Most Repeated Previous year Questions in NEET UG 2025 with Solutions

The NEET UG 2025 Examination is around the corner, scheduled on May 04, 2025 (Sunday). This is the most crucial time to practice the questions and answers more and more to grasp the concepts more effectively. The NEET Question paper is divided into three sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Zoology & Botany). On this page, we have compiled the Most Repeated Previous year Questions in NEET UG 2025 with Solutions for all subjects.

Are Repeated Previous year Physics Questions asked in NEET UG 2025?

One of the most common questions asked by students is, “Are Previous Year Questions Repeated in NEET UG 2025?” The answer to the question is quite tricky, as there is no official confirmation that questions are repeated; on the other hand, there is also no provision for not repeating questions. As a result, Students must also focus on the NEET UG Previous year Questions for better preparation. This gives a thorough review of last year’s questions, question types, and exam pattern.

How many questions are allowed to repeat in NEET 2025?

It is vital to remember that there is no rule requiring a set number of questions from past years. The NEET UG Exam pattern mentions that there will be 180 compulsory questions: 45 in Physics, 45 in Chemistry, and 90 in Biology. Students will have 180 minutes to finish the test. The NEET questions may not be the same as the previous year’s questions, but they frequently have commonalities with different values or statistics. The fundamental principle that underpins the responses to these questions stays unchanged.

Also Read: Are NEET PYQS sufficient for getting good marks?

Most Repeated Previous year Physics Questions in NEET UG 2025

1. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be:
(a) 1.4%
(b) 1.2%
(c) 1.3%
(d) 1.6%

Answer:(d) 1.6%
2. If Force (F), Velocity (V) and Time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:
(a) [F V T^(-1) ]
(b) [F V T^(-2) ]
(c) [F V^(-1) T^(-1) ]
(d) [F V^(-1) T]

Answer:(d) [F V^(-1) T]
3. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms^(-1), at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction, Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be:
(a) 5√3 ms^(-1)
(b) 5 ms^(-1)
(c) 10 ms^(-1)
(d) Zero

Answer:(a) 5√3 ms^(-1)

4.Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is

(a) g/2
(b) g/5
(c) g/10
(d) g

Answer:(b) g/5
5.The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored in it will be:
(a) 16U
(b) 2U
(c) 4U
(d) 8U

Answer:(a) 16U
6. The angular speed on a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s^2 is:
(a) 4π
(b) 2π
(c) 6π
(d) 8π

Answer:(a) 4π
7. Find the torque about the origin when a force of 3j ̂ N acts on a particle whose position vector is 2k ̂ m
(a) 6j ̂ N m
(b) -6i ̂ N m
(c) 6k ̂ N m
(d) 6i ̂ N m

Answer:(b) -6i ̂ N m
8. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is:
(a) 2v
(b) 3v
(c) 4v
(d) v

Answer:(c) 4v
9. The bulk modulus of a spherical objects is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘P’, the fractional decrease in radius is:
(a) B/3P
(b) 3P/B
(c) P/3B
(d) P/B

Answer:(c) P/3B
10. The amount of energy required to form a bubble of radius 2 cm from a soap solution is nearly: (surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 N m–1)
(a) 50.1 × 10–4 J
(b) 30.1 × 10–4 J
(c) 5.06 × 10–4 J
(d) 3.01 × 10–4 J

Answer:(d) 3.01 × 10–4 J
11. A small hole of an area of cross-section 2 mm^2 is present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s^2, the rate of flow of water through the open hole would be nearly
(a) 12.6×10^(-6) m^3/s
(b) 8.9×10^(-6) m^3/s
(c) 2.23×10^(-6) m^3/s
(d) 6.4 ×10^(-6) m^3/s

Answer:(a) 12.6×10^(-6) m^3/s
12. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be:
(a) 450
(b) 1000
(c) 1800
(d) 225

Answer:(c) 1800
13. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C, the mass of water present will be:
[Take specific heat of water =1cal /g/°C and latent heat of steam =540cal g^(–1)]:
(a) 24 g
(b) 31.5 g
(c) 42.5 g
(d) 22.5 g

Answer:(d) 22.5 g
14. The volume (V) of a monoatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph.

The ratio of the work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to State B, is
(a) 1/3
(b) 2/3
(c) 2/5
(d) 2/7

Answer:(c) 2/5
15. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will be:
(a) 4/3 T
(b) T
(c) 7/4 T
(d) 3/2 T

Answer:(d) 3/2 T
16. When the temperature of a gas is raised from 30°C to 90°C, the percentage increase in the r.m.s. velocity of the molecules will be:
(a) 60%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 30%

Answer:(b) 10%
17. If x=5 sin⁡(πt+π/3)m represent the motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively are.
(a) 5 m, 2 s
(b) 5 cm, 1 s
(c) 5 m, 1 s
(d) 5 cm, 2 s

Answer:(a) 5 m, 2 s
18. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n-1),n,(n+1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be:
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4

Answer:(b) 2
19. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.

The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R >> L) varies as:
(a) 11/R^3
(b) 1/R^4
(c) 1/R^6
(d) 1/R^2

Answer:(a) 11/R^3
20. If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery are moved close to each other, then
(A) The charge stored in it, increases.
(B) The energy stored in it, decreases.
(C) its capacitance increases.
(D) The ratio of charge to its potential remains the same.
(E) the product of charge and voltage increases.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) A, C and E only.
(b) B, D and E only.
(c) A, B and C only.
(d) A, B and E only.

Answer:(a) A, C and E only.

Repeated Previous year Biology Questions with Solutions

1.When 22.4 liters of H₂(g) is mixed with 11.2 liters of Cl₂(g), each at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to :
(a)  2 mole of HCl(g)
(b)  0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(c)  1.2 mole of HCl(g)
(d)  1 mol of HCl(g)

Answer:(d)  1 mol of HCl(g)
2. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)  A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b)  A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(c)  A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(d)  A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV

Answer:(a)  A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
3. The species Ar, K⁺, Ca²⁺ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?
(a)  Ca²⁺ < Ar < K⁺
(b)  Ca²⁺ < K⁺ < Ar
(c)  K⁺ < Ar < Ca²⁺
(d)  Ar < K⁺ < Ca²⁺

Answer:(b)  Ca²⁺ < K⁺ < Ar
4. The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of N₂ molecule, is

Answer: (c)

5. Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a)  A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(b)  A-iii, B-I, C-iv, D-ii
(c)  A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(d)  A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

Answer:(d)  A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

6. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from 1 L to 10 L volume. U for this process is:
(Use R = 8.314 J k^-1 mol^-1)
(a)  0 J
(b)  1260 J
(c)  2520 J
(d)  5040 J

Answer: (a)  0 J
7. In which of the following equilibria, and  are NOT equal?
Answer: (d)
8. The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 × 10^–3 gL^–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (K_sp) will be:
(Given molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g mol^–1)
(a)  1.08 ×10^–10 mol² L^–2
(b)  1.08 ×10^–12 mol² L^–2
(c)  1.08 × 10^–8 mol² L^–2
(d)  1.08 × 10^–14 mol² L^–2

Answer:(a)  1.08 ×10^–10 mol² L^–2
9. Which of the following reactions is a disproportionation reaction?

Select the correct option from the following
(a)  A and B only
(b)  A, B and C
(c)  A, C and D
(d)  A and D only

Answer:(a)  A and B only
10. The plot of osmotic pressure vs concentration (mol L^–¹) for a solution gives a straight line with slope 25.73 L bar The temperature at which the osmotic pressure measurement is done is:
(a)  310°C
(b)  25.73°C
(c)  12.05°C
(d)  37°C

Answer: (d)  37°C

Repeated Previous year Biology Questions with Solutions

1. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
(a) Heterosorus
(b) Homosporous
(c) Heterosporous
(d) Homosorus

Answer:(c) Heterosporous
2. In Calotropis, aestivation is:
(a) Valvate
(b) Vexillary
(c) imbricate
(d) Twisted

Answer:(a) Valvate
3. Axile placentation is observed in
(a) China rose, Petunia and Lemon
(b) Mustard, cucumber and Primrose
(c) China rose, Beans and Lupin
(d) Tomato, Dianthus and pea

Answer:(a) China rose, Petunia and Lemon
4. Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example
(a) Phospholipids
(b) Glycerides
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Amino acids

Answer:(a) Phospholipids
5. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
(a) Amino acids, glucose
(b) Vinblastine, curcumin
(c) Rubber, gums
(d) Morphine, codeine

Answer:(a) Amino acids, glucose
6. The process of appearance of recombination nodules occurs at which sub stage of prophase I in meiosis?
(a) Pachytene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Zygotene

Answer:(a) Pachytene
7. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
(a) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
(b) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(c) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
(d) Poaceae ; Rosaceae

Answer:(c) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
8. In a plant, black seed color (BB/Bb) is dominant over white seed color (bb). In order to find out the genotype of the black seed plant, with which of the following genotype will you cross it?
(a) bb
(b) Bb
(c) BB/Bb
(d) BB

Answer:(a) bb
9. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness ?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) 25%

Answer:(c) 100%
10. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
(a) Transcription of only snRNAs
(b) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(c) Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
(d) Transcription of precursor of mRNA

Answer:(c) Transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNA
11. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G?
(a) T: 20%, G: 20%
(b) T: 20%, G: 30%
(c) T: 30%, G: 20%
(d) T: 30%, G: 30%

Answer:(c) T: 30%, G: 20%
12. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
(a) In vitro fertilization
(b) National Parks
(c) Micropropagation
(d) Cryopreservation

Answer:(b) National Parks
13. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called
(a) Net primary production
(b) Secondary production
(c) Primary production
(d) Gross primary production

Answer:(c) Primary production
14. Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty is called menopause.
C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A and D only

Answer:(c) A, C and D only
15. In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?
(a) GIFT and ZIFT
(b) ICSI and ZIFT
(c) GIFT and ICSI
(d) ZIFT and IUT

Answer: (d) ZIFT and IUT

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