LIVE

NTA NEET Answer Key 2025 Codes 45, 46, 47 & 48; Download PDF

Q180: Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:

1. Nodal tissue
2. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
3. Adrenal medullary hormones
4. Adrenal cortical hormones

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C and D Only

(2) A, B and D Only

(3) A, B and C Only

(4) A, B, C and D

Answer: 3

Q176: Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

1. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell walls made of chitin.
2. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
3. Prokaryotes with cell walls made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
4. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
5. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

Answer: 4

Q175: Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYy produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?

(1) Phenotypic ratio – 9:3:3:1

(2) Phenotypic ratio – 9:7

(3) Phenotypic ratio – 1:2:1

(4) Phenotypic ratio – 3:1

Answer: 1

Q174: The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is:

1. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
2. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
3. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
4. Formation of sporophyte.
5. Release of antherozoids into water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, E, A, D, C

(2) D, E, A, B, C

(3) D, E, A, C, B

(4) B, E, A, C, D

Answer: 1

Q171: Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?

(1) Because of structural variation

(2) Its bioavailability will be increased

(3) Human body will elicit strong immune response

(4) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract

Q170: Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

(1) Gibberellin

(2) Cytokinin

(3) Ethylene

(4) Abscisic acid

Answer: 2

Q169: Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.

(1) Homology, convergent

(2) Analogy, divergent

(3) Analogy, convergent

(4) Homology, divergent
Answer: 3

Q168: Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?

(1) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.

(2) They have 75% identical genetic content.

(3) They are monozygotic twins.

(4) They are fraternal twins.

Answer: 4

Q167: Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of the monocot stem.

(1) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

(2) Phloem parenchyma is absent.

(3) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.

(4) Vascular bundles are scattered.

Answer: 3

Q163: Which of the following statements is correct about the location of the male frog copulatory pad?

(1) Second digit of fore limb

(2) First digit of the fore limb

(3) First and Second digit of fore limb

(4) First digit of hind limb

Answer: 2

Q161: A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:

(1) Cristae
(2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Mesosome
(4) Chromatophores
Answer: 3

Q160: Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?

A. Restriction enzymes

B. DNA ligase

C. DNA mutase

D. DNA recombinase

E. DNA polymerase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D and E only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and B only

Answer:  3

Q159: Histones are enriched with -

(1) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(2) Phenylalanine & Arginine
(3) Lysine & Arginine
(4) Leucine & Lysine

Answer: 3

Q158: Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?

(1) Jacque Monod
(2) Franklin Stahl
(3) George Gamow
(4) Francis Crick

Answer: 3

Q151: While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of an adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?

(1) Schizocoelomate
(2) Spongocoelomate
(3) Acoelomate
(4) Pseudocoelomate

Answer: 4

Q150: The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as

(1) Cytochrome c oxidase
(2) NADH dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome bc₁
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase

Answer: 4

Q149: Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -

(1) Complementary tRNA
(2) Non-complementary ssRNA
(3) Complementary dsRNA
(4) Inhibitory ssRNA
Answer: 3

Q144: Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?

(1) Succinate dehydrogenase
(2) Catalase
(3) RuBisCo
(4) Carbonic anhydrase

Answer: 3

Q140: Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defense in the human body?

(1) Cell-mediated Immunity
(2) Humoral Immunity
(3) Acquired Immunity
(4) Innate Immunity

Answer: 4

Q139: How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?

(1) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(2) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(3) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(4) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

Answer: 1

Q136: Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

(1) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

(2) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

(3) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

(4) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.

Answer: 3

Q129: Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:

A. Respiration and Locomotion

B. Excretion and Locomotion

C. Capture and transport of food

D. Digestion and Respiration

E. Digestion and Excretion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B and C Only
(2) B, D, and E Only
(3) A and B Only
(4) A and C Only

Answer: 4

Q134: In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?

(1) Nutrient absorption
(2) Gaseous exchange
(3) Sexual reproduction
(4) Asexual reproduction

Answer:4

Q128: Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for:

(1) Liver disease treatment
(2) Removing clots from blood vessels
(3) Curd production
(4) Ethanol production

Answer: 2

Q127:All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:

(1) Symbiotic
(2) Ectoparasite
(3) Free living
(4) Endoparasite

Answer: 2

Q118: What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

(1) Autosomal dominant pattern
(2) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
(3) Mendelian inheritance pattern
(4) Non-Mendelian inheritance pattern

Answer: 1

Q117: Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

(1) Beer
(2) Rum
(3) Whisky
(4) Brandy

Answer: 1

Q116: Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?

(1) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(2) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
(3) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(4) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

Answer: 4

Q123:Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

(1) Ram Udar
(2) Birbal Sahni
(3) S. R. Kashyap
(4) Ramdeo Misra

Answer : 4

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(1) Zoos and botanical gardens
(2) Protected areas
(3) National Park
(4) Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: (1) Zoos and botanical gardens

Which of the following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B only
(2) E only
(3) A only
(4) D only

Answer: (4) D only

Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
(1) Pea
(2) Chilli
(3) Petunia
(4) Datura
Answer: (1) Pea

Read the following statements on plant growth and development.

A. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements:
(1) A, D, E only
(2) B, D, E only
(3) A, B, C only
(4) A, C, E only

Answer: (3)

Consider the following statements regarding the function of adrenal medullary hormones:
A. It causes pupillary constriction
B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
C. It causes piloerection
D. It increases strength of heart contraction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C, and D Only
(2) D Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) B, C, and D Only

Answer: (4) B, C, and D Only

Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity, and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following:
(1) The statement is false for water but true for land
(2) The statement is false for both the environment
(3) The statement is true for water but false for land
(4) The statement is true for both the environment

Answer: (1) The statement is false for water but true for land

Find the correct statements:
A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy, heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of the second month.
E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D and E Only
(2) A, C, D and E Only
(3) A and E Only
(4) B and C Only

Answer: (1) B, C, D and E Only

Q110: Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
(1) Predation
(2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Mutualism

Answer: (3) Commensalism

Q107: Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, E only
(2) C, D, E only
(3) A, B, C only
(4) B, C, D only

Answer: (4) B, C, D only

Q106: In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:

(1) Kidney and intestine
(2) Kidney and lower part of body
(3) Liver and intestine
(4) Liver and kidney

Answer: 2

Q105: Match List I with List II.

List I
A. Adenosine
B. Adenylic acid
C. Adenine
D. Alanine

List II
I. Nitrogen base
II. Nucleotide
III. Nucleoside
IV. Amino acid

Choose the option with all correct matches:

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Answer: 1

Q102: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Answer: 3

Q101: Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

(1) Virus
(2) Phage
(3) Bacterium
(4) Yeast

Answer: 3

Q96: Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?

(1) Seeds are absent.
(2) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
(3) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(4) Seeds are naked.

Answer: 4

Q 100: The first menstruation is called:

(1) Diapause
(2) Ovulation
(3) Menopause
(4) Menarche

Answer: 4

Q99: Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?

(1) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
(2) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
(3) It is active only in the dark.
(4) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.

Answer: 2

Q98: Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

(1) Chromosome 1
(2) Chromosome 10
(3) Chromosome X
(4) Chromosome Y

Answer: 1

Q95: Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:

A mass of proliferating cells
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, D only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B only
(4) A, B, C only

Answer: (4) A, B, C only

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Answer: 1

Students taking NEET UG was not have any optional questions or extra time that were introduced during COVID, and the exam will be held in the pre-COVID format. The NEET UG 2025 exam paper will now contain 180 obligatory questions, 45 in physics and chemistry and 90 in biology.

This year, over 22.7 lakh students applied for the exam, which was held today from 2 to 5 PM.

As per the NEET Exam analysis, overall, the NEET question paper 2025 was moderate in difficulty level. Most questions are direct and based on the NCERT textbooks.

As the exam is now over, our subject matter experts have now started evaluating the answer keys of today's exam.. Stay tuned with us to get the NEET UG 2025 answer key of your respective sets as soon as possible.

The NTA has just concluded the NEET UG exam for the year 2025 at 5:00. Students are now slowly coming out of the exam center.

The NTA has started the NEET UG 2025 exam at the various exam centers throughout the country at 02:00 P.M and continued until 05:00 P.M. The ANswer keys of the NEET 2025 will be released soon after the exam is over

It is projected that the NEET Cutoff 2025 for the general category will be between 720 and 162. The projected NEET cutoff scores for the SC/ST/OBC category in 2025 are expected to range from 161 to 127 marks.

The NEET 2025 Exam format has undergone several changes, updated to reflect the pre-COVID period schedule.  The optional questions have been removed, making the total number of questions 180 rather than 200.  The exam duration has also been decreased from 200 to 180 minutes.

This year, around 23 lakh (2.3 million) candidates are likely to take the NEET 2025 exam in India.  This marks a decrease from the 24 lakh students that took part in NEET 2024.

The unofficial answer keys of NEET UG 2025 for all question paper sets will be shared on this page around 5:30 P.M. Students can download the NEET 2025 Answer key of their respective sets on their device for future reference.

 The NEET 2025 difficulty level is likely to range from moderate to challenging.  Once the exam is completed, we will post the whole analysis, including a detailed question paper analysis, on this website.