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NEET 2025 Question Paper PDF (Available), Check Complete Analysis of All Sets

The National Testing Agency (NTA) successfully conducted the National Eligibility and Entrance Test for Undergraduates (NEET UG) today, May 4, from 2 to 5 p.m. All the current and future medical aspirants are keenly looking for the NEET 2025 Question Paper, as NTA made huge changes to this year’s paper pattern.

As the exam is now completed, we have shared the NEET UG 2025 Question paper PDF for all sets with solutions on this page to make things easier. Along with the NEET 2025 Paper, we also shared the complete analysis, section-wise difficulty level, and experts’ reviews on this page.

NEET 2025 Question Paper

As per the latest exam pattern, the NEET 2025 question paper consists of 180 compulsory multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany & Zoology), with 45 questions each for Physics and Chemistry and 90 for Biology, all in an offline pen-and-paper format. Students have been allotted  3 hours (180 minutes) to complete the paper.

As per the marking scheme, for each correct answer, students received four marks, and for each incorrect answer, one mark was deducted. Students who are preparing for the NEET 2026 session must review Today’s NEET 2025 paper to know the question types, difficulty level, and other crucial insights.

NEET Question Paper 2025 Overview

Solving the NEET 2025 question paper allows you to grasp better the kinds of questions, difficulty level, and marking scheme.  This year, the exam pattern reverts to its pre-COVID format. The NEET UG 2025 paper will now include 180 compulsory questions: 45 in physics and chemistry, and 90 in biology.

Candidates will have 180 minutes to complete the paper, and they will not receive any optional questions or extra time introduced during COVID-19.

NEET UG 2025 Question Paper Section wise Mark Distribution
Subject No. of Questions Marks per Question Total Marks
Physics 45 4 180
Chemistry 45 4 180
Biology 90 4 360
Total 180 720

NEET UG 2025 Question Paper PDF Download

Amid the controversies over last year’s NEET UG paper leak, NTA has implemented many strict precautions to make the exam process smooth and fair. The NTA conducts the NEET exam over multiple sets to maintain its sanctity. After the exam, we will soon share the NEET 2025 Question Paper PDF for all sets in the table below.

NEET Question Paper 2025 PDF for all Sets
NEET UG Question Paper 2025 Code 45
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NEET 2025 Question Paper Code 46
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NEET Question Paper 2025 Code 47
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NEET UG Question Paper 2025 Code 48
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NEET 2025 Paper Analysis

For students taking the upcoming NEET session exam, analysing the NEET 2025 paper can be quite beneficial. This NEET 2025 question paper analysis provides useful insights into the topics the NTA is focusing on and how many questions are easy, moderate, or challenging.

This can help future aspirants better comprehend the nature of the paper and prepare their strategy. After the exam is over, we will update with a full analysis of the NEET UG 2024 exam to help candidates understand the exam’s difficulty level and other crucial insights.

NEET Question Paper 2025 Difficulty Level

The overall difficulty level of the NEET question paper is likely moderate in most of the sets. However, the section-wise difficulty level is shared only after the exam is over. Understanding the NEET Exam difficulty level helps future aspirants to make the right strategy. Refer to the table below for the section-wise NEET 2025 paper difficulty level.

Parameters Difficulty level
Overall difficulty  level of the NEET 2025 question paper TBA
Physics Section TBA
Chemistry Section TBA
Zoology Section TBA
Botany Section TBA
Toughest section in the NEET 2025 Exam paper TBA

NEET 2025 Exam Analysis by Experts

NEET 2025 question paper analysis aids in comprehending the exam format, question difficulty level, and main focus areas. Our experts are currently decoding each and every section of the NEET question paper to provide you with the most authentic data. Students can also visit our YouTube Channel for a more in-depth study, which includes the complete analysis.

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2025-05-04 19:11:40

Q180: Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:


NEET 2025 Question Paper PDF (Available), Check Complete Analysis of All Sets -_3.1
  1. Nodal tissue
  2. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
  3. Adrenal medullary hormones
  4. Adrenal cortical hormones

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C and D Only

(2) A, B and D Only

(3) A, B and C Only

(4) A, B, C and D

2025-05-04 19:05:26

Q176: Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.


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  1. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
  2. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
  3. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
  4. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
  5. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
2025-05-04 19:04:50

Q175: Genes R and Y follow independent assortment. If RRYy produce round yellow seeds and rryy produce wrinkled green seeds, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation?


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(1) Phenotypic ratio – 9:3:3:1

(2) Phenotypic ratio – 9:7

(3) Phenotypic ratio – 1:2:1

(4) Phenotypic ratio – 3:1

2025-05-04 19:03:46

Q174: The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is:


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  1. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
  2. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
  3. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
  4. Formation of sporophyte.
  5. Release of antherozoids into water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, E, A, D, C

(2) D, E, A, B, C

(3) D, E, A, C, B

(4) B, E, A, C, D

2025-05-04 19:03:08

Q171: Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?


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1) Because of structural variation

(2) Its bioavailability will be increased

(3) Human body will elicit strong immune response

(4) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract

2025-05-04 19:02:36

Q170: Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?


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(1) Gibberellin

(2) Cytokinin

(3) Ethylene

(4) Abscisic acid

2025-05-04 19:01:49

Q169: Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.


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1) Homology, convergent

(2) Analogy, divergent

(3) Analogy, convergent

(4) Homology, divergent

2025-05-04 19:01:25

Q168: Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?


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(1) They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.

(2) They have 75% identical genetic content.

(3) They are monozygotic twins.

(4) They are fraternal twins.

2025-05-04 19:00:54

Q167: Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of the monocot stem.


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(1) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.

(2) Phloem parenchyma is absent.

(3) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.

(4) Vascular bundles are scattered.

2025-05-04 19:00:33

Q163: Which of the following statements is correct about the location of the male frog copulatory pad?


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(1) Second digit of fore limb

(2) First digit of the fore limb

(3) First and Second digit of fore limb

(4) First digit of hind limb

2025-05-04 19:00:08

Q161: A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is:


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(1) Cristae
(2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Mesosome
(4) Chromatophores

2025-05-04 18:54:08

Q160: Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?


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A.Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) D and E only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) A and B only

2025-05-04 18:53:24

Q159: Histones are enriched with -


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(1) Phenylalanine & Leucine
(2) Phenylalanine & Arginine
(3) Lysine & Arginine
(4) Leucine & Lysine

2025-05-04 18:52:43

Q158: Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?


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(1) Jacque Monod
(2) Franklin Stahl
(3) George Gamow
(4) Francis Crick

2025-05-04 18:52:25

Q151: While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of an adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?


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(1) Schizocoelomate
(2) Spongocoelomate
(3) Acoelomate
(4) Pseudocoelomate

2025-05-04 18:51:57

Q150: The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as


NEET 2025 Question Paper PDF (Available), Check Complete Analysis of All Sets -_3.1

(1) Cytochrome c oxidase
(2) NADH dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome bc₁
(4) Succinate dehydrogenase

2025-05-04 18:51:40

Q149: Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of -


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(1) Complementary tRNA
(2) Non-complementary ssRNA
(3) Complementary dsRNA
(4) Inhibitory ssRNA

2025-05-04 18:51:07

Q144: Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?


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(1) Succinate dehydrogenase
(2) Catalase
(3) RuBisCo
(4) Carbonic anhydrase

2025-05-04 18:50:48

Q140: Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defense in the human body?


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(1) Cell-mediated Immunity
(2) Humoral Immunity
(3) Acquired Immunity
(4) Innate Immunity

2025-05-04 18:50:34

Q139: How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?


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(1) 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(2) No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
(3) 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
(4) 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis

2025-05-04 18:50:15

Q136: Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?


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(1) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

(2) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.

(3) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.

(4) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.

2025-05-04 18:49:45

Q134: In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?


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(1) Nutrient absorption
(2) Gaseous exchange
(3) Sexual reproduction
(4) Asexual reproduction

2025-05-04 18:49:14

NEET 2025 Question Number 133 - Test Booklet Code 48


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  1. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
  2. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
  3. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
  4. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B and D are true

(2) B and C are true

(3) A and B are true

(4) A and C are true

2025-05-04 18:43:09

Q129: Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is:


NEET 2025 Question Paper PDF (Available), Check Complete Analysis of All Sets -_3.1
  1. Respiration and Locomotion
    B. Excretion and Locomotion
    C. Capture and transport of food
    D. Digestion and Respiration
    E. Digestion and Excretion
  2. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:(1) B and C Only
    (2) B, D, and E Only
    (3) A and B Only
    (4) A and C Only
2025-05-04 18:42:43

Q128: Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for:


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(1) Liver disease treatment
(2) Removing clots from blood vessels
(3) Curd production
(4) Ethanol production

2025-05-04 18:42:27

Q127:All living members of the class Cyclostomata are:


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(1) Symbiotic
(2) Ectoparasite
(3) Free living
(4) Endoparasite

2025-05-04 18:41:29

Q118: What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?


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(1) Autosomal dominant pattern
(2) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
(3) Mendelian inheritance pattern
(4) Non-Mendelian inheritance pattern

2025-05-04 18:41:12

Q117: Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?


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(1) Beer
(2) Rum
(3) Whisky
(4) Brandy

2025-05-04 18:40:47

Q116: Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?


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(1) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
(2) Adenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
(3) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
(4) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

2025-05-04 18:40:21

Q123:Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?


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(1) Ram Udar
(2) Birbal Sahni
(3) S. R. Kashyap
(4) Ramdeo Misra

2025-05-04 18:29:43

Q122: Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?


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(1) Zoos and botanical gardens
(2) Protected areas
(3) National Park
(4) Wildlife Sanctuary

2025-05-04 18:28:59

Q121:Which of the following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?


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A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B only
(2) E only
(3) A only
(4) D only

2025-05-04 18:28:44

Q120: Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?


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(1) Pea
(2) Chilli
(3) Petunia
(4) Datura

2025-05-04 18:28:08

Q115: Read the following statements on plant growth and development.


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  1. Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
    B. Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
    C. Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
    D. Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
    E. Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.

Choose the option with all correct statements:

(1) A, D, E only
(2) B, D, E only
(3) A, B, C only
(4) A, C, E only

2025-05-04 18:26:14

Q114: Consider the following statements regarding the function of adrenal medullary hormones:


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  1. It causes pupillary constriction
    B. It is a hyperglycemic hormone
    C. It causes piloerection
    D. It increases strength of heart contraction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, C, and D Only
(2) D Only
(3) C and D Only
(4) B, C, and D Only

2025-05-04 18:26:06

Q113: Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity, and lungs.


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Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) The statement is false for water but true for land
(2) The statement is false for both the environment
(3) The statement is true for water but false for land
(4) The statement is true for both the environment

2025-05-04 18:24:59

Q111: Find the correct statements:


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  1. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
    B. In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
    C. In human pregnancy, heart is formed after one month of gestation.
    D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of the second month.
    E. In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, D and E Only
(2) A, C, D and E Only
(3) A and E Only
(4) B and C Only

2025-05-04 18:24:08

Q110: Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?


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(1) Predation
(2) Amensalism
(3) Commensalism
(4) Mutualism

2025-05-04 17:21:09

Q107: Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?


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  1. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
    B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
    C. Addition of methyl group at 5’ end of hnRNA.
    D. Addition of adenine residues at 3’ end of hnRNA.
    E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.Choose the correct answer from the options given below:(1) B, C, E only
    (2) C, D, E only
    (3) A, B, C only
    (4) B, C, D only
2025-05-04 17:19:00

Q106: In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:


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(1) Kidney and intestine
(2) Kidney and lower part of body
(3) Liver and intestine
(4) Liver and kidney

2025-05-04 17:15:00

Q105: Match List I with List II.


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List I
A. Adenosine
B. Adenylic acid
C. Adenine
D. Alanine

List II
I. Nitrogen base
II. Nucleotide
III. Nucleoside
IV. Amino acid

Choose the option with all correct matches:

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

2025-05-04 17:15:00

Q102: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).


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Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.

Reason (R): The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

2025-05-04 18:14:00

Q101: Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?


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(1) Virus
(2) Phage
(3) Bacterium
(4) Yeast

2025-05-04 18:14:00

Q96: Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?


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(1) Seeds are absent.
(2) Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction.
(3) Seeds are enclosed in fruits.
(4) Seeds are naked.

2025-05-04 18:13:00

Q 100: The first menstruation is called:


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(1) Diapause
(2) Ovulation
(3) Menopause
(4) Menarche

2025-05-04 18:11:00

Q99: Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?


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(1) It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water.
(2) It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP.
(3) It is active only in the dark.
(4) It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide.

2025-05-04 18:02:00

Q95: Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:


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A.A mass of proliferating cells
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, D only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B only
(4) A, B, C only

2025-05-04 18:00:00

Q98: Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?


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(1) Chromosome 1
(2) Chromosome 10
(3) Chromosome X
(4) Chromosome Y

2025-05-04 17:47:35

NEET 2025 Question Number 94 - Test Booklet Code 48


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Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.

Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

2025-05-04 17:47:00

NEET 2025 Question Number 93 - Test Booklet Code 48


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  1. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.

Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

Q92: The protein portion of an enzyme is called:


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(1) Apoenzyme
(2) Prosthetic group
(3) Cofactor
(4) Coenzyme

2025-05-04 17:42:10

NEET 2025 Question Number 89 - Test Booklet Code 48


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Q89: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Benzenediazonium salt is prepared by the reaction of aniline with nitrous acid at 273 - 278 K. It decomposes easily in the dry state.

Statement II: Insertion of iodine into the benzene ring is difficult and hence iodobenzene is prepared through the reaction of benzenediazonium salt with KI.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

2025-05-04 17:39:59

Q76: Dalton’s Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?


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(1) Law of multiple proportion
(2) Law of gaseous volume
(3) Law of conservation of mass
(4) Law of constant proportion

2025-05-04 17:38:45

Q70: 5 moles of liquid X and 10 moles of liquid Y make a solution having a vapor pressure of 70 torr. The vapor pressures of pure X and Y are 63 torr and 78 torr respectively. Which of the following is true regarding the described solution?


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(1) The solution is ideal.

(2) The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.

(3) The solution shows positive deviation.

(4) The solution shows negative deviation.

Q56: Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.


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  1. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

2025-05-04 17:35:47

Q50: Given below are two statements:


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Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.

Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

NEET Question Paper PDFs of Last years

Every year, the National Testing Agency releases the NEET UG Question paper with solutions for all sets on its official portal. The previous year’s NEET question papers helped future students to get familiar with the paper pattern, difficulty level, frequently asked questions, and many more crucial insights that will help in the preparation. Download the NEET question papers with answer keys from the table below for the last few years with solutions.

Year Solution PDF Question paper
NEET 2024 Question Paper Download PDF Click here
NEET 2023 Question Paper Download PDF Click here
NEET 2022 Question Paper Download PDF Click here
NEET 2021 Question Paper Download PDF Click here
NEET 2020 Question Paper Download PDF Click here
NEET 2019 Question Paper Download PDF Click here

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About the Author

Soumyadeep specializes in content creation for board exams, catering to the demands of CBSE, ICSE, and other state boards students. He has two years of experience in the education industry. He has a graduate degree in Zoology Honours, he delivers content across several domains, including CUET (UG and PG), NEET, JEE, and universities. 

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