁺ ion (in A°).

January 22 Shift 2 Paper 1 Memory-Based Question Mathematics

Q) 4 boys and 3 girls are to be seated in a row such that all girls seat together and two particular boys B1 and B2 are not adjacent to each other.Then the number of ways in which this arrangement can be done is __________.

Q) If 2x²+ (cosθ)x-1=0, where θ belongs to [0,2π] has roots α and β. Then the sum of maximum and minimum value of α⁴+ β⁴is _________.

JEE Main 2025 Question Paper- January 22 Shift 1

If you’re seeking an in-depth examination of the questions, explore the memory-based questions for JEE Main 2025 Paper 1 right here. Check section-wise questions from the JEE Mains 2025 January 22 shift 1 question paper.

Physics Questions

Q) A sphare is having mass M and a spherical cavity of radius R/2 is taken out. Find MOI of the remaining part about an axis passing through centre of shphere and cavity.

Q) Parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 40F is connected to a 100V power supply now the intermediate space between the plates is filled with a dielectric material of the electric constant k = 2. So due to the introduction of the dielectric the extra charge and the change in electrostatic energy in the capacitor respectively is:

(A) 2 mc and 0.4j (B) 2 mc and 0.2j (C) 4 mc and 0.2j (D) 8 mc and 2j.

Q) Find the radius of curvature of the common surface of two bubbles (R₁>R₂).

Q) An electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom has the orbit, radius of 5.3 × 10^-11m while that for the electron in third excited state is 8.48 × 10^-10 The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength is of electron in the ground state to that in the excited state is:  (A)9, (B)3, (C)4, (D)16.

Q) What amount of heat is required to convert 1 gm of Ice at -10°C into steam at 110°C?

Q) Statement 1- In a vernier callipers, one vernier scale division is smaller than one main scale division.

Statement 2- The vernier constant is given by one main scale division multiplied by the number of vernier scale divisions.

(A) Statement-l is correct, Statement-Il is incorrect,

(B) Statement-Il is correct, Statement-I is incorrect,

(C) Statement I and Il are correct and Statement-ll is the correct explanation of Statement I.,

(D) Statement I and Il are correct and Statement-ll is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Q) A charge of q is placed at mid of the edge of an imaginary cube of side ‘a’. Find the flux passing through the cube.

Q) A closed orange pipe of 10cm length in 9th harmonic resonates with 4th harmonic of open organ pipe. Find the length of the open organic pipe.

Chemistry Questions

Q) Compare boiling point of given solution: 1) 10^-4 M NaCL 2)10^-3M NaCL 3) 10^-2M NaCL 4)10^-4 M Urea.

Q) Given the weight of organic compound, 180mg and the weight of AgCl precipitated 143.5gm. Calculate the estimation of Cl in percentage. [Weight of Cl = 35.5 gm and Weight of Ag is 108 gm].

Q) For  [NiCL4]-2 what is the charge on metal and shape of complex respectively?

Q) Electrolysis of which compound give H₂H₂O₈.

Q) What is the correct decreasing order of electronegativity : (A) F > Cl > I > Br, (B) Cl > F > Br > I, (C) Cl > Br > I, (D) Br > F > I > Cl.

Q) Which of the following is not true?: (1) decay constant does not depend on temperature, (2) decay constant increases with temperature, (3) t_1/2= l_n2/K . (4) None.

Q) Which of the following has maximum size out of Al³⁺, Mg²⁺, F^–, Na⁺. (A) Al³⁺, (B) Mg²⁺, (C) F^– , (D) Na⁺

Q) Which of the following lanthanide ion has 7e^–in the outtermost cell? :  (A) Eu⁺³ (B) Gd⁺³ (C) Eu⁺² (D) Gd⁺² .

Q) Find the Incorrect statement.

1. Dipole moment of cis 2-butene is greater than trans 2-butene
2. In trans isomer identical groups are opposite direction
3. 2-methyl-2-butene can have two geometrical isomers
4. Melting point of Cis 2-butene is greater than trans 2-butene.

Mathematics Questions

Q) A 5 letter word is to be made using any distinct 5 alphabets such that middle alphabet is M and letters should be in increasing order.

Q) Let A= ⎨1,2,3⎬Then number of non-equivalence relations from A to A are?

Q) If det.(A) = -2, where A is matrix of order 3 x 3. Given that det.(-adj(adj(3A))) = 2ª3°, then find a and b.

Q) If e^{5(In x)2}+3 = X⁸then product of real value of X is?

Q) In a bag there are 4 black and 6 white balls. 2 balls are drawn at random, then the probability that both ball are white is?

Q) Given a₁ a₂a₃ … are in G.P. Such that a₁ a₅ = 28 and  a₂ + a₄ = 29. Find a

Q) Let the triangle PQR be the image of a triangle with vertices (1,3), (3,1), (2,4), in the line x + 2y-2 = 0. If the centroid of triangle PQR is the point (α,β), the 15 (α-β) equation is ?

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