UPSC Assistant Labour Commissioner Recruitment 2021: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has released the UPSC ALC 2021 notification for recruitment for the post of Junior Time Scale (JTS) Grade of Central Labour Service (Group ‘A’ Organized Service) consisting of the posts of Assistant Labour Commissioner (Central)/ Assistant Welfare Commissioner (Central)/ Assistant Labour Welfare Commissioner (Central)/ Assistant Director, Ministry of Labour & Employment. As of now, the total number of vacancies stands at 29, which the commission can increase or decrease in the future.
UPSC ALC Exam Syllabus and Exam Pattern
In our previous article, we have already discussed the syllabus and exam pattern for UPSC Assistant Labour Commissioned Exam 2021. In this article, we are providing the Previous Year UPSC ALC Exam Paper, which was conducted in 2015. By analyzing this paper, aspirants can get the idea of the level and trend of the questions asked in UPSC Assistant Labour Commissioner Exam. Accordingly, aspirants can start preparing for the exam, by formulating a proper strategy.
UPSC ALC Previous Year’s Paper
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
10.05.2015 (1ST SHIFT) (14 POSTS OF ALC)
1.
Which one of the following explanations is indicated by the term ‘welfare’ as a total concept?
(a) It is a desirable state of existence involving physical, mental, moral and emotional well-being
(b) It is the welfare of man, his family and community
(c) It is contingent upon time and space
(d) It demands certain minimum acceptable conditions of existence, biologically and socially
2.
‘Atonement’ and ‘Investment’ are two co-equal aspects of which one of the following labour welfare theory?
(a) The Philanthropic theory
(b) The Placating theory
(c) The Public Relations theory
(d) The Religious theory
3.
The first Factories Act for India was enacted in the year:
(a) 1948
(b) 1881
(c) 1911
(d) 1891
4.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the provision for ‘Welfare Officer’ is NOT correct?
(a) This provision is given in the Factories Act 1948
(b) This provision, in case of Mines and Plantations, is given in the central rules of these two Acts but not in the main Acts
(c) For factories and plantations this provision is applicable when 500 or more workers are employed
(d) In mines this provision is made applicable when 500 or more workers are employed
5.
Which one of the following is NOT a ‘welfare measure’ under the Factories Act 1948?
(a) Drinking water
(b) Crèches
(c) First aid
(d) Canteen
6.
Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act 1961, what is the amount of medical bonus paid?
(a) Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs. 2,500
(c) Rs. 3,000
(d) Rs. 3,500
7.
Under the Maternity Benefit Act 1961, what is the minimum number of days a woman employee must have worked under an employer in the twelve months preceding the date of expected delivery for becoming eligible for maternity benefit?
(a) 90 days
(b) 80 days
(c) 180 days
(d) 240 days
8.
Under the provisions of the Employees’ Compensation Act 1923, what will be the amount of compensation payable to an employee suffering from permanent total disability with his monthly salary drawn Rs. 15,800 and the relevant factor 181.37?
(a) Rs. 7,75,376
(b) Rs. 5,40,000
(c) Rs. 8,70,576
(d) Rs. 1,40,000
9.
Who among the following is NOT a dependent under the provisions of the Employees’ Compensation Act 1923?
(a) A widower
(b) An adult widowed sister
(c) A parent other than a widowed mother
(d) A widowed daughter – in – law
10.
Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Medical Benefit Council constituted under the Employees’ Insurance Act 1948?
(a) The Director General, Health Services, Government of India
(b) The Medical Commissioner of the Employees State Insurance Corporation
(c) The Director General, Employees State Insurance Corporation
(d) Chairman, Medical Council of India
11.
Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefits Act 1961, every women employee after delivery of a child who returns to duty is to be provided with nursing breaks till the child attains the age of:
(a) Twelve months
(b) Fifteen months
(c) Ten months
(d) Eighteen months
12.
Which one of the following statements about industrial relations is NOT correct?
(a) Industrial relations have to be managed in the interest of maintaining a viable collaborative structure
(b) Formulation of rules by consensus and their implementation are core to industrial relations
(c) The pluralistic framework looks employee participation in industrial relations from a disintegrative perspective
(d) The radicalists consider industrial relations in a distributive sense
13.
Which one of the following is NOT a logic of industrial relations?
(a) The logic of conflict
(b) The logic of competition
(c) The logic of industrial peace
(d) The logic of employment – income protection
14.
What is a ‘Wild – Cat’ strike?
(a) Strike called by the workers with the support of union with notice to the employer
(b) Strike called by a group of workers on the spur of the moment without any formal notice to the employer and consent from the union
(c) Strike called by the union without resorting to strike ballot
(d) Strike called by non-unionised workers, even if notice is given to the employer
15.
Which one of the following is a ‘jurisdictional strike’?
(a) Two unions claiming the office space conduct strike
(b) Two unions conduct strike for registration with the same name
(c) Two unions may claim to represent the same set of workers and may clamour for recognition on this claim and go for a strike to pressurize the management
(d) Two unions claiming possession of a common seal go for strike to elicit the support of workers
16.
What is ‘yellow dog contract’?
(a) A contract where a union agrees to inform the employer about the possible strike by a rival union
(b) When Management secures an agreement from the workman that he will not join a union during the course of his employment
(c) An unwritten contract with the employer, where a faction of the union acts as a ‘whistle blower’
(d) The employer promotes a pocket union by entering into an agreement with the trade union
17.
The Institution of Voluntary Arbitration as a method of settling industrial disputes was strongly favoured by:
(a) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(b) V V Giri
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
18.
The Industrial Disputes Bill 1947 observed that ‘industrial peace will be most enduring where it is founded on voluntary settlement’. Which one of the following machineries under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 was created for this purpose?
(a) Works Committee
(b) Board of Conciliation
(c) Court of Enquiry
(d) Labour Court
19.
In India, which one of the following systems prevails in respect of adjudication in industrial disputes?
(a) Voluntary reference and voluntary acceptance of the award
(b) Voluntary reference but compulsory acceptance of the award
(c) Compulsory reference but voluntary acceptance of the award
(d) Discretionary reference and compulsory acceptance of the award
20.
In India which one of the following bodies was created particularly to focus on social and labour issues arising out of economic reforms in 1991?
(a) Joint Consultation Board
(b) National Apex Body
(c) Special Tripartite Committee
(d) Standing Labour Committee
21.
Which one of the following was NOT recommended by the Second National Commission on Labour?
(a) Labour Management Relations Law consolidating the relevant laws be enacted
(b) ‘Go Slow’ and ‘Work to Rule’ be regarded as misconducts
(c) ‘Strike Ballot’ for public utility services
(d) All the three methods of union recognition namely Membership verification, Secret Ballot, and Check-Off be the basis for choosing a bargaining agent
22.
The view that people can learn through observation and direct experience is associated with which one of the following theories of learning?
(a) Social learning
(b) Operant conditioning
(c) Reinforcement
(d) Classical conditioning
23.
Employees’ belief in the degree to which they affect their work environment, their competence, the meaningfulness of their job and their perceived autonomy in their work indicates:
(a) Organisational commitment
(b) Psychological empowerment
(c) Affective commitment
(d) Job satisfaction
24.
The tendency of individuals to attribute their own success to internal factors and put the blame for failures on external factors indicates:
(a) Fundamental attribution error
(b) Self-serving bias
(c) Selective perception
(d) Contrast effects
25.
Intuitive decision making means:
(a) a non-conscious process created out of distilled experience.
(b) making decisions by constructing simplified models without capturing complexity.
(c) behaving in such a way so as to maximize output.
(d) developing alternatives consciously.
26.
A group, whose efforts result in performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs, is called:
(a) Work Group.
(b) Work Team.
(c) Virtual Team.
(d) Self-managed Group.
27.
The concept that a subordinate should have only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible is known as:
(a) Span of control.
(b) Unity of command.
(c) Chain of command.
(d) Authority control.
28.
Which one of the following appraisal methods combines the benefits of narratives, critical incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific examples of good or poor performance?
(a) Forced distribution
(b) Alternation ranking
(c) Behaviourally anchored rating scale
(d) Graphic rating scale
29.
Which one of the following demographic characteristics reflects surface-level diversity?
(a) Differences in value
(b) Ethnicity
(c) Personality
(d) Work preferences
30.
A ‘SMART’ mnemomic criterion is used in:
(a) Selection process.
(b) Job rotation.
(c) Performance management.
(d) Compensation management.
31.
Outplacement is the process of:
(a) removal of employees from the job.
(b) transferring the employee out of the country.
(c) helping redundant employees to find new job.
(d) sending the employee on deputation to other organizations.
32.
The principles of natural justice have emanated from:
(a) religious doctrines.
(b) constitutional law.
(c) common law.
(d) social norms.
33.
If an aggrieved employee is NOT satisfied with the proceedings of the enquiry, he may ask for:
(a) ‘ex-parte’ enquiry.
(b) ‘de-novo’ enquiry.
(c) legal enquiry.
(d) domestic enquiry.
34.
In case of disciplinary action, the principles of natural justice have given rise to which one of the following procedural safeguards?
(a) Charge-sheet
(b) Punishment without enquiry
(c) Disproportionate punishment
(d) First information report
35.
‘Audi alteram partem’ is associated with:
(a) Strikes.
(b) Disciplinary action.
(c) Trade Union.
(d) Closure.
36.
Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the maximum time period for which the members of the executive and other office bearers of a trade union shall be elected?
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Four years
(d) Three years
37.
Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the minimum amount of subscription that can be fixed for the members of a trade union of rural workers?
(a) Three rupees per annum
(b) One rupee per month
(c) One rupee per annum
(d) Six rupees per annum
38.
Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, ordinarily what is the minimum age a person should have attained to become a member of a registered trade union?
(a) Fourteen years
(b) Fifteen years
(c) Sixteen years
(d) Eighteen years
39.
Under the provisions of the Trade Union Act 1926, what is the minimum number of members engaged in the establishment as workmen required for registration of a trade union?
(a) Seven
(b) One hundred
(c) Ten percent of the total employees
(d) Twenty one
40.
Which one of the following can be considered a precursor of the Trade Union Movement in India?
(a) Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association
(b) Madras Labour Union
(c) Bombay Millhands’ Association
(d) Kamgar Hitbardhak Sabha
41.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of establishment of trade union federations in India starting with the earliest?
(a) INTUC, HMS, AITUC, CITU, BMS
(b) AITUC, INTUC, HMS, BMS, CITU
(c) AITUC, INTUC, BMS, CITU, HMS
(d) INTUC, AITUC, BMS, HMS, CITU
42.
Who among the following was the first President of the All India Trade Union Congress?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) N M Joshi
(c) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai
43.
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Council of Indian Employers (CIE) is NOT true?
(a) It was formed in the year 1956
(b) It unified the All India Organisation of Employers (AIOE) and the Employers Federation of India (EFI)
(c) The Standing Conference on Public Enterprises has not joined the CIE
(d) The AIOE and EFI still retain their identity while sending equal number of representatives to the CIE
44.
Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, the average pay for a monthly paid workman means the average of the:
(a) wages payable in six completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable.
(b) wages payable in three completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable.
(c) wages payable in four completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable.
(d) wages payable in twelve completed calendar months preceding the date on which the average pay becomes payable.
45.
What is the time period within which the Grievance Redressal Committee constituted under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is to complete its proceedings on receipt of a written application by or on behalf of the aggrieved party?
(a) 15 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
46.
Which one of the following statements as per the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 is NOT correct?
(a) Court of Inquiry is constituted by the appropriate Government
(b) Conciliation officers for conciliating industrial disputes in Central Government Public Sector Undertakings are appointed by the Central Government
(c) The National Tribunal is constituted by both the Central Government and State Governments
(d) A Board of Conciliation consists of a Chairman and two or four Members, as the appropriate Government thinks fit
47.
Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, what is the time period within which the appropriate Government has to publish the award of a Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal and National Tribunal from the date of receipt of the same?
(a) Thirty days
(b) Sixty days
(c) Ninety days
(d) Forty five days
48.
Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, which one of the following is considered to be retrenchment?
(a) Voluntary retirement of a workman
(b) Termination of services of a workman, otherwise than as punishment inflicted by way of disciplinary action
(c) Termination of service of workman on the ground of ill health
(d) Termination of service of a workman as a result of non-renewal of contract of employment between the employer and workman concerned on its expiry
49.
Under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, what is the time period within which if no communication has been received by an employer in response to his application to the appropriate Government for retrenchment of workmen, then it will be deemed that permission for retrenchment has been granted?
(a) Ninety days
(b) Forty five days
(c) Thirty days
(d) Sixty days
50.
The term ‘Protected Workmen’ is defined in:
(a) Trade Union Act 1926.
(b) Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
(c) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970.
(d) Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996.
51.
Which one of the following statements explains that a strike is legal under the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947?
(a) A strike declared in consequence of an illegal lock-out
(b) A strike declared during the pendency of conciliation proceedings before a Board and seven days after the conclusion of such proceedings
(c) A strike declared during any period in which a settlement or award is in operation in respect of any matter covered by the settlement or award
(d) A strike declared during pendency of proceedings before a Labour Court or Tribunal and two months after the conclusion of such proceedings
52.
The provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936 shall be made applicable to an employed person drawing a monthly wages NOT exceeding:
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 12,000
(d) Rs. 15,000
53.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, the total amount of fine that may be imposed in any one wage period on any employed person shall NOT exceed an amount equal to:
(a) Four per cent of wages
(b) Five per cent of wages
(c) Three per cent of wages
(d) Six per cent of wages
54.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, NO fine shall be imposed on any employed person who is under the age of:
(a) Fifteen years.
(b) Sixteen years.
(c) Seventeen years.
(d) Eighteen years.
55.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Wages Act 1936, fine imposed on any employed person can NOT be recovered after expiry of how many days from the day it was imposed?
(a) One hundred days
(b) Ninety days
(c) One hundred and twenty days
(d) One hundred and eighty days
56.
Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, which one of the following is a component of ‘Wages’?
(a) Value of house accommodation
(b) Value of medical attendance
(c) Travelling allowance
(d) House rent allowance
57.
What is the extent of representation of independent persons in the Committees and Sub-Committees constituted under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948?
(a) One- half of the total members
(b) One-fourth of the total members
(c) One-third of the total members
(d) Two-thirds of the total members
58.
Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, which one of the following bodies is appointed by the appropriate Government for the purpose of coordinating the works of the Committees and Sub-Committees and for advising the appropriate Government in matters of fixing and revising minimum wages?
(a) State Advisory Council
(b) Advisory Board
(c) State Monitoring Authority
(d) State Advisory and Monitoring Board
59.
Under the provisions of the Minimum Wages Act 1948, who among the following can NOT be appointed as the Authority by the appropriate Government to hear and decide any claims arising out of payment of less wages than the minimum rates of wage?
(a) Labour Commissioner of a State Government
(b) Regional Labour Commissioner (Central)
(c) Commissioner for Workmen’s Compensation
(d) Assistant Labour Commissioner (Central)
60.
Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, how many members may be nominated by the Central Government while constituting the Central Advisory Board?
(a) Not exceeding seventeen but not less than eleven
(b) Not exceeding fifteen but not less than ten
(c) Not exceeding twenty but not less than fifteen
(d) Not exceeding twelve but not less than seven
61.
Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, a contractor has to provide and maintain a canteen wherein ordinarily a minimum of:
(a) 50 contract workers are employed by a contractor
(b) 100 contract workers are employed by a contractor
(c) 20 contract workers are employed by a contractor
(d) 70 contract workers are employed by a contractor
62.
Which one of the following provisions is NOT covered under the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
(a) Sufficient supply of wholesome drinking water
(b) Rest rooms
(c) First aid facilities
(d) Crèches
63.
Under the provisions of the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970, which one of the following statements is true relating to the appointment of the Chairman of the State Advisory Board?
(a) The Chairman is to be appointed by the State Government
(b) The Labour Commissioner of the State shall be the ex-officio Chairman
(c) The Chairman is to be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the Central Government
(d) Labour Minister of the State shall be the ex-officio Chairman
64.
Under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee consists of a Chairman and such other members NOT exceeding:
(a) Five
(b) Ten
(c) Fifteen
(d) Twenty
65.
Under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986, the list of occupations in which children are prohibited to be employed is provided in :
(a) Part B of the Schedule under the Act
(b) Section 4 of the Act
(c) Section 6 of the Act
(d) Part A of the Schedule under the Act
66.
Which one of the following is to be constituted under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986?
(a) Child Labour Advisory Board
(b) Child Labour Technical Advisory Committee
(c) Child Labour Regulating Machinery
(d) Child Labour Regulating Advisory Board
67.
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct under the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act 1986?
(a) No child shall be permitted to work between 7 pm and 8 am
(b) The total period of work including interval for rest shall not spread over more than six hours
(c) A child may be permitted to work overtime maximum for two hours in a day
(d) No child shall work for more than three hours before he has had an interval for rest for at least one hour
68.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, an employer is liable to pay the amount of gratuity within:
(a) 15 days.
(b) 30 days.
(c) 45 days.
(d) 60 days.
69.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, what is the maximum amount of gratuity payable?
(a) Rs. 3,50,000
(b) Rs. 7,50,000
(c) Rs. 10,00,000
(d) Rs. 5,00,000
70.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, who among the following is NOT part of the ‘family’ of a male employee?
(a) His children whether married or unmarried
(b) Children of his predeceased daughter
(c) His dependent parents
(d) Dependent parents of his wife
71.
Under the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act 1972, what is the minimum period of service an employee must have served to make him eligible for gratuity on his retirement or resignation?
(a) Ten years
(b) Five years
(c) Seven years
(d) Six years
72.
Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996, employment of how many female construction workers make it mandatory for providing crèche facilities?
(a) More than twenty
(b) More than thirty
(c) More than forty
(d) More than fifty
73.
Which one of the following is NOT a statutory provision under the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996?
(a) Drinking water
(b) Accommodation
(c) Latrines and urinals
(d) Rest rooms and lunch rooms
74.
Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996, the employer of an establishment has to appoint a Safety Officer if there are:
(a) five hundred or more building workers.
(b) two hundred and fifty or more building workers.
(c) three hundred or more building workers.
(d) one hundred or more building workers.
75.
Under the provisions of the Building and Other Construction Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act 1996, a building worker who has been registered as a beneficiary can contribute to the Fund created under the Act till he attains the age of:
(a) Sixty two years.
(b) Sixty years.
(c) Fifty eight years.
(d) Sixty five years.
76.
Under the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India, Right to religion is NOT restricted by:
(a) Public order.
(b) Morality.
(c) Health.
(d) To acquire and administer property.
77.
Right to Privacy is an implied Fundamental Right traceable to:
(a) Right to Equality.
(b) Right Against Exploitation.
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion.
(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
78.
Who appoints the Judges of High Court of a State?
(a) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(b) The President of India
(c) The Governor of the concerned State
(d) The Prime Minister of India
79.
The Concurrent List to the Constitution of India was first introduced by:
(a) The Government of India Act, 1919
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) The Constitution of India, 1950
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
80.
The Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India was set up under the:
(a) Joint Resolution of Provincial Legislatures and Princely States, 1946.
(b) Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.
(c) Indian Independence Act, 1947.
(d) Mountbatten Plan, 1947.
81.
The Proclamation, under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, imposing President’s Rule in a State, has to be approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament before the expiration of:
(a) Six months.
(b) Six weeks.
(c) Two months.
(d) Two weeks.
82.
The President of India has the power to nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from:
(a) Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes.
(b) Other backward classes.
(c) persons of eminence category.
(d) Anglo-Indian community.
83.
Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments accorded position of primacy to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights?
(a) Sixteenth Amendment
(b) Twenty Fifth Amendment
(c) Forty Second Amendment
(d) Forty Fourth Amendment
84.
Articles 155-156 of the Constitution of India deal with:
(a) Inter-State Commerce Commission.
(b) Election Commission.
(c) Inter-State Council.
(d) The power of President to appoint and dismiss State Governors.
85.
The President of India has been empowered to return a Bill, as soon as possible, on presentation to him after its having been passed by the Houses of Parliament for assent, except in the case of:
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Ordinance
(d) Statute
86.
Which one of the following is NOT covered under the Seventy Third Amendment of the Constitution of India?
(a) Provision for the State Finance Commission
(b) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Women
(c) Provision for the State Planning Commission
(d) Provision for the State Election Commission
87.
The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains:
(a) Salaries of the President and Vice-President.
(b) Tribal areas, Scheduled areas.
(c) Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
(d) Languages.
88.
Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
89.
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to create one or more All India Services?
(a) Article 300
(b) Article 304
(c) Article 301
(d) Article 312 (1)
90.
How many members are nominated by the President to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 14
(b) 20
(c) 12
(d) 15
91.
The One Hundred and Sixth Constitutional Amendment Bill relates to:
(a) Tribal Governance
(b) Co-operative Societies
(c) Amendment of Article 311
(d) Office of Profit
92.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
93.
Adjudication of disputes relating to the inter-state river water are made by:
(a) Union Parliament.
(b) High Courts of affected States.
(c) Supreme Court of India.
(d) Tribunals set up by the Union Government.
94.
The Reports of the State Public Service Commissions are presented annually to the:
(a) President of India directly to be laid before each House of Parliament.
(b) respective Governors of States, who then forward the Reports to the Government of India.
(c) respective Governors who then forward the Reports to the State Legislatures concerned.
(d) respective Committees of State Legislatures.
95.
Which one of the following is NOT correct with regard to Article 243 ZD of the Constitution of India?
(a) In every State at the district level, there shall be a District Planning Committee to prepare a draft development plan for the district
(b) The draft development plan must have regard to matters of common interest between the Panchayats and the Municipalities in the district
(c) The Legislature of a State may make provision for the composition of the District Planning Committee
(d) The development plans are forwarded to the State Planning Commissions for mandatory consideration
In 1947, India had municipal corporations at:
(a) Madras, Calcutta and Delhi
(b) Lucknow, Calcutta and Bombay
(c) Madras, Calcutta and Bombay
(d) Lucknow, Calcutta and Madras
97.
Which one of the following is NOT an objective of Non-Aligned Movement?
(a) Establishment of world peace
(b) To contribute to the game of power politics
(c) Removal of racial discrimination
(d) To play a role in the process of decolonization of the slave countries
98.
According to Article 107 of the Constitution of India, in matters of Ordinary Legislation:
(a) Lok Sabha has been given more powers.
(b) Rajya Sabha has been given more powers.
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha has been given more powers.
(d) Both the Houses have been given equal powers.
99.
The members of the Union Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to:
(a) Rajya Sabha.
(b) Lok Sabha.
(c) President.
(d) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
100.
Which one of the following festivals is celebrated every year in Ladakh in the month of February?
(a) Labrang
(b) Dosmoche
(c) Saga Dawa
(d) Zamling Chisang
101.
In February 2015, India signed a bilateral agreement on civil nuclear cooperation with:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bhutan
102.
What is ‘Vanaj 2015’?
(a) International ayurvedic conference hosted by India
(b) National tribal festival held recently in Delhi
(c) A dance festival of Telangana
(d) Guerilla warfare exercise held recently between Border Security Force and Bangladesh Rifles
103.
The ‘Thirty Fifth National Games of India 2015’ was held in:
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) West Bengal
(d) Assam
104.
Who among the following is the Fiftieth recipient of the Jnanpith Award?
(a) Bhalachandra Nemade
(b) U R Ananthamurthy
(c) Kedarnath Singh
(d) Pratibha Ray
105.
Who among the following is the winner of the Australian Open Men’s Single Tennis Tournament (2015)?
(a) Roger Federer
(b) Novak Djokovic
(c) Andy Murray
(d) Simone Boleli
106.
Mr. M can drive from Rampur to Sitapur by two alternative roads in same time. Road I is 20 km longer than road II, but is in a good condition and he can drive at a constant normal speed. Road II is in bad condition and he has to drive at a speed of 20 km/hr slower. After road II is repaired, how long will it take him at normal speed?
(a) Less than 1 hour
(b) More than 1 hour
(c) Exactly 1 hour
(d) Cannot be ascertained from the given information
107.
R was born when his father A was 27 years old. A’s brother is of same age as of R’s mother. R married on his mother’s fiftieth birthday. A is three years older than his brother. How old was R on his marriage day?
(a) 28 years
(b) 26 years
(c) 27 years
(d) 25 years
108.
Which one of the following is the next entry in the series ZYX, WUS, TQN,………?
(a) QMI
(b) QNH
(c) PLG
(d) RNK
109.
Which one of the following is the next entry in the series 987, 000, 123,…….?
(a) 654
(b) 000
(c) 246
(d) 243
110.
A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?
(a) 1069
(b) 1071
(c) 1074
(d) 1075
111.
In a certain code language ‘123’ means ‘bright little boy’, ‘145’ means ‘tall big boy’ and ‘637’ means ‘beautiful little flower’. Which one the following digits in that language imply ‘bright’?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
112.
Find out odd one out from the following:
(a) Circle
(b) Ellipse
(c) Parabola
(d) Sphere
113.
If P is twice of Q, Q is thrice of R, R is four times of S and S is equal to 2, what is P?
(a) 24
(b) 48
(c) 32
(d) 64
114.
The ratio of areas of circles inscribed and circumscribed of an equilateral triangle is:
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 9
115.
A man invests Rs. 100 for 3 years at the compound interest rate of 4% per annum for the first year and 5% per annum for the second and third years. How much money will he get after 3 years?
(a) Rs. 114.00
(b) Rs. 114.66
(c) Rs. 114.20
(d) Rs. 114.40
116.
Distance from point A to point B is 20 km. A person is driving a car at the rate of 40 km per hour. Each wheel of the car is rotated 10,000 times by the time it reaches from point A to point B. If the person drives the car at the rate of 60 km per hour, then to reach from point A to point B, each wheel of the car rotates:
(a) 10,000 times
(b) 15,000 times
(c) 25,000 times
(d) 40,000 times
117.
A cube of the side 4 cm is painted on all 6 faces with the same colour. It is then broken up into smaller cubes, each of side 1 cm. What is the proportion of the number of cubes with no paint to the number of cubes with exactly one face painted and to those with exactly two sides painted?
(a) 1 : 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 6 : 8
(c) 1 : 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 3 : 3
118.
Three of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one does NOT belong to that group?
(a) Needle
(b) Nail
(c) Pin
(d) Hammer
119.
In a certain code RAINBOW is coded as ‘XPCOJBS’. What is the code of RINGLET?
(a) LETRING
(b) UFMFMJS
(c) UFMHOJS
(d) TELGNIR
120.
The probability of happening an event can never be:
(a) 1
(b) 0.5
(c) 0
(d) -1
TSPSC Group 1 Question Paper 2024, Downl...
TSPSC Group 1 Answer key 2024 Out, Downl...
UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper, Downlo...
